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Vet Virology

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1) Infectious bursal disease of chickens leads to loss of which the following cell types?
  1. B lymphocytes
  2. Enteric epithelia
  3. Neurons
  4. Thymic cells
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2) Cellular onc genes are:
  1. host genes encoding (usually) products involved in normal cell signaling and cell division pathways
  2. host genes encoding products of little usefulness to the normal cell and seem to fxn only in the causation of cancer
  3. sometimes "turned on" abnormally by an adjacently-integrated oncogenic retrovirus with a strong promoter for RNA dependent RNA polymerase II activity
  4. sometimes transduced into genome of an oncogenic retrovirus
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3) Which of the following agents may be spread horixontally between infected horses WITHOUT an insect vector?
  1. Eastern Equine Encephalitis Virus
  2. Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis Virus
  3. West Nile Virus
  4. Western Equine Encephalitis Virus
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4) The transmissible spongioform encephalopathy that appears to cross species lines relatively easily is which of the following?
  1. Bovine spongioform encekphalopathy
  2. Chronic wasting disease
  3. Kuru
  4. Scrapie
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5) For which of the following families are specific antiviral medications available to treat infections?
  1. Coronaviridae
  2. Herpesviridae
  3. Iridoviridae
  4. Picornaviridae
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6) In addition to reverse transcription, RTase has which of the following activities?
  1. DNase
  2. RNAase
  3. glycosylase
  4. protease
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7) The TSE that appears to be able to cross spp lines easily is which of the following?
  1. Bovine spongioform encephalopathy
  2. Chronic wasting dz
  3. Creutzfeldt-Jakob dz
  4. Scrapie
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8) Antiviral drugs available for influenza may inhibit
  1. assembly
  2. attachment
  3. transcription
  4. uncoating
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9) The "point of no return" with RV infection, when intervention with anti-RV immunoglobulin administration and vaccination will no longer be effective for post-exposure tx is which of the following?
  1. When the virus enters the peripheral nerves innervating the musc
  2. When the virus is first inoculated via the bite
  3. When the virus undergoes intial replication in the musc
  4. when the virus gains access to the CN
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10) Which of the following diseases is currently endemic in the US?
  1. African Swine Fever
  2. Foot and Mouth Disease
  3. Lumpy Skin Disease
  4. Scrapie
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11) The TSE that occurs in wildlife in the USA is which of the following?
  1. Bovine spongioform encephalopathy
  2. Chronic wasting dz
  3. Creutzfeldt-Jakob dz
  4. Scrapie
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12) Which of the following viral genera contains members associated with respiratory disease and abortion in dogs, horses, and cattle?
  1. Alphaherpesvirus
  2. Enterovirus
  3. Ranavirus
  4. Suipoxvirus
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13) Outbreaks of Rift Valley Fever occur during which of the following conditions?
  1. Freezing temps and heavy snowfall
  2. Heavy rainfall with flooding
  3. High altitude and drying conditions
  4. Period of drought and high temperature
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14) Rubella has the most serious consequences in:
  1. Children
  2. Elderly
  3. Pregnant women
  4. Summer months
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15) The transmissible spongioform encephalopathies (TSE's) are acquired by which of the following modes?
  1. Aerosol
  2. Animal bite
  3. Arthropod vector
  4. Ingestion
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16) The vector of rv that is of increasing concern in the USA due to its typical habitat, and to which oral vaccination has been targeted in TN is which of the following?
  1. coyotes
  2. domestic dogs
  3. foxes
  4. raccoons
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17) Herpesviridae: Viral messenger RNA is transcribed from viral DNA by a transcriptase which is a(n):
  1. alpha gene product
  2. beta gene product
  3. cellular gene product
  4. gamma gene product
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18) The antiviral effect of nucleoside analogues is due to their interaction with the following viral enzyme:
  1. Latency Associated Transcript
  2. alpha trans inducing factor
  3. thymidine kinase
  4. virion host shutoff protein
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19) Orf is a disease that is most significant in which of the following hosts?
  1. Cattle
  2. Kittens
  3. Lambs
  4. Wildlife
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20) Which of the following statements about Foot and Mouth Disease or its agent is TRUE?
  1. Infection invariably leads to death
  2. Infections are localized with no systemic spread
  3. Lesions in sheep and goats are the most severe while infection in cattle is often subclinical
  4. Recovered animal are immune to all serotypes
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21) Yellow fever and Dengue are both associated with:
  1. Encephalitis
  2. Hemorrhagic fever
  3. Pneumonia
  4. Polyarthritis
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22) Smallpox was able to be eradicated via mass vaccination of people against the viral agent. Which of the following viral properties was a major contributor to this capability?
  1. It causes persistnet infection of the host
  2. It has no animal reservoir
  3. It induces short-lived humoral response
  4. It is unstable in the environment
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23) The lesions of feline infectious peritonitis invovle all fo the following EXCEPT:
  1. IgE production and type I hypersensitivity
  2. antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
  3. complement activation
  4. immune complexformation
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24) Vesicular stomatitis is impt b/c the dz resembles
  1. F&M dz
  2. RV
  3. measles
  4. small pox
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25) Which of the following transmissible spongioform encephalopathies occurs naturally in wildlife?
  1. Bovine spongioform encephalopathy
  2. Chronic wasting disease
  3. Kuru
  4. Scrapie
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26) The genus of Paramyxoviridae that includes sever significant pathogens of humans and animals, and which may result in widespread tissue infections involving the resp, GI, and neuro sys is which of the following?
  1. Lyssavirus
  2. Morbillivirus
  3. Pneumovirus
  4. Rubulavirus
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27) The genera of the Picornaviridae differ in which of the following properties?
  1. Acid stability
  2. Number of capsomers
  3. Number of open reading frames in the genome
  4. Number of proteins composing the capsomers
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28) Which of the following has as its pathogenesis immune-mediated destruction of cells?
  1. Avian infectious bronchitis
  2. Feline infectious peritonitis
  3. Porcine hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis
  4. Transmissible gastroenteritis
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29) The transcription of the Reoviridae members is unusual in that:
  1. It is done by the cellular transcriptase
  2. It occurs in the cell nucleus
  3. It occurs w/in the viral core
  4. It produces nested trannscripts
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30) Which of the following is not a possible sequela to mumps
  1. encephalitis
  2. orchitis
  3. pancreatitis
  4. splenitis
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31) Rift Valley Fever is a significant dz in which of the following animals?
  1. Carnivores
  2. Poultry
  3. Rodents
  4. Ruminants
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32) The cell type impt in neural dz due to HIV is a
  1. B lymphocyte
  2. T lymphocyte
  3. macrophage
  4. neutrophil
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33) The surface receptor for HIV is ______ on ____ cells
  1. CD4; T helper
  2. CD8; cytotoxic T
  3. ICAM-I; B
  4. MHC; macrophage
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34) Which of the following is NOT a reportable/ notifiable disease?
  1. Avian encephalomyelitis
  2. Foot and mouth disease
  3. Swine vesicular disease
  4. Vesicular exanthema of swine
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35) Which of the following is not an impt reservoir of rv infection in the US
  1. coyotes
  2. raccoons
  3. skunks
  4. wolves
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36) Which group of animals suffers severe dz with teh agent of Rift Valley Fever?
  1. equids
  2. poultry
  3. ruminants
  4. suids
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37) Cap snatching is required for transcription of which of the following?
  1. orthomyxovirus
  2. paramyxovirus
  3. retrovirus
  4. rhabdovirus
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38) The genomic property of ambisense indicates
  1. Circular nature of the genome due to inverted repeat sequences
  2. Double-stranded nature of the DNA
  3. Genome is segmented
  4. Genome may act as mRNa and undergo translation after uncoating
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39) Vesicular stomatitis can be distinguished from foot and mouth dz in part b/c it affects which of the following species?
  1. Deer
  2. Horses
  3. Sheep
  4. Swine
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40) A vaccine for foot and mouth disease:
  1. Is acid-stable
  2. Is serotype-specific
  3. Is widely used in the US and Europe
  4. Prevents infection and shedding of virus
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41) Vasculitis is assoc with the agent of which of the following dz of swine?
  1. hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis
  2. nipah
  3. procine resp and repro syndrome
  4. transmissible gastroenteritis
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42) Which of the following causes the most severe disease in adult animals?
  1. Bluecomb disease
  2. Porcine epidemic diarrhea
  3. Transmissible gastroenteritis
  4. Winter dysentery
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43) Arteriviridae members differ from Coronaviridae members in which of the following properties?
  1. Capsid symmetry
  2. Genomic sense (i.e. positive vs negative)
  3. Linear vs circular genome
  4. Presence of envelope
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44) Which of the following is considered a foreign disease agent ot the USA and is notifiable to state and federal authorites when suspected?
  1. Classical Swine Fever Virus
  2. Eastern Equine Encephalitis Virus
  3. Transmissible Gastroenteritis Virus
  4. West Nile Virus
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45) Which of the following transmissible spongioform encephalopathies is present in wildlife in the US?
  1. Chronic wasting dz
  2. Kuru
  3. Mink encephalopathy
  4. Scrapie
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46) Which of the following is notifiable because of the disease resemblance to foot and mouth disease?
  1. Rubivirus
  2. Vesicular exanthema
  3. Viral arteritis
  4. Winter dysentery
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47) Which of the following is not a source of rabies in the US
  1. fox
  2. opossum
  3. raccoon
  4. skunk
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48) With feline infectious peritonitis, the etiologic agent mutates, altering its cellular tropism from ________ to _______.
  1. Epithelia; lymphocytes
  2. Intestinal epithelia; monocytes/macrophages
  3. Intestinal epithelia; respiratory epithelia
  4. Mucosal epithelia; white blood cells
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49) Azidothymidine is a chemotherapeutic agent used in HIV and FIV infections. its mechanism of action involves
  1. incorporation into growing RNA strand by RT
  2. incorportation into growing RNA strand by DNA dependent RNA polymerase II
  3. incorportation into the growing DNA strand by reverse transcriptase
  4. phosphorylatino of azidothymidine molecule by thymidine kinase before it becomes active
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50) Which of the following is not a possible consequence of equine viral arteritis?
  1. Edema and hemorrhage
  2. Persistent infection of stallions
  3. Respiratory disease
  4. Small bowel diarrhea
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51) Alphaherpesvirinae members
  1. Achieve latency in neural ganglia
  2. Achieve latency in secretory glands
  3. Are lymphotropic
  4. Replicate slowly in epithelial cells
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52) Transcription for Togaviridae members involves which of the following strategies:
  1. Production of genomic and subgenomic mRNA
  2. Production of genomic-length mRNA only
  3. Production of nested transcripts
  4. Use of cellular mRNA caps
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53) 2 impt regulatory proteins of HIV are
  1. alpha TIF & LAT
  2. hemagglutinin & neuraminidase
  3. leader & promoter
  4. tat & rev
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54) Which of the following strategies is used during mRNA translation of some Flaviviridae members?
  1. Cellular mRNA cap-snatching
  2. Cleavage of cellular cap-binding complex
  3. Degredation of cellular mRNA
  4. Use of internal ribosomal entry site during translation
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55) Which of the following viral genera contains members associated with die-offs of frogs?
  1. Alphaherpesvirus
  2. Enterovirus
  3. Ranavirus
  4. Suipoxvirus
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56) Infectious bronchitis of chickens may also lead to which of the following disease manifestations?
  1. Atrophy of bursa of Fabriscus
  2. Neoplasia
  3. Paralysis
  4. Reduced egg production and abnormal eggs
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57) Mouse hepatitis virus infects and causes lesions in liver and _______.
  1. Intestines
  2. Kidneys
  3. Lungs
  4. Spleen
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58) Herpesvirus virion structural proteins are encoded by:
  1. alpha genes
  2. beta genes
  3. capsid genes
  4. gamma genes
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59) The Poxviridae members carry all of the following as viral structural proteins EXCEPT:
  1. Lateral body
  2. RNA polymerase (transcriptase)
  3. mRNA capping enzyme
  4. mRNA splicing enzyme
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60) Which of the following agents produces proteins that mimic coagulation cascade proteins and leads to depletion of clotting factors?
  1. Bunyaviruses
  2. Filoviruses
  3. Paramyxoviruses
  4. Torociruses
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61) Cleavage of what surface protein of orthomyxovirus is critical to viral infection
  1. G glycoprotein
  2. fusion protein
  3. hemagglutinin
  4. neuraminidase
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62) The viruses which make and secrete a glycoprotein that acts as a decoy antigen that binds neutralizing antibodies is which of the following?
  1. Arenaviruses
  2. Birnaviruses
  3. Bornaviruses
  4. Filoviruses
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63) Alpha trans-inducing factor protein encoded by herpesviruses is associated with the:
  1. envelope
  2. genome
  3. nucelocapsid
  4. tegument
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64) The viruses that utilize a terminal protein to prime DNA replication are which of the following?
  1. Adenoviridae
  2. Circoviridae
  3. Papillomaviridae
  4. Polyomaviridae
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65) The tegument is a structural component of _______ and contains a viral protein used for ________.
  1. Herpesviruses; host mRNA degredation
  2. Herpesviruses; splicing mRNA
  3. Iridoviruses; DNA replication
  4. Poxviruses; transcription
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66) Which is not a correct statement regarding the properties of viral glycoproteins as we understand them?
  1. their amino acid sequence is encoded by the viral genome
  2. they are incorporated into cellular membranes before becoming part of the virion
  3. they are often involved in virus attachment for initiation of infection
  4. they are usually non-structural proteins
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67) The term used to describe fusion of adjacent cells by viral envelope glycoproteins expressed on an infected cell's surface is which of the following?
  1. fusarium
  2. lysogeny
  3. syncytia
  4. syngeneic
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68) Immediately after uncoating, translation of the coronavirus genome produces which of the following proteins?
  1. Capsomer
  2. Hemagglutinin
  3. Peplomer
  4. Polymerase
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69) The herpesvirus virion host shutoff protein involved in herpesvirus replication is released from the virion at/in the:
  1. cell membrane
  2. cytoplasm
  3. nuclear pore
  4. nucleus
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70) A component of the pathogenesis of filoviruses is that some viral proteins
  1. activate cellular growth factors
  2. down-regulate MHC-I expression
  3. lead to disruption fo the nuclear membrane
  4. resemble certain host proteins such as clotting factor
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71) The first step of replication following uncoating of picornaviruses is which of the following?
  1. Budding
  2. Genomic replication
  3. Transcription
  4. Translation
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72) The normal host of the herpesvirus causing Malignant Catarrhal Fever in cattle often is
  1. buffalo
  2. gazelle
  3. wildebeest
  4. zebra
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73) The species of animal that may serve as an amplifier in an outbreak of Foot and Mouth Disease Virus, producing high levels of virus in respiratory secretions is which of the following?
  1. Cattle
  2. Goats
  3. Sheep
  4. Swine
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74) Which of the following viruses has the highest mortality in infected horses?
  1. Eastern equine encaphalitis virus
  2. Venequelan equine encaphalitis virus
  3. West Nile virus
  4. Western equine encaphalitis virus
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75) An effective vaccine for rotavirus msut induce
  1. cell-mediated immunity in stomach
  2. humoral immunity in oropharyngeal tissue
  3. local immunity in intestines
  4. systemic IgG
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76) The virus classified within the Rhabdoviridae that affects livestock and is reportable to state authorities is the agent of which of the following?
  1. Bluetongue
  2. Swine vesicular dz
  3. Vesicular exanthema
  4. Vesicular stomatitis
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77) Antigenic shifts w/in the orthomyxovirus family are most readily explained by:
  1. deletion mutations (that is, production of defective viruses with deleted genome segments
  2. intramolecular recombinatino during dual infection
  3. point mutations during virus replication
  4. reassociation (i.e. reassortment) of the genome segments during dual infection
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78) Which of the following Bunyavirus-related diseases is NOT generally associated with abortion in infected animals?
  1. Akabane
  2. Nairobi Sheep Dz
  3. Rift Valley Fever
  4. Sandfly Fever
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79) The dz due to Bornavirus affects the ______ & is due to _____.
  1. Bursa of Fabricius; viral destruction of B cells
  2. CNS; T cell immune response to the virus
  3. blood vessels; autoimmune respones to surface proteins
  4. lungs; viral destruction of pneumocytes
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80) The first stem in all virus infections is which of the following?
  1. Attachment to cell receptor
  2. Fusion
  3. Migration to nucleus
  4. Uncoating
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81) The virus of African Horse Sickness targets which of the following cell types leading to the characteristic edematous lesions is which of the following?
  1. Endothelial cells
  2. Hepatic parenchymal cells
  3. Kupffer cells
  4. Pneumocytes
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82) Infectious bronchitis virus (IBV) of poultry, in addition to respiratory disease, also causes:
  1. Decreased egg production
  2. Epidemic tremors
  3. Feather loss
  4. Hepatic failure
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83) Which of the following viruses require the cellular nucleus for replication?
  1. Asfarviruses
  2. Caliciviruses
  3. Iridoviruses
  4. Picornaviruses
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84) Akbane and cache valley fever viruses are similar in that both cause which of the following dz synderomes in infected animals?
  1. abortion
  2. encephalitis
  3. hemorrhagic fever
  4. hepatic necrosis
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85) Which of the following poxviruses is NOT routinely transmitted by insects?
  1. Goatpoxvirus
  2. Parapoxvirus
  3. Sheeppoxvirus
  4. Swinepoxvirus
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86) The viruses of Cowpox, Monkey Pox, and Encephalomyocarditis (Picornavirus) share a common characteristic in that the natural host for all is which of the following?
  1. Carnivores
  2. Cattle
  3. Rodents
  4. Ticks
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87) Pseudorabies virus may cause disease in all of the following EXCEPT:
  1. Cats
  2. Monkeys
  3. Rodents
  4. Swine
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88) Within the Coronavirus genus of Coronaviridae, segregation of viruses into groups I-III is primarily based on:
  1. Antigenicity
  2. Capsomer number
  3. Genomic sequence
  4. Virion diameter
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89) The virus families, in addition to Orthomyxoviruses, whose members snatch the cap of cellular mRNA in order to prime viral RNA syntheses are which of the following?
  1. Arenaviridae, Filoviridae
  2. Bunyaviridae, Arenaviridae
  3. Filoviridae, Bornaviridae
  4. Paramyxoviridae, Rhabdoviridae
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90) During its replication cycle, herpesvirus DNa is replicated by a product(s) of:
  1. alpha gene(s)
  2. beta gene(s)
  3. cellular gene(s)
  4. gamma gene(s)
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91) A common consequence of equine herpesvirus 1 infection in horses is:
  1. Abortion
  2. Enteritis
  3. Pneumonia
  4. Vaginitis
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92) The virus family that contains many pathogens of fish is which of the following?
  1. Adenoviridae
  2. Circoviridae
  3. Iridoviridae
  4. Poxviridae
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93) The reservoir of malignant catarrhal fever virus in countries outside of Africa is:
  1. Birds
  2. Mosquitos
  3. Sheep
  4. White-tailed deer
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94) Which of the following viruses us a viral protease to cleave and inactivate the cellular cap-binding complex leading ot uncapped cellular mRNA?
  1. Bovine herpesvirus-1
  2. Poliovirus
  3. Vesicular exanthema virus
  4. West Nile virus
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95) Psittacine herpesvirus (Pacheco's disease) often results in necrotic lesions in the:
  1. intestinal epithelium
  2. liver
  3. lymphoid tissues
  4. upper respiratory tract
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96) All of the following herpesviruses may lead to abortion in pregnant animals EXCEPT:
  1. Bovine herpesvirus-1
  2. Canine herpesvirus
  3. Marek's disease virus
  4. Pseudorabies virus (in swine)
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97) Which of the following has the largest RNA genome of animal viruses?
  1. Caliciviridae
  2. Coronaviridae
  3. Picornaviridae
  4. Togaviridae
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98) Persistent infections with bovine viraldiarrhea virus (BVDV) are due to:
  1. Ability of the virus to mutate and escape the immune response
  2. Immunosuppression of the calf caused by the virus
  3. Immunotolerance to the virus in calves infected in utero
  4. Tremendous antigenic variability of the virus
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99) Which of the following contributes to the tissue tropism of influenza viruses
  1. presence of CD4 receptor
  2. presence of cellular protease
  3. presence of glycosylation enzyme
  4. presence of intercellular adhesion molecule
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100) Bornaviruses reach their target tissue (replication in which leads to the dz associated with these viruses) via which of the following modes of spread?
  1. Epithelial migration
  2. Lymph circulation
  3. Macrophage transport
  4. Neuronal migration
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101) For which of the following viruses is infectivity enhanced by transit through the intestine?
  1. Influenza virus
  2. Metapneumovirus
  3. Paramyxovirus
  4. Rotavirus
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102) The reservoir of Hendravirus is which of the following?
  1. bats
  2. birds
  3. reptiles
  4. rodents
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103) Which of the following viruses causes anorexia, weight loss or poor weight gain, gastrointestinal symptoms, and death in pigs by infection of the central nervous system?
  1. Coxsackie virus
  2. Hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis virus
  3. Swine vesicular disease
  4. Transmissible gastroenteritis virus
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104) The reservoir for Hantavirus in the Americas is which of the following?
  1. Arthropods
  2. Bats
  3. Deer
  4. Mice
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105) The reservoir and vector for the Arenaviruses is which of the following?
  1. Birds
  2. Mosquitoes
  3. Rodents
  4. Sandflies
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106) The majority of human infections of rabies virus in the USA come from which of the following reservoir spp?
  1. Bats
  2. Cats
  3. Dogs
  4. Skunks
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107) Bluetongue virus of sheep is transmitted by ________ & targets specific ________ cells.
  1. aerosol; white blood
  2. culicoides; endothelial
  3. ingestion; endothelial
  4. ticks; epithelial
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108) Which of the following viruses snatch othe cap of cellular mRNA in order to prime viral RNA synthesis?
  1. Bunyaviruses
  2. Filoviruses
  3. Paramyxoviruses
  4. Toroviruses
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109) The "natural" host of pseudorabies virus is:
  1. cattle
  2. dogs
  3. sheep
  4. swine
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110) Lifelong persistent infection with bovine viral diarrhea virus arises by which of the following mechanisms?
  1. Exaggerated humoral response to the virus
  2. Immunodeficiency induced by the virus
  3. Induction of immunotolerance to the virus
  4. Viral latency
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111) Which mechanism best explains the phenomenon of antigenic drift in a virus family?
  1. accumulation of poitn mutations
  2. arthropod migration
  3. bird migration
  4. reassortment of genome segments
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112) The epidemic types of Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis Virus:
  1. Are due to mutation of endemic strains
  2. Arise by importation of foreing strains
  3. Occur during periods of drought
  4. Occur yearly in temperate zones
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113) The enterotropic Coronaviruses target which of the following intestinal cell types?
  1. Crypt epithelia
  2. Epithelia of villus tips
  3. Intestinal vascular endothelia
  4. M cells
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114) An obstacle to combating filovirus infectino is that
  1. people that recover remain persistnetly infected
  2. the reservoir is unknown
  3. the virus is easily spread by aerosol
  4. the virus uses an insect vector
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115) The viruses of Bluetongue and African Horse Sickness are similar in that both target which of the following cell types?
  1. Hepatic cells
  2. Lung parenchyma
  3. Myocardium
  4. Vascular endothelia
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116) The target cells of rotaviruses are ________ and it reaches these cells via transit through _________.
  1. intestinal crypts; blood
  2. intestinal epithelia; lymphatics
  3. intestine villus tips; GI tract
  4. macrophages; blood
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117) Which of the following strategies is employed by single straned RNA viruses of negative polarity to govern the switch from transcription to genomic replication?
  1. Accumulation of capsomers
  2. Cap-snatching
  3. Production of viral polymerase
  4. Promotor activation
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118) An impt paramyxovirus of poultry is
  1. avian influenza virus
  2. avian leukosis virus
  3. infectious bursal dz virus
  4. newcastle dz virus
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119) The natural reservoir of the virus of severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is believed to be:
  1. Bats
  2. Birds
  3. Feral swine
  4. Ticks
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120) Arteriviruses target, in addition to vascular endothelia, which of the following cell types?
  1. Intestinal M cells
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Macrophages
  4. Mast cells
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121) In the replication cycle of viruses that have distinct phases of transcription, the phases are separated by which of the following?
  1. Genomic replication
  2. Splicing
  3. Translation
  4. Uncoating
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122) Infectious Mareks disease virus is produced in:
  1. B lymphocytes
  2. T lymphocytes
  3. feather follicle epithelium
  4. pharyngeal mucosa
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123) The main viral property used to classify coronaviruses into grous (I, II, and III) within the Coronavirus genus is which of the following
  1. Antigenicity
  2. Genome polarity
  3. Presence of an envelope
  4. Transcriptional strategy
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124) Transmission of African Swine Fever Virus may occur via all of the following modes EXCEPT:
  1. Aerosol
  2. Direct contact
  3. Mosquitos
  4. Ticks
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125) Which of the following viruses' genome is a single molecule (i.e. not segmented) of linear RNA?
  1. Arenaviruses
  2. Birnaviruses
  3. Bunyaviruses
  4. Rhabdoviruses
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126) The phase in which (any) dz symptoms first occurs following rabies virus infection is which of the following?
  1. Acute neurologic
  2. Coma
  3. Incubation
  4. Prodrome
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127) The strx of reoviruses is unusual in that they
  1. are bullet-shaped
  2. have a diploid genome
  3. have a double shell
  4. occur in long filaments
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128) Which of the following viruses reaches its clinically-significant target tissue via neuronal migration?
  1. Arenaviruses
  2. Birnaviiruses
  3. Bornaviruses
  4. Filoviruses
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129) During latency of herpesviruses, the viral genome:
  1. Integrates inot the cellular DNA
  2. Is degraded
  3. Is not transcribed
  4. Remains episomal in the nucleus
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130) The virus family that contains many pathogens of fish is which of the following?
  1. Adenoviridae
  2. Circoviridae
  3. Iridoviridae
  4. Poxviridae
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131) Which of the following virus families contain nonenveloped virions?
  1. Caliciviridae
  2. Herpesviridae
  3. Poxviridae
  4. Togaviridae
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132) Which of the following viral families contains the larges virus of animals?
  1. Caliciviridae
  2. Herpesviridae
  3. Poxviridae
  4. Togaviridae
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133) Influenza viruses are classified into subgroups according to
  1. antigenicity of surface proteins
  2. cellular location of replication
  3. mechanism of transcription
  4. polymerase gene sequence
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134) Rabies virus reaches teh brain and salivary gland via the
  1. SQ tissue
  2. blood
  3. lymph
  4. nerves
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135) The herpesvirus capsid is:
  1. helical
  2. icosahedral
  3. octahedral
  4. pleiomorphic
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136) In herpesvirus infected cells, virion capsids assemble in/at the:
  1. cytoplasm
  2. inner lamella of the nuclear membrane
  3. nucleus
  4. plasma membrane
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137) Foot and mouth disease virus is of great concern economically for many reasons including:
  1. It affects horses, cattle, swine, and goats
  2. It has high mortality
  3. It is highly contagious
  4. Its transmissibility via mosquitoes
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138) The reservoirs of which the following virus groups are rodents?
  1. Arenaviruses and Phleboviruses
  2. Bornaviruses and Birnaviruses
  3. Filoviruses and Bornaviruses
  4. Hantaviruses and Arenaviruses
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139) Which of the following viruses may be shed in semen?
  1. Bovine coronavirus
  2. Equine viral arteritis virus
  3. Resp syncytial virus
  4. Vesicular stomatitis virus
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140) Abortive Replication of a virus may lead to which of the following?
  1. Cell lysis
  2. Cellular transformation
  3. Cytopathic effects
  4. Virus release
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141) Which of the following viruses has as its pathogenesis immune-mediated tissue destruction?
  1. Feline coronavirus
  2. Poliovirus
  3. Vesicular exanthema virus
  4. West Nile virus
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142) Orf, the disease caused by parapoxvirus is most significant in lambs because:
  1. It causes oral lesions that hinder nursing
  2. It is transmitted by insects
  3. It spreads systemically
  4. There is no vaccine
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143) One virus that has been isolated from feline sarcoma, called the Gardner Arnstein feline sarcoma virus, has the following genotype: *imagine it in your head* On the basis of this genotype, the virus is probably:
  1. a rapidly transforming virus defective for replication
  2. a rapidly transforming virus nondefective for replication
  3. a slowly transforming virus defective for replication and dependent on mechanism of "insertional activation" for sarcomagenesis
  4. a slowly transforming virus nondefective for replication and depending on a mechanism of "insertional activation" for sarcomagenesis
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144) Which of the following virus families contains a member associated with lymphoid tumors in poultry?
  1. Caliciviridae
  2. Herpesviridae
  3. Poxviridae
  4. Togaviridae
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145) For successful replication of reoviruses, it is necessary that which process be incomplete?
  1. activation of RNA polymerase
  2. budding
  3. fusion
  4. uncoating
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146) Herpesvirus recrudescence may be induced by
  1. Latency Associated Transcript
  2. a variety of stressors
  3. exposure to a closely related virus
  4. re-exposure to the same virus
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147) Transcription of iridoviruses differs from that of asfarviruses in that iridoviruses:
  1. Produce nested transcripts
  2. Produce polycistronic messages
  3. Use cellular RNA polymerase
  4. Use viral DNA polymerase
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148) Picornaviruses differ from caliciviruses in that picornaviruses utilize which of the following replication strategies
  1. Carry the viral RNA polymerase into the cell
  2. Produce nested transcripts of mRNA
  3. Produce subgenomic mRNA
  4. Utilize an internal ribosomal entry site in mRNA for translation
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149) Torovirus infections manifest with dz referable to which system?
  1. Endocrine
  2. GI
  3. Nervous
  4. Resp
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150) Which of the following is a requirement for a reservoir of an arthropod borne virus?
  1. Infection with the virus leads to a brief low-titer viremia in the reservoir
  2. Infection with the virus leads to mortality in the reservoir
  3. Reproduction f the reservoir is rapid
  4. The reservoir population is sparse
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151) The viruses used to control rabbit populations in Australia are classified in which of the following families?
  1. Caliciviridae and Picornaviridae
  2. Coronaviridae and Herpesviridae
  3. Poxviridae and Caliciviridae
  4. Togaviridae and Flaviviridae
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152) The major organ or system targeted by feline calicivirus is which of the following?
  1. Gastrointestinal tract
  2. Liver
  3. Respiratory system
  4. Reticuloendothelial system
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153) The viruses that utilize terminal hairpins to prime DNA replication are which of the following?
  1. Circoviridae
  2. Papillomaviridae
  3. Parvoviridae
  4. Polyomaviridae
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154) Rotavirus targets
  1. intestinal crypts
  2. intestinal epithelium
  3. intestinal lymphatics
  4. intestinal tips
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155) Which of the following may be a manifestation of Infectious Bronchitis Virus infection in poultry?
  1. Bursal destruction & immunosuppression
  2. Decreased egg laying production
  3. Feather loss
  4. Paralysis
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156) African horse sickness and bluetongue result from virus replication in
  1. brain
  2. intestinal epithelia
  3. lungs
  4. vascular endothelium
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157) An ineffective rotavirus vaccine would
  1. a fecal transplant
  2. be eating poop from a child
  3. i don't give a crap b/c i'm not gonna see a cruise ship to catch it any time soon
  4. screw a vaccine, i want rotavirus so i can skip finals
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158) Which of the following includes a virus that specifically targets the B lymphocytes at a particular stage of differentiation in birds?
  1. Arenaviruses
  2. Birnaviiruses
  3. Bornaviruses
  4. Filoviruses
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159) In addition to epithelia of many tissues, canine distemper virus infects and is disseminated throughout the canine body by which of the following?
  1. Dendritic cells and tissue macrophages
  2. Lymphocytes and monocytes
  3. Neutrophils and mast cells
  4. RBC
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160) All of the following poxviruses are transmitted by arthropods EXCEPT:
  1. Lumpy skin disease virus
  2. Sheep- and goatpox viruses
  3. Smallpox virus
  4. Suipox virus
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161) For the arthropod-borne viruses (e.g. togaviruses, flaviviruses), it is important that the reservoirs:
  1. Be a bird species
  2. Maintain a viremia
  3. Shed the virus from mucosal surfaces
  4. Suffer severe disease with infection
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162) Which of the following is a significant manifestation of Filovirus infection?
  1. Diarrhea
  2. Encephalitis
  3. Prolonged bleeding
  4. Psychiatric disorder
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163) The viruses that have a circular genome of double-stranded DNA are which of the following?
  1. Circoviridae
  2. Papillomaviridae
  3. Parvoviridae
  4. Polyomaviridae
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164) Toroviruses generally cause which of the following disease syndromes?
  1. Acute renal failure
  2. Encephalitis
  3. Gastroenteritis
  4. Vasculitis
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165) Two virus families containing impt pathogens of fish are which of the following?
  1. Arenaviridae and Bunyaviridae
  2. Bornaviridae and Filoviridae
  3. Reoviridae and Orbiviridae
  4. Rhabdoviridae and Birnaviridae
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166) The biggest concern with retroviruses is
  1. eww used stuff!!! i want everything new
  2. i don't give a crap, just get this final over with already!!!
  3. retro is going to bring woodstock back into favor and therefore spread more viruses
  4. the affect on your social caliber b/c retro was so last season
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167) The virus that may cause severe primary viral pneumonia in cattle with characteristic emphysematous lesions is which of the following
  1. hantavirus
  2. influenza virus
  3. parainfluenza virus
  4. resp syncytial virus
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168) The genomic replication of picornaviruses is promed by which of the following structures?
  1. Genomic hairpins
  2. Internal ribosomal entry site
  3. Penton
  4. Terminal protein
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169) The reservoirs for the newly recognized Henipaviruses (Hendra and Nipah) of the Paramyxoviridae are which of the following?
  1. bats
  2. birds
  3. mosquitoes
  4. sandflies
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170) Nested transcription is done by all of the following viruses EXCEPT:
  1. Avian infectious bronchitis virus
  2. Equine viral arteritis virus
  3. Mouse hepatitis virus
  4. Vesicular exanthema virus
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171) Viruses of which of the following families contain an ambisense genome?
  1. arenaviridae
  2. coronaviridae
  3. flaviviridae
  4. paramyxoriridaee. rhabdoviridae
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172) Which of the following herpesviruses may be associated with neoplasia?
  1. Bovine herpesvirus-1
  2. Canine herpesvirus
  3. Marek's disease virus
  4. Pseudorabies virus (in swine)
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173) Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus (EEV) differs from Eastern and Western EEV in that VEEV:
  1. Can be amplified by horses during epidemic outbreaks
  2. Is endemic in North and South America
  3. Is not arthropod-borne
  4. Is transmitted by ticks as well as mosquitoes
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174) Nipah virus was transmitted to humans from
  1. fish
  2. horses
  3. rodents
  4. swine
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175) Which of the following properties of ssRNA viruses of neg polarity ensures that an adequate amt of capsomers in synthesized
  1. Genomic organization (where the genes are on the genome)
  2. Genomic polarity
  3. Intergenic signal sequences b/w each gene
  4. Secondary RNA strx (how it is folded)
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176) For which of the following viruses are horses potentially an amplifying host?
  1. Eastern Equine Encephalitis Virus
  2. Venezuuelan Equine Encephalitis Virus
  3. West Nile Virus
  4. Western Equine Encephalitis Virus
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177) The original source of the virus causing Vesicular Exanthema in swine is which of the following?
  1. Feral swine
  2. Marine mammals
  3. Mosquitoes
  4. Ticks
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178) Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus is the most prevalent member of this group of rodent-borne viruses:
  1. Arenaviruses
  2. Birnaviiruses
  3. Bornaviruses
  4. Filoviruses
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179) Which of the following viruses of veterinary importance may have high mortality in humans?
  1. Canine respiratory coronavirus
  2. Eastern equine encephalitis virus
  3. Rabbit hemorrhagic disease virus
  4. San Miguel Sea Lion virus
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180) Which virus infection(s) might likely exhibit the phenomenon of antigenic shift?
  1. Lasa fever (arenavirus)
  2. bluetongue (reovirus)
  3. influenza (orthomyxovirus)
  4. rabies (rhabdovirus)
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181) The family of viruses in which several impt pathogens of fish, including the agent of viral hemorrhagic septicemia are classified is which of the following?
  1. Bornaviridae
  2. Bunyaviridae
  3. Paramyxoviridae
  4. Rhabdoviridae
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182) Canine herpesvirus infection may cause a generalized infection in pups because of:
  1. failure to acquire passive immunity
  2. hypothermia in pups
  3. stress of weaning
  4. viral mammilitis in bitch
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183) Which of the following is an impt consequence of bovine viral diarrhea virus infection
  1. anemia
  2. immunosuppression
  3. paralysis
  4. renal failure
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184) The major consequence of post-natal infection with the Pestivirus Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus is which of the following?
  1. Encephalitis
  2. Immunosuppression
  3. Mucosal disease
  4. Skin lesions
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185) Which of teh following coronaviruses migrates to the target tissue via neurons?
  1. Feline infectiosu peritonitis virus
  2. Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus
  3. Vomiting and wasting disease virus of swine
  4. Winter dysentery virus of cattle
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186) Which of the following viruses is spread by arthropods?
  1. Border Dz Virus
  2. Lassa Fever Virus
  3. Rabies Virus
  4. Yellow Fever Virus
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187) Gamma herpesvirus infections often target:
  1. lymphocytes
  2. mucosal epithelium
  3. nerve cells
  4. secretory glands
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188) Rotavirus and enteric coronoavirus infections of the neonate show a similar dz pattern: diarrhea followed by dehydration and often death. Which statement best fits our present understainding of viral pathogenesis by both of these organisms?
  1. absorptive epithelium of the gut is destroyed
  2. death is caused ultimately by endothelial destruction
  3. malabsorption arising from virus-IgA immune complexes casues the dz symptoms
  4. secretory epithelium of teh gut is destroyed
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189) One of the major agents of KC in dogs is classified in which of the following virus families?
  1. Birnaviridae
  2. Bunyaviridae
  3. Orthomyxoviridae
  4. Paramyxoviridae
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190) Parainfluenza viruses are assoc w/
  1. croup in children
  2. inflamed salivary glands in children
  3. influenza in children
  4. rash in children
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191) The geographic distribution of arthropod-borne (arbo-) viruses is determined in large part by:
  1. Anatomic site of viral shedding in reservoirs
  2. Distribution of vector species that are permissive for the virus
  3. Hardiness of the virus in the environment
  4. Mode of transmission amonmg reservoirs
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192) EIA virus, a retrovirus, is normally transmitted:
  1. horizontally by an arthropod vector
  2. horizontally by way of contact
  3. vertically by way of milk
  4. vertically by way of the germ cell
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193) Marek's disease virus infection in chickens results in a proliferation of:
  1. B lymphocytes
  2. T lymphocytes
  3. epithelial cells
  4. nerve cells
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194) Filovirus targets the
  1. bone marrow
  2. neurons
  3. renal tubules
  4. vascular endothelium
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195) Which animal spp may serve as a "mixing pot" for influenza viruses?
  1. cattle
  2. monkeys
  3. rodents
  4. swine
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196) The genome of reoviruses is
  1. circular dsRNA
  2. diploid dsRNA
  3. segmented dsRNA
  4. segmented ssRNA
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197) Poliovirus, avian encephalomyelitis virus, and Teschen disease virus gain acces to the central nervous system after dissemination from which of the following sites?
  1. Direct inoculation into the bloodstream
  2. Gastrointestinal tract
  3. Insect vector bite
  4. Respiratory tract
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198) The phase in which post-exposure prophylaxis will be effective following rabies virus infection is which of the following?
  1. Acute neurologic
  2. Coma
  3. Incubation
  4. Prodrome
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199) Mucosal disease in cattle due to bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV) occurs only in:
  1. BVDV-vaccinated animals
  2. Calves
  3. Cattle that are persistently infected with BVDV
  4. Immunologically naive animals
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200) Alpha herpesviruses usually develop latency in:
  1. Dermal basal cells
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Secretory epithelium
  4. Sensory ganglia
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201) The enteric coronaviruses cause disease by targeting which of the following?
  1. Intestinal crypts
  2. Intestinal intraepithelial lymphocytes
  3. Intestinal villus tips
  4. M cells
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202) Immunopathology (immune-mediated disease) may be involved with a severe form of which of the following flavivirus infections?
  1. Dengue fever
  2. St. Louis encephalitis
  3. West Nile
  4. Yellow fever
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203) The replication of the RNA virus w/in a cell triggers production by that cell of which of the following?
  1. Complement
  2. Interferon
  3. Interleukin
  4. Prostaglandin
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204) The source of rv virus in most human exposure cases in the US is which of the following?
  1. bats
  2. coyotes
  3. domestic dogs
  4. foxes
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205) A major target tissue of rabbit hemorrhagic disease virus is which of the following?
  1. Central nervous system
  2. Endocrine tissue
  3. Liver
  4. Spleen
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206) The viruses of equine arteritis and porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome infect which of the following cell types?
  1. Enterocytes
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Macrophages
  4. Neutrophils
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207) The toroviruses cause disease primarily of which of the following systems
  1. Cardiovascular
  2. Enteric tract
  3. Hepatic tissue
  4. Respiratory tract
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208) The first step in virus replication after uncoating of the positive-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses is which of the following?
  1. Genome replication
  2. Splicing
  3. Transcription
  4. Translation
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209) Bornaviruses are assoc w/ which of the following disorders in vet med?
  1. Bolivian ephemeral fever
  2. Bovine ephemeral fever
  3. Proventricular dilatation dz of psittacines
  4. Spring viremia of carp
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210) West Nile Virus is the most significant in terms of disease production (# of infected animals that actually get sick) for which of the following species?
  1. Cattle
  2. Dogs
  3. Horses
  4. Humans
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211) Equine herpesvirus 3 usually causes:
  1. abortion
  2. encephalitis
  3. rhinopneumonitis
  4. vaginitis
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212) Feline Calicivirus may affect all of the following tissues EXCEPT:
  1. Central nervous system
  2. Conjunctiva
  3. Lungs
  4. Upper repiratory tract
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213) The enteric Coronaviruses generally cuase the most severe disease in:
  1. Cloven-hoffed animals
  2. Poultry
  3. Ruminants
  4. Very young animals
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214) Bovine herpesvirus 1 often targets the:
  1. brain
  2. liver
  3. lung
  4. upper respiratory tract
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215) Whihc of the following descriptions applies to the Caliciviruses?
  1. Linear genome of negative polarity
  2. Pleomorphic enveloped virus
  3. Segmented genome
  4. Small nonenveloped virus
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216) Birnaviruses may cause dz in
  1. birds and amphibians
  2. birds and fish
  3. horses and cattle
  4. reptiles and insects
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217) Membrane fusion (b/w the virus and the cell), as a mechanism of viral entry, is theoretically possible for which of the following
  1. adenoviruses
  2. hepadnaviruses
  3. papovaviruses
  4. parvoviruses
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218) The primary or main target cell of malignant catarrhal fever virus is which of the following cells?
  1. Lymphocytes
  2. Neurons
  3. Neutrophils
  4. Red blood cells
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219) The viruses of Duck Plague, Pacheco's Disease, and Infectious Laryngotracheitis are all members of which of the following family?
  1. Coronoaviridae
  2. Herpesviridae
  3. Iridoviridae
  4. Picornaviridae
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220) The so-called endogenous retroviruses of avian and feline species (insofar as is known)
  1. are only passed horizontally in thess spp
  2. have evidently lost the reverse transcriptase enzyme as a result of their intimate (over many generations) relationship with the host cell
  3. seem not to be the main cuase of retroviral neoplasia in these spp
  4. seem to be the main cause of retroviral neoplasia (cancer) in these spp
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