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Sections

1. Basic Knowledge
2. Chemistry
3. Microbiology
4. Hematology
5. Immunology
6. Immunohematology

Section 1: Basic Knowledge

1.1) What is the negative log of hydrogen ion concentration better known as?

1. SG
2. pH
3. pKa
4. the T/S constant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) A dilution ratio of 1:15 means what part specimen and what part diluent?

1. 1 part specimen, 15 parts diluent
2. 1 part specimen, 16 parts diluent
3. 15 parts specimen, 1 part diluent
4. 16 parts specimen, 1 part diluent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) What is the dilution factor 1/5 expressed as a dilution ratio?

1. 1:4
2. 1:5
3. 1:6
4. 5:1

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) A lab technician is preparing a serial dilution with eight tubes. The first tube contains a 1/2 dilution. If the dilution factor doubles with each transfer, what would be the dilution in the eighth tube?

1. 1/128
2. 1/256
3. 1/512
4. 1/1024

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) A lab technician adds 0.2 mL of a stock solution to 3.8 mL of diluent. What is the dilution factor?

1. 4
2. 5
3. 19
4. 20

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) Which prefix means 10⁻⁶?

1. Centi
2. Kilo
3. Micro
4. Nano

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) What is 0.05 mL in microliters?

1. 0.0005 μL
2. 0.005 μL
3. 5 μL
4. 50 μL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) What is the term for the following graph shape?

1. Normal distribution
2. Polynomial function
3. Quadratic chart
4. Reciprocal graph

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) The following data were calculated on a series of 100 determinations of a control.

Mean	5.8
Median	6.0
Mode	5.7
Range	1.5–20.2
Standard deviation	0.25

If confidence limits are set at ±2 standard deviations, what are the allowable limits for the control?

1. 5.30–6.30
2. 5.35–6.25
3. 5.50–5.90
4. 5.60–5.90

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) A test has a mean of 190.5 and a standard deviation of 2. If all control values must fall within 3 standard deviations of the mean, what is the acceptable range for the control values?

1. 184.5–196.5
2. 185.5–195.5
3. 187.5–193.5
4. 188.5–192.5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) What is the most likely cause of a single control value deviating beyond 3 standard deviations?

1. Calibration drift
2. Random error
3. Reagent degradation
4. Wear and tear of laboratory equipment

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Calculate the coefficient of variation for a test that has a mean of 15 and a standard deviation of 3.

1. 0.2%
2. 5%
3. 20%
4. 50%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Automated white blood cell counts were performed on 29 blood samples. The mean value was 8.0 cells/nL and the standard deviation was 1.2 cells/nL. What is the coefficient of variation?

1. 15%
2. 30%
3. 45%
4. 60%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) How many grams of sodium chloride are needed to make 300 mL of a 2% m/v solution?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 20

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) Which of these chemicals is explosive?

1. Crystal violet
2. Picric acid
3. Potassium chloride
4. Sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) On the NFPA hazard diamond below, what do the letters SA mean?

1. Can shock and/or cause acid damage
2. Safety assessed
3. Simple asphyxiant
4. Substance abuse

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) On the NFPA hazard diamond, a number 4 in the yellow quadrant means the substance:

1. is highly radioactive
2. is extremely contagious
3. readily burns at normal temperatures
4. readily explodes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) Which color on the NFPA hazard diamond signals the degree of hazards to health?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. White
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) Always keep picric acid:

1. dry
2. refrigerated
3. ventilated
4. wet

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) Which of these is an example of a Standard Precaution?

1. Fire extinguisher
2. Hand hygiene
3. Keeping chemicals containers closed
4. Radiation shielding

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) Which grade of chemical is the highest purity?

1. Commercial
2. Laboratory
3. Reagent
4. Technical

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) What is the universal solvent?

1. 0.85% sodium chloride
2. 10% ethanol
3. 8.5% NaCl
4. Water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) Which of these statements best describes preventive maintenance?

1. Fixing things before they break
2. Identifying unexpected failures
3. Repairing equipment after it fails
4. Turning off machines when they are not in use

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.24) What is the equation to convert revolutions per minute (RPM) to relative centrifugal force (RCF)?

1. RCF = RPM × 1.144 × 10⁵ × r²
2. RCF = RPM × 1.144 × 10⁻⁵ × r²
3. RCF = RPM² × 1.118 × 10⁵ × r
4. RCF = RPM² × 1.118 × 10⁻⁵ × r

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.25) Which pH buffer solution is typically used first when calibrating a pH meter?

1. pH 1
2. pH 4
3. pH 7
4. pH 10

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.26) Which of the following solutions is used to calibrate pH meters?

1. Buffer solution
2. Distilled water
3. Sodium chloride solution
4. Sodium hydroxide solution

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.27) Which microscope is most used in clinical laboratories?

1. Dark-field
2. Florescent
3. Light
4. Phase-contrast

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.28) Which part of a microscope adjusts the light intensity?

1. Iris diaphragm
2. Numerical aperture
3. Ocular lens
4. Stage clip

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.29) Which microscope would be best to examine an unstained, wet preparation of cells before dehydration?

1. Brightfield
2. Electron
3. Fluorescence
4. Phase contrast

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.30) Which pipette has a bulged-out portion in the middle?

1. Mohr
2. Pasture
3. Serological
4. Volumetric

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.31) Which pipette is the most accurate?

1. Bulb
2. Graduated
3. Pasteur
4. Volumetric

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.32) Which type of pipette has calibration marks to the tip?

1. Disposable
2. Micropipette
3. Serological
4. Volumetric

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.33) Which of these items of glassware is made to deliver specific volumes?

1. Beaker
2. Round-bottom flask
3. Volumetric flask
4. Volumetric pipette

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.34) Pipettes marked TC are:

1. allowed to drain freely
2. marked with a double ring at the mouthpiece
3. rinsed out after delivery
4. used for toxic, corrosive liquids

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.35) What do double rings mean on a pipette?

1. The last drop must be blown out
2. The pipette can hold 2 mL
3. The pipette will deliver the measured amount of liquid only at 20°C
4. The volume is measured at this point

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.36) What type of filter do biological safety cabinets use to remove airborne particles, such as bacteria and viruses?

1. Electrostatic
2. Fiberglass
3. HEPA
4. UV light

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.37) Biological safety cabinets should be tested at least every:

1. year
2. 2 years
3. 3 years
4. 4 years

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.38) Which of these is a post-analytical error?

1. A hemolyzed specimen
2. An empty collection tube
3. Incorrect information on the test request
4. Results reported in the wrong units

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.39) Which of these situations would cause random errors?

1. A lab assistant who reads the volume of liquids in flasks at a different angle every time
2. A plastic tape measure that has become slightly stretched over the years
3. A scale that has been incorrectly calibrated and always gives a value 10 g lighter than the real weight
4. A thermometer that always reads 2 degrees too high

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.40) _____________ is when readings become consistently lower or higher over time.

1. Calibration
2. Drift
3. Offset error
4. Unpredictability

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.41) Which of these is a pre-analytical error?

1. A light blue top tube filled only halfway
2. A result reported on the wrong patient
3. Incorrect calculation of test results
4. Incorrect interpretation of results

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.42) Random errors mainly affect:

1. accuracy
2. external validity
3. internal validity
4. precision

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.43) Where would you find the instructions for running quality controls for a specific assay?

1. Laboratory quality manual
2. Safety data sheet
3. Safety manual
4. Standard operating procedure

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.44) Which federal agency provides calibration services for thermometers?

1. American Association for Clinical Chemistry (AACC)
2. American Clinical Laboratory Association (ACLA)
3. Department of Energy (DOE)
4. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.45) Which of these best meets the definition of proficiency testing?

1. Inspections to prevent work-related accidents
2. Testing for illegal drugs in a biological sample
3. Tests to ensure workers have the skills and knowledge to perform their jobs
4. The testing of unknown samples sent to the laboratory

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.46) The monitoring of laboratory processes to ensure the accuracy of test results is an aspect of:

1. corporate compliance
2. critical thinking
3. quality assurance
4. risk management

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.47) Which of these four pictures demonstrates high precision but low accuracy?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.48) How often should reagent strips be tested with controls?

1. Daily
2. Weekly
3. Monthly
4. Every three months

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.49) Which of the following is NOT required on a chain of custody form?

1. The name of the patient's doctor
2. The name of the person who collected the specimen
3. The time the specimen was collected
4. The type of specimen collected

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.50) Which of these tests requires chain of custody documentation?

1. Complete blood count
2. Fetal fibronectin
3. Free light chains test
4. Legal paternity test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.51) A courier delivers a chain-of-custody sample to a technician at a laboratory. Who needs to sign and date the chain-of-custody form?

1. Only the courier
2. Only the laboratory technician
3. The courier and the laboratory technician
4. The laboratory manager and the laboratory technician

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.52) In OSHA, a(n) __________ person is defined as "one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has the authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them."

1. authorized
2. capable
3. competent
4. qualified

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.53) Which GHS pictogram is not mandatory?

1. Environment
2. Exclamation mark
3. Flame over circle
4. Gas cylinder

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.54) OSHA requires employers to offer what vaccine to workers who have occupational exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials?

1. HAV
2. HBV
3. HIV
4. MMR

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.55) OSHA action levels are set for what type of hazard?

1. Ergonomic hazards
2. Hazardous substances
3. Psychosocial hazards
4. Slips, trips, and falls

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.56) In OSHA's hierarchy of controls, what is the least effective type of hazard control?

1. Administrative controls
2. Engineering controls
3. Personal protective equipment
4. Substitution

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.57) Which federal law, passed in 1972, amended Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 to address employment discrimination against African Americans and other minorities?

1. Employment Non-Discrimination Act (ENDA)
2. Equal Employment Opportunity Act (EEOA)
3. Equal Pay Act
4. Rehabilitation Act

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.58) Title I, Employment, is part of which civil rights law prohibiting discrimination?

1. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
2. Civil Rights Act
3. Equal Employment Opportunity Act (EEOA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.59) Which federal agency is responsible for ensuring that clinical laboratories uphold and enforce CLIA standards?

1. Center for Global Health (CGH)
2. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
3. Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA)
4. Office of Public Health Science (OPHS)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.60) Who enforces HIPAA?

1. The Attorney General
2. The Department of Health and Human Services
3. The Surgeon General
4. The US Senate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.61) Which federal agency enforces workplace safety laws?

1. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
2. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
4. Office of Public Health Science (OPHS)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.62) What federal agency approves disinfectants for use in laboratories?

1. American Medical Association (AMA)
2. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
3. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.63) Which federal agency monitors the proficiency testing performance of clinical laboratories?

1. American Medical Association (AMA)
2. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
3. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Service (CMS)
4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.64) What federal agency regulates the manufacturing of prescription medications?

1. American Dental Association (ADA)
2. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.65) What federal agency categorizes clinical laboratory tests by their complexity?

1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
2. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.66) Which federal agency regulates in vitro diagnostic (IVD) tests?

1. Federal Laboratory Consortium (FLC)67j 24
2. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
3. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.67) Which federal agency enforces federal employment discrimination laws, such as the Civil Rights Act and the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?

1. Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA)
2. Employment and Training Administration (ETA)
3. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.68) Which federal agency investigates complaints of job discrimination?

1. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOS)
2. Fair Labor Association (FLA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.69) Which federal agency approves the use of new clinical laboratory tests?

1. American Clinical Laboratory Association (ACLA)
2. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.70) What act states that workers have the right to know about hazardous conditions in the workplace?

1. The Health Care Consent Act
2. The Human Tissue Act
3. The Occupational Safety and Health Act
4. The SAFETY Act

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.71) Which federal law requires health care providers to provide a sign language interpreter for deaf patients?

1. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
2. Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)
3. Health Care Right of Conscience Act (HCRCA)
4. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.72) Which federal law prohibits employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, gender, and national origin?

1. Americans with Disabilities Act
2. Civil Rights Act
3. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
4. National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.73) Which act outlines the lawful use and disclosure of protected health information?

1. Digital Accountability and Transparency Act (DATA)
2. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)
3. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
4. Privacy Act

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.74) Which act prevents employers from retaliating against workers for complaining about unsafe working conditions?

1. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
2. Federal Employees' Compensation Act (FCCA)
3. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
4. Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.75) Which law requires laboratories to document the competency of their personnel?

1. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
2. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
3. National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.76) The Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act revised which OSHA standard?

1. Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
2. Confined Space Entry Standard
3. Hazardous Communication Standard
4. Personal Protective Equipment Standard

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.77) Which law sets the federal minimum wage?

1. Civil Rights Act
2. Equal Pay Act
3. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
4. National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.78) CLIA requires laboratory competency assessment programs to assess how many areas of competency?

1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 9

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.79) When should laboratories use alternative proficiency assessment?

1. For highly complex tests
2. For tests that have critical values
3. When a traditional proficiency test is not available
4. When the laboratory is not yet CLIA-certified

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.80) The process of testing and adjusting an instrument or system to ensure its readings accurately reflect the actual amount of the substance being measured is known as:

1. calibration
2. proficiency testing
3. quality control
4. verification

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.81) How often does CLIA require routine inspections of non-waived laboratories?

1. Every three months
2. Every six months
3. Every year
4. Every two years

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.82) CLIA divides laboratory tests by complexity into how many categories?

1. 3
2. 5
3. 6
4. 8

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.83) According to CLIA, who is responsible for the day-to-day supervision of the laboratory operation and the testing personnel?

1. General supervisor
2. Laboratory director
3. Technical supervisor
4. Testing personnel

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.84) Which of these is a CLIA waived test?

1. Complete blood count
2. Fecal occult blood test
3. Immunoassay
4. Peripheral smear

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.85) According to CLIA, who is responsible for specimen processing, test performance, and reporting test results?

1. Laboratory director
2. Technical consultant
3. Technical supervisor
4. Testing personnel

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.86) Which CLIA certificate allows laboratories to conduct moderate or high complexity tests before the laboratory is inspected and a final certificate is issued?

1. Accreditation
2. Compliance
3. Registration
4. Waiver

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.87) According to CLIA regulations, calibration verification of test systems must be performed at least every:

1. three months
2. six months
3. year
4. two years

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.88) According to CLIA, who is responsible for the overall operation and administration of the laboratory?

1. Clinical consultant
2. Laboratory director
3. Technical consultant
4. Technical supervisor

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.89) How often does CLIA require laboratories to perform proficiency testing?

1. Every month
2. Every two years
3. Once a year
4. Twice a year

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.90) According to CLIA, who is responsible for ensuring the adequacy of the procedure used for verifying performance specifications in a laboratory?

1. Laboratory technician
2. Medical equipment repairer
3. Technical consultant
4. Test system manufacturer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.91) What is a Certificate of Waiver?

1. A document that allows a facility to perform simple tests
2. A document that allows a laboratory to perform tests without a patient's permission
3. A document that excuses laboratories from following particular FDS guidelines
4. A document that exempts an item of equipment from the RoHS Directive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.92) Most tests performed in clinical laboratories are:

1. waived
2. moderately complex
3. highly complex
4. microbiology culture tests

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.93) Laboratories are exempt from proficiency testing if they:

1. are CLIA certified
2. have a Certificate of Compliance
3. have fewer than six employees
4. only perform waived tests

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.94) CLIA considers which of these a high-complexity test?

1. Complete blood count
2. Electrolyte profile
3. Microscopic analysis of urine
4. Peripheral smear

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.95) A patient has a total cholesterol level of 250 mg/dL and an HDL level of 50 mg/dL. Calculate the patient's total cholesterol to HDL ratio.

1. 0.2
2. 5
3. 200
4. 300

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.96) A patient's serum protein results are as follows:

Test	Result
Total protein	6.6.g/dL
Albumin	3.3 g/dL
Alpha₁	0.2 g/dL
Alpha₂	0.7 g/dL
Beta	1.1 g/dL
Gamma	1.3 g/dL

Calculate the patient's A/G ratio.

1. 0.9
2. 1.0
3. 1.1
4. 1.2

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.97) Which of these chemistry results would fail the CLIA quality requirements for proficiency testing?

1. Blood gas pH: 0.2 above the target value
2. Sodium: 2 mmol/L below the target value
3. Total calcium: 0.5 mg/dL below the target value
4. Total cholesterol: 4% above the target value

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.98) What is the solubility equilibrium formula?

1. Kₛₚ = [A⁺]ᵃ × [B⁻]ᵇ
2. Kₛₚ = [A⁺]ᵇ × [B⁻]ᵃ
3. Kₛₚ = [A⁻]ᵃ × [B⁺]ᵇ
4. Kₛₚ = [A⁻]ᵇ × [B⁺]ᵃ

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.99) A buffer is made by mixing a weak acid or weak base with:

1. a salt solution
2. a strong acid or strong base
3. acetic acid
4. its conjugate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.100) What term describes a substance that minimizes changes in pH?

1. Anhydride
2. Buffer
3. Compound
4. Solvent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Chemistry

2.1) Angiotensin II stimulates the release of which hormone?

1. Adrenaline
2. Aldosterone
3. Cortisol
4. T4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) In which genetic disorder does an inborn error of copper metabolism lead to copper deficiency?

1. Friedreich's ataxia
2. Menkes disease
3. Thalassemia
4. Wilson disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) The genetic disease alkaptonuria is caused by the body's inability to fully break down which two amino acids?

1. Histidine and methionine
2. Threonine and tryptophan
3. Tyrosine and phenylalanine
4. Valine and isoleucine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) Beriberi is a deficiency of which vitamin?

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B1
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin D1

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) Which of these is an inherited metabolic disorder detected through newborn screening?

1. Vitamin D deficiency
2. Congenital hypothyroidism
3. Phenylketonuria
4. Sickle cell disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) Gilbert's syndrome is caused by the liver's inability to process which pigment?

1. Anthocyanin
2. Beta-carotene
3. Bilirubin
4. Rhodopsin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) Most iron in the body is bound to which protein?

1. Ferritin
2. Fibrin
3. Hemoglobin
4. Myoglobin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) Which of these globular proteins is water-soluble?

1. Albumin
2. Alpha-1 globulin
3. Alpha-2 globulin
4. Beta globulin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) Bilirubin is a product of the breakdown of which compound?

1. Albumin
2. Heme
3. Urobilin
4. Urobilinogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) What is the main purpose of glycoproteins in the blood?

1. Food digestion
2. Immune response
3. Muscle contraction
4. Oxygen transport

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) What type of cell is a glitter cell?

1. Basophil
2. Eosinophil
3. Mast cell
4. Neutrophil

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) What is the most common type of white blood cell seen in urine sediment?

1. B cell
2. Monocyte
3. Neutrophil
4. T cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) Which of these hormones is produced by the adrenal cortex?

1. Cortisol
2. Epinephrine
3. Insulin
4. Norepinephrine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) Which hormone lowers blood glucose levels?

1. FSH
2. Glucagon
3. Insulin
4. Progesterone

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) stimulates the re-absorption of:

1. hydrogen ions
2. oxygen
3. potassium
4. water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) Cortisol levels are generally highest at what time of day?

1. 8 am
2. 12 pm
3. 4 pm
4. 8 pm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) Which hormone causes the 'fight or flight' response?

1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
2. Dopamine
3. Epinephrine
4. Parathyroid hormone

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) Which gland produces thyroid-stimulating hormone?

1. Parathyroids
2. Pituitary
3. Testes
4. Thyroid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) Which gland produces growth hormone?

1. Adrenal
2. Endocrine
3. Parathyroid
4. Pituitary

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) The pineal gland produces which hormone?

1. Adrenaline
2. Aldosterone
3. Cortisol
4. Melatonin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) Which hormone controls sodium reabsorption?

1. Aldosterone
2. Angiotensin II
3. Anti-diuretic hormone
4. Renin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) Which hormone increases calcium levels?

1. Calcitonin
2. Corticotropin
3. Epinephrine
4. Parathyroid hormone

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) Which hormone stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth?

1. Follicle-stimulating hormone
2. Human placental lactogen
3. Oxytocin
4. Progesterone

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) Which hormone is made only during pregnancy?

1. Human chorionic gonadotropin
2. Oxytocin
3. Progesterone
4. Prolactin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) Which form of thyroid hormone is the most biologically active?

1. T0
2. T1
3. T2
4. T3

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) Which hormone is responsible for regulating the body's sleep cycle?

1. Calcitonin
2. Melatonin
3. Oxytocin
4. Serotonin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) Which hormone is antagonistic to insulin?

1. Calcitonin
2. Glucagon
3. Thyroxine
4. Vasopressin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) Thyroid-stimulating hormone is also known as:

1. thyroglobulin
2. thyrotropin
3. thyroxine
4. triiodothyronine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) Where is most estrogen produced?

1. Fallopian tubes
2. Ovaries
3. Pineal gland
4. Uterus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) Where is luteinizing hormone produced?

1. Pancreas
2. Ovaries
3. Adrenal gland
4. Pituitary gland

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) The intestines convert bilirubin into which substance?

1. Albumin
2. Biliverdin
3. Hemoglobin
4. Urobilinogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) Which element is found in protein but not in carbohydrates and fats?

1. Carbon
2. Hydrogen
3. Nitrogen
4. Oxygen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) Which is the main type of estrogen during pregnancy?

1. Estrone
2. Estradiol
3. Estriol
4. Estetrol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) Which organ conjugates bilirubin?

1. Kidneys
2. Liver
3. Pancreas
4. Spleen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is secreted primarily by which organ?

1. Heart
2. Kidneys
3. Liver
4. Lungs

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) A patient has severe abdominal pain and fever. The following are results from a liver function test:

Test	Result	Normal range
Total serum bilirubin	12.8 mg/dL	0.1–1.2 mg/dL
ALP	452 IU/L	44–147 IU/L
ALT	37 IU/L	19–25 IU/L
AST	45 IU/L	8–33 U/L
GGT	140 IU/L	5–40 IU/L

What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Autoimmune hepatitis
2. Hepatitis A
3. Obstructive jaundice
4. Wilson's disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) What is the primary structure of proteins?

1. The configuration of alpha-helices
2. The presence of disulfide bridges
3. The sequence of amino acids
4. The spatial arrangement of protein subunits

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) People with maple syrup urine disease cannot break down which amino acids?

1. Alanine, tyrosine, and histidine
2. Glycine, glutamine, and serine
3. Leucine, isoleucine, and valine
4. Proline, threonine, and phenylalanine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) A patient has the following test results:

Test	Result
Total protein level	8.3 g/dL
Albumin level	3.4 g/dL

What is the patient's calculated globulin?

1. 0.4 g/dL
2. 2.4 g/dL
3. 4.9 g/dL
4. 11.7 g/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) Which of these biomarkers can urine refractometers measure?

1. The presence of nitrates in urine
2. Urine hemoglobin concentration
3. Urine osmolality
4. Urine specific gravity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) Which stain is used to stain lipids?

1. Gram's stain
2. H&E
3. Periodic Acid-Schiff
4. Sudan IV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.42) Which element does Perls Prussian blue detect?

1. Iron
2. Lead
3. Mercury
4. Potassium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.43) Which of these counts is reported as number per LPF?

1. Casts
2. Crystals
3. Red blood cells
4. White blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.44) The Coulter principle is based on the detection of:

1. changes in cell electrical currents
2. color absorption changes
3. diffusion
4. high-frequency sound waves

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.45) Refer to the serum protein electrophoresis patterns below. Which disease does the abnormal pattern indicate?

1. Hepatic cirrhosis
2. Hypogammaglobulinemia
3. Monoclonal gammopathy
4. Nephrotic syndrome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.46) Refer to the serum protein electrophoresis patterns below. Which disease does the abnormal pattern indicate?

1. Hepatic cirrhosis
2. Hypogammaglobulinemia
3. Monoclonal gammopathy
4. Nephrotic syndrome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.47) The alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test requires which type of sample?

1. Blood
2. Cerebrospinal fluid
3. Feces
4. Urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.48) Which of these urine constituents increases in a urine specimen left at room temperature?

1. Bilirubin
2. Leukocytes
3. Nitrites
4. Urobilinogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.49) Which of these biochemistry tests should be kept away from the light?

1. Bilirubin
2. Calcium
3. Glucose
4. Urea

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.50) The urine specific gravity test compares the density of urine to the density of:

1. air
2. blood
3. lymph fluid
4. water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.51) A patient's urine sample is positive for ketones. The patient probably has:

1. advanced liver disease
2. heart disease
3. pernicious anemia
4. uncontrolled diabetes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.52) A patient with fatigue and nausea has the following urinalysis results:

Test	Result
pH	5.5
Glucose	0 mg/dL
GFR	31
UACR	61 mg/g

No blood or abnormal cells can be seen in the urine. Based on these results, which disease does the patient most likely have?

1. Bladder cancer
2. Diabetes
3. Kidney disease
4. Prostate cancer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.53) Which of these diseases causes bilirubin in urine?

1. Bronchitis
2. Coronary heart disease
3. Liver disease
4. Pneumonia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.54) In which kidney disease are large numbers of neutrophils seen in the kidney tubules, interstitium, and collecting ducts?

1. Acute pyelonephritis
2. Chronic glomerulonephritis
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Renal agenesis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.55) Clue cells in urine are a sign of:

1. bacterial vaginosis
2. enlarged prostate
3. interstitial cystitis
4. pyelonephritis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.56) The presence of Bence Jones protein in urine is most commonly associated with which disease?

1. Fanconi syndrome
2. Multiple myeloma
3. Renal osteodystrophy
4. Uremic syndrome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.57) Which epithelial cells in urine sediment are the largest?

1. Columnar
2. Cuboidal
3. Squamous
4. Urothelial

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.58) What are hyaline casts made of?

1. Albumin
2. Globulin
3. Immunoglobulins G and M
4. Uromodulin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.59) The following results were obtained from the urine of a 31-year-old woman:

Parameter	Result
Color	Pale yellow
Appearance	Cloudy
Specific gravity	1.015
pH	6.0
Glucose	Negative
Protein	1+
Bacteria	Many
WBC casts	Many
WBC/HPF	30

Which disease are these results most compatible with?

1. Glomerulonephritis
2. Pyelonephritis
3. Renal calculus
4. Vaginitis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.60) The presence of red blood cell casts in urine is most indicative of which disease?

1. Glomerulonephritis
2. Lower urinary tract obstruction
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Pyelonephritis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.61) A urine specimen that is positive for white blood cells and white blood cell casts but negative for bacteria most likely indicates:

1. diabetes mellitus
2. interstitial nephritis
3. nephrotic syndrome
4. pyelonephritis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.62) Which protein in urine is most relevant to kidney disease?

1. Albumin
2. Bence Jones protein
3. Hemoglobin
4. Myoglobin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.63) If a patient has been fasting for a few days, which of the following would be found in their urine?

1. Bacteria
2. Blood
3. Glucose
4. Ketones

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.64) Which type of urinary cast is a sign of chronic renal failure?

1. Fatty
2. Renal tubular epithelial cell
3. Waxy
4. White blood cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.65) A urine sample tested positive for urine protein by a dipstick test but negative by the sulfosalicylic acid method. What is the probable cause of these conflicting results?

1. The urine contained crystals
2. The urine contained ketones
3. The urine was very alkaline
4. The urine was very turbid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.66) Which urinary cast is associated with strenuous exercise?

1. Granular
2. Hyaline
3. Red blood cell
4. Waxy

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.67) The presence of epithelial cell casts in urine indicates:

1. liver disease
2. nephrotic syndrome
3. pyelonephritis
4. renal tubular damage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.68) A urine's specific gravity is directly proportional to its:

1. dissolved solids
2. salt content
3. sugar content
4. turbidity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.69) The following results were obtained from the urine of a 45-year-old male:

Parameter	Result
Color	Pale yellow
Appearance	Foamy
Specific gravity	1.030
pH	6.5
Glucose	Negative
Protein	2+
Bacteria	Negative
WBC	Negative
Fatty casts	Many
Oval fat bodies	Many

What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Acute pyelonephritis
2. Cystitis
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Polycystic kidney disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.70) What color is a positive result on the fecal occult blood test?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Red
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.71) What is the normal range for blood sodium levels?

1. 76–85 mEq/L
2. 96–105 mEq/L
3. 116–125 mEq/L
4. 136–145 mEq/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.72) Which of these serum electrolyte results is abnormal?

1. Calcium: 9.1 mg/dL
2. Chloride: 110 mEq/L
3. Potassium: 6.5 mEq/L
4. Sodium: 140 mEq/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.73) The normal value for glomerular filtration rate is _____ or above.

1. 30
2. 90
3. 150
4. 210

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.74) What is the normal range for blood bicarbonate levels in adults?

1. 3–9 mEq/L
2. 13–19 mEq/L
3. 23–29 mEq/L
4. 33–39 mEq/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.75) What is the normal range for fasting glucose?

1. 0–50 mg/dL
2. 50–70 mg/dL
3. 70–100 mg/dL
4. 100–125 mg/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.76) What is the normal range for the pH of urine?

1. 0.6–4.0
2. 2.6–6.0
3. 4.6–8.0
4. 6.6–10.0

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.77) The following crystals were found in a patient's urine: What are these crystals?

1. Acyclovir
2. Cystine
3. Indinavir
4. Struvite

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.78) Identify these urine crystals:

1. Calcium phosphate
2. Cystine
3. Hippurate
4. Uric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.79) If a patient is admitted with ethylene glycol poisoning, what crystals would you expect to find in the patient's urine?

1. Ammonium biurate
2. Calcium oxalate
3. Hippuric acid
4. Uric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.80) The following crystal was found in a patient's urine: From this finding, which medication can you assume the patient is taking?

1. Fluticasone
2. Sulfadiazine
3. Testosterone
4. Tizanidine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.81) Microscopic examination of the urine of a patient with kidney stones reveals amber, barrel-shaped crystals. The pH of the urine is 5.5. What are the crystals?

1. Calcium carbonate
2. Calcium phosphate
3. Triple phosphate
4. Uric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.82) Tiny, colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals in a urine sample are most likely:

1. ammonium biurate
2. calcium oxalate
3. hippuric acid
4. uric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.83) Which of these medications lowers the level of LDL cholesterol in the blood?

1. Beta-blockers
2. Corticosteroid
3. Diuretics
4. Statins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.84) What blood gas results would be expected for a patient with kidney failure?

1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Metabolic alkalosis
3. Respiratory acidosis
4. Respiratory alkalosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.85) Benzoylecgonine is a metabolite of which drug?

1. Benzodiazepine
2. Cocaine
3. Marijuana
4. Methamphetamine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.86) At what pH are barbital buffers used in the serum protein electrophoresis test?

1. 5.0
2. 5.6
3. 6.5
4. 8.6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.87) The bile acid test assesses the functioning of which organ?

1. Bladder
2. Kidney
3. Liver
4. Stomach

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.88) Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the:

1. glomerular filtration rate
2. glomerular secretion of creatinine
3. renal glomerular and tubular mass
4. tubular secretion of creatinine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.89) The Biuret test detects the presence of which chemical bond?

1. Disulfide
2. Hydrogen
3. Ionic
4. Peptide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.90) Elevated serum acid phosphatase levels may indicate which of these diseases?

1. Gout
2. Kidney disease
3. Liver disease
4. Prostate cancer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.91) A patient has low cortisol. After an injection of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). the patient's cortisol levels are still low. The patient most likely has:

1. Addison's disease
2. Cretinism
3. Cushing‘s syndrome
4. Cushing’s disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.92) Blood ammonia levels are usually measured to evaluate the health of which organ?

1. Digestive tract
2. Heart
3. Liver
4. Lungs

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.93) A blood sample has an elevated result when tested with the Jaffe reaction. This indicates:

1. arrhythmia
2. kidney function impairment
3. pregnancy
4. prolonged hypothermia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.94) Which tests are elevated in acute pancreatitis?

1. ALP and GGT
2. AST and LDH
3. Amylase and lipase
4. Pepsin and enterokinase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.95) A patient's cholesterol test results are as follows:

Test	Result
Triglycerides	230 mg/dL
Cholesterol	280 mg/dL
HDL	55 mg/dL

Calculate the patient's LDL.

1. 119 mg/dL
2. 149 mg/dL
3. 159 mg/dL
4. 179 mg/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.96) Bromcresol purple is used in the colorimetric method to measure:

1. albumin
2. calcium
3. globulin
4. magnesium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.97) In the illustration below, which type of chemical bond is the arrow pointing to?

1. Disulfide bridge
2. Hydrogen bond
3. Ionic bond
4. Peptide bond

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.98) High amounts of which vitamin can cause false negatives in the fecal occult blood test?

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B6
3. Vitamin B12
4. Vitamin C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.99) Which protein transports vitamin B12 in blood?

1. Ceruloplasmin
2. Retinol-binding protein
3. Transcobalamin
4. Transferrin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.100) Wilson's disease causes too much of which mineral to accumulate in the body?

1. Copper
2. Iron
3. Magnesium
4. Zinc

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Microbiology

3.1) Which of these bacteria can cause cold agglutinin disease?

1. Campylobacter jejuni
2. Mycoplasma pnuemoniae
3. Staphylococcus epidermidis
4. Streptococcus agalactiae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) The Grocott-Gomori stain is used widely as a screen for:

1. HIV
2. fungi
3. influenza
4. salmonella

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) Which Plasmodium species has a distinctive band-like or sash-like structure in the trophozoite stage?

1. Falciparum
2. Malariae
3. Ovale
4. Vivax

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) The Widal test is used to diagnose which bacteria?

1. E. coli
2. Proteus
3. Salmonella
4. Shigela

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) The urease test determines whether an organism can:

1. digest urease
2. produce urea
3. split urea
4. transport urea into its cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) What color is a positive oxidase test?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Purple
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) The Elek test tests for toxigenicity of which strain of bacteria?

1. Bacillus anthracis
2. Clostridium botulinum
3. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
4. Yersinia enterocolitica

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) The oxidase test detects which enzyme?

1. Cytochrome oxidase
2. Heme oxygenase
3. NADPH oxidase
4. Tryptophan 2,3 dioxygenase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) Which of these tests is used to differentiate between staphylococci and streptococci?

1. Catalase test
2. Coagulase test
3. Oxidase test
4. Urase test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) Which of these quality control results is acceptable for the triple sugar iron test?

1. Escherichia coli: yellow slant, yellow butt, no H₂S produced
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa: yellow slant, yellow butt, H₂S produced
3. Salmonella enterica: yellow slant, red butt, H₂S produced
4. Shigella sonnei: yellow slant, red butt, no H₂S produced

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) What is the purpose of the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion test?

1. To assess the metabolic properties of bacteria for identification purposes
2. To detect microbial antigens in clinical samples
3. To detect random mutations in microbial DNA
4. To determine the sensitivity of bacteria to various antibiotics

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) An organism from a lung biopsy grows as a mold at room temperature and as yeast at 37°C. What is the most appropriate way to interpret these results?

1. Dimorphic fungus present
2. The specimen is contaminated, ask for a repeat collection
3. Two pathogens are present
4. Two pathogens are present but only the mold is significant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) A disk diffusion test is performed for Staphylococcus aureus. No zone of growth inhibition is observed around the ampicillin disk. What does this indicate?

1. Ampicillin is an effective inhibitor of Staphylococcus aureus
2. Staphylococcus aureus is resistant to ampicillin
3. The antibiotic disc has moved around the plate
4. The plate was poorly inoculated

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) Which test detects antibodies to the Epstein-Barr virus?

1. C-reactive protein test
2. Influenza test
3. Monospot test
4. Rapid Group A Streptococcus test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) Smears of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) are prepared with:

1. centrifuged CSF sediment
2. filtered CSF sediment
3. incubated CSF supernatant
4. uncentrifuged CSF supernatant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) A lab technician observes mucoid colonies growing on a blood agar plate. This finding tells you that the organism:

1. has a capsule
2. has a permeable plasma membrane
3. produces acetic acid
4. produces beta-galactosidase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) A minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) assay is performed on an organism. Given the results below, what is the minimum inhibitory concentration of the organism?

Antibiotic concentration (μg/mL)	64	32	16	8	4	2	0
Result	clear	clear	clear	turbid	turbid	turbid	turbid

1. 2 μg/mL
2. 4 μg/mL
3. 8 μg/mL
4. 16 μg/mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) A negative result on the nitrate reduction test is demonstrated when the broth ________________ when nitrate I and nitrate II are added and ________________ when zinc is added.

1. remains colorless, remains colorless
2. remains colorless, turns blue
3. remains colorless, turns red
4. turns red, turns blue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) What color is a positive mannitol salt agar test?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Red
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) A bacteria that can metabolize peptones both aerobically and anaerobically but cannot ferment glucose, sucrose, or lactose would give what result on the Triple Sugar Iron test?

1. A/K
2. K/A
3. K/K
4. K/NC

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) The presence of a black precipitate on the Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) test indicates the bacteria produced:

1. carbon dioxide
2. glucose
3. hydrogen sulfide
4. lactose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) If a bacteria ferments glucose, lactose, and sucrose on a triple sugar iron test, what color would be the slant and butt?

1. Black slant and red butt
2. Red butt and black slant
3. Red slant and red butt
4. Yellow slant and yellow butt

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Which group of viruses is the most frequent cause of viral meningitis in the United States?

1. Adenoviruses
2. Enteroviruses
3. Rhabdoviruses
4. Rhinoviruses

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) What is the function of reverse transcriptase in viruses?

1. To activate 2'-5' oligoadenylate synthetase
2. To cleave polyprotein
3. To cleave sialic acid residue from glycoprotein
4. To transcribe RNA into DNA

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) The influenza virus uses hemagglutinins in which phase of replication?

1. Adsorption
2. Release by budding
3. Uncoating
4. Virion assembly

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) Which organism causes syphilis?

1. Borrelia burgdorferi
2. Epstein-Barr virus
3. Plasmodium falciparum
4. Treponema pallidum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) Which of these bacteria lacks a cell wall?

1. Archaebacteria
2. Eubacteria
3. Mycobacteria
4. Mycoplasma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) Corynebacterium diphtheria is a:

1. gram-negative cocci
2. gram-negative rod
3. gram-positive cocci
4. gram-positive rod

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) Which species of bacteria causes tuberculosis?

1. Corynebacterium
2. Lactobacillus
3. Mycobacterium
4. Streptococcus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) Which virus causes chickenpox?

1. Adenovirus A
2. Human herpesvirus 6
3. Human papilomavirus
4. Varicella-zoster virus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) Polioviruses, echoviruses, and coxsackieviruses are all:

1. DNA viruses
2. double-stranded RNA viruses
3. enteroviruses
4. enveloped viruses

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) Which parasite is passed in the feces as a noninfective rhabditiform larva?

1. Dipylidium caninum
2. Hymenolepis nana
3. Schistosoma mansoni
4. Strongyloides stercoralis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) Which of the following incubation conditions is used to grow Streptococcus pneumoniae?

1. At 35–37°C, over 3 days in chocolate agar or MacConkey agar, with 20% H₂
2. At 35–37°C, overnight in media containing blood and sugar, with 5−10% CO₂
3. At 42°C, over 2 days in media containing electrolytes and peptone water, and under microaerophilic conditions
4. At 42°C, over 3 days in Luria Bertani agar, and under anaerobic conditions

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) What term describes bacteria that grow best at cold temperatures?

1. Basophilic
2. Cytophilic
3. Keratinophilic
4. Psychrophilic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) Which of these bacteria is motile?

1. Coliform
2. Klebsiella pneumoniae
3. Listeria
4. Streptococci

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) Staphylococcus aureus grows best in which type of environment?

1. Aerobic
2. Anaerobic
3. Highly alkaline
4. Microaerobic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) Which parasite causes amoebic dysentery?

1. Ascaris lumbricoides
2. Entamoeba histolytica
3. Giardia lamblia
4. Shigella

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) The Epstein-Barr virus causes which disease?

1. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
2. Mononucleosis
3. Roseola
4. Smallpox

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.39) Streptococci are arranged in which shape?

1. Boxes
2. Chains
3. Clusters
4. Tetrads

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.40) African Trypanosomiasis, also known as African sleeping sickness, is caused by a:

1. bacteria
2. fungi
3. protozoan
4. virus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.41) A gram-negative rod is found in a midstream urine sample. The organism swarms over a blood agar plate and covers the entire surface of the agar. Further tests show the organism is oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, and H₂S-positive. What is the organism?

1. Edwardsiella hoshinae
2. Morganella morganii
3. Proteus mirabilis
4. Yersinia enterocolitica

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.42) Which stage of the bacterial growth cycle is the first phase?

1. Death
2. Exponential
3. Lag
4. Stationary

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.43) What type of mycosis is histoplasmosis?

1. Cutaneous
2. Subcutaneous
3. Superficial
4. Systemic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.44) Which organism causes Hansen's disease?

1. Acinetobacter baumannii
2. Bordetella pertussis
3. Clostridium paraputrificum
4. Mycobacterium leprae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.45) Enterobius vermicularis is more commonly known as:

1. pinworm
2. roundworm
3. threadworm
4. whipworm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.46) Which bacteria causes genital chlamydia?

1. Chlamydia muridarum
2. Chlamydia pneumoniae
3. Chlamydia psittaci
4. Chlamydia trachomatis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.47) Which of these bacteria is gram-positive and forms spores?

1. Bacillus anthracis
2. Candida albicans
3. Corynebacterium diphtheria
4. Escherichia coli

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.48) Which term describes organisms that grow at moderate temperatures between 20°C and 45°C with an optimum growth temperature in the range of 30°C–39°C?

1. Basophilic
2. Hemophilic
3. Mesophilic
4. Thermophilic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.49) Which of these bacteria is a gram-negative, aerobic, oxidase-positive, motile rod?

1. E. coli
2. Proteus
3. Pseudomonas
4. Salmonella

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.50) Through which route is E. coli transmitted?

1. Airborne
2. Fomites
3. Ingestion
4. Vectorborne

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.51) Which of these bacteria is oxidase-positive?

1. Acinetobacter
2. Klebsiella
3. Neisseria
4. Proteus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.52) What type of agar is Thayer-Martin media?

1. Blood
2. Chocolate
3. MacConkey
4. Neomycin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.53) Bile esculin agar is used mainly to differentiate which two organisms?

1. Campylobacter and Helicobacter
2. Enterococcus and Streptococcus
3. Legionella and Bordetella
4. Shigella and Klebsiella

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.54) Which of these types of agar is used to isolate and differentiate species of Salmonella and Shigella?

1. Hektoen enteric
2. Chocolate
3. CLED
4. Thayer Martin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.55) A representative sample of uninoculated culture media is incubated for 2-5 days at 35-37°C as part of sterility testing. What is the expected result?

1. A change in the media's color
2. Growth across the entire agar plate
3. Individual colonies
4. No microbial growth

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.56) Bacteria are grown on a blood agar plate. The lab technician observes greenish-gray discoloration around each bacterial colony. Which type of hemolysis is this?

1. Alpha
2. Alpha-prime
3. Beta
4. Gamma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.57) What does modified Thayer-Martin agar contain that Thayer-Martin agar does not?

1. Peptone water
2. Potassium dihydrogen phosphate
3. Trimethoprim lactate
4. Vancomycin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.58) Cetrimide agar is a medium used to isolate which bacteria?

1. Escherichia coli
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3. Staphylococcus aureus
4. Streptococcus pyogenes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.59) Bacteria are grown on a blood agar plate. The lab technician observes a clear zone of hemolysis under and around the bacterial colonies. What type of hemolysis is this?

1. Alpha
2. Alpha-prime
3. Beta
4. Gamma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.60) What is the differential ingredient in bile esculin agar?

1. Bile
2. Esculin
3. Glucose
4. Sodium azide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.61) Which agar is used to isolate gram-positive bacteria, especially Staphylococcus species and Streptococcus species?

1. Chocolate
2. MacConkey
3. Phenylethyl alcohol
4. Thayer Martin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.62) Which ingredient in Thayer-Martin agar suppresses the growth of fungi?

1. Nystatin
2. Polymyxin
3. Colistin
4. Vancomycin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.63) Thayer-Martin agar is used to culture and isolate which bacteria?

1. E. coli
2. Neisseria
3. Staphylococcus
4. Streptococcus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.64) Haemophilus influenzae and Neisseria meningitidis both grow on chocolate agar but not on blood agar. This is due to the presence of which two key factors in chocolate agar?

1. Hemoglobin and colistin
2. Sucrose and egg yolk
3. Hemin and NAD
4. Glucose and casein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.65) Mueller-Hinton agar isolates which type of bacteria?

1. Mycobacterium
2. Neisseria
3. Salmonella
4. Staphylococcus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.66) Which agar contains lactose and cystine but has a low level of electrolytes?

1. CLED
2. Hektoen enteric
3. Phenylethyl Alcohol
4. Salmonella-Shigella

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.67) Which agar plate can determine hemolysis?

1. Blood
2. Chocolate
3. MacConkey
4. Sabouraud

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.68) What is the purpose of bile salts in agar?

1. As a general-purpose nutrient
2. To differentiate pathogenic enteric bacilli
3. To enable bacteria to produce hydrogen sulfide
4. To inhibit the growth of gram-positive bacteria

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.69) What is the indicator dye in triple sugar iron agar?

1. Acid orange
2. Bromophenol blue
3. Bromophenol purple
4. Phenol red

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.70) Which of the following bacteria can be grown on Colistin-nalidixic acid agar?

1. Haemophilus influenzae
2. Neisseria gonorrhea
3. Salmonella
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.71) Triple sugar iron agar contains which three sugars?

1. Glucose, fructose, and galactose
2. Glucose, fructose, and maltose
3. Glucose, sucrose, and galactose
4. Glucose, sucrose, and lactose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.72) What color are colonies of Neisseria meningitidis on blood agar plates?

1. Gray
2. Green
3. Purple
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.73) Which culture medium would be most appropriate to isolate Haemophilus influenza?

1. Blood
2. Chocolate
3. MacConkey
4. Nutrient

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.74) After Gram staining, what color are gram-negative organisms?

1. Dark blue
2. Light blue
3. Purple or brown
4. Red or pink

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.75) What is the Gram stain appearance of Clostridium perfringens?

1. Gram-negative coccus
2. Gram-negative rod
3. Gram-positive coccus
4. Gram-positive rod

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.76) What is the term for a rod-shaped microorganism that appears red after Gram staining?

1. Gram-negative bacillus
2. Gram-negative cocci
3. Gram-positive bacillus
4. Gram-positive cocci

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.77) In the nitrate reduction test, what color would you expect when reagents A and B are added to an uninoculated control tube?

1. Blue
2. Colorless
3. Red
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.78) A Neisseria species is isolated from a patient sample. A carbohydrate utilization test is performed. The results are as follows:

Test	Result
Glucose	+
Maltose	−
Fructose	−
Sucrose	−
Lactose	−

Based on these results, which Neisseria species is in the sample?

1. N. gonorrhea
2. N. lactamica
3. N. meningitidis
4. N. sicca

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.79) A 6-year-old child presents with nausea and diarrhea. The physician orders an O&P stool examination. The following organism is found in the child's stool: Which organism is in the image?

1. Cryptosporidium meleagridis
2. E. coli
3. Giardia duodenalis
4. Shigella dysenteriae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.80) A three-day-old neonate exhibits lethargy, fever, and vomiting. A lumbar puncture reveals bacterial meningitis. A Gram stain of the neonate's spinal fluid shows short gram-positive rods. This organism is most likely:

1. Group B Streptococcus
2. Listeria monocytogenes
3. Neisseria meningitidis
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.81) A 41-year-old woman who breeds pigeons as a hobby has a fever, a headache, a dry hacking cough, and muscle aches. A lung exam reveals bilateral crackles. A physical exam reveals hepatomegaly. Which pathogen is the most likely cause?

1. Chlamydia pneumoniae
2. Chlamydia psittaci
3. Franciscella tularensis
4. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.82) A patient passes a worm in her stool. The worm is large, white, and round. It is about 20 cm long and has three “lips” at the anterior end of its body. Which parasite matches this description?

1. Ascaris lumbricoides
2. Necator americanus
3. Toxocara canis
4. Wuchereria bancrofti

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.83) A man cuts his hand while doing yard work. The wound becomes infected. A Gram stain reveals the wound contains gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli. Which media can be used to selectively isolate each organism?

1. Columbia-CNA and Chocolate
2. KV-laked agar and Thayer-Martin
3. PEA and MacConkey
4. Sheep blood and Chocolate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.84) Which parasite is a small white worm with a pointed tail that resembles a pin?

1. Ascaris lumbricoides
2. Enterobius vermicularis
3. Giardia lamblia
4. Strongyloides stercoralis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.85) Which bacteria correlates with the results below?

Agar	Result
Blood agar	Beta-hemolytic colonies
MacConkey agar	Pink colonies
Eosin methylene blue agar	Metallic green colonies

1. Escherichia coli
2. Salmonella enterica
3. Staphylococcus aureus
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.86) An HIV-positive patient has symptoms of meningitis. An encapsulated budding yeast is found in a sample of the patient's spinal fluid. Which organism is this most likely to be?

1. Candida albicans
2. Cryptococcus neoformans
3. Malassezia furfur
4. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.87) IMViC is a series of tests designed to differentiate members of which bacterial family?

1. Bacteroidaceae
2. Enterobacteriaceae
3. Porphyromonadaceae
4. Rikenellaceae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.88) Which bacteria correlates with the results below?

Agar	Result
Blood agar	Beta-hemolytic colonies
MacConkey agar	Colorless colonies
Cetrimide agar	Green colonies

1. Escherichia coli
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3. Staphylococcus aureus
4. Streptococcus pyogenes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.89) Based on the following test results, what is the most likely organism? Microscope: Cocci growing in clusters Gram stain: Gram-positive Catalase: Positive

1. Bacillus
2. Clostridia
3. Staphylococcus
4. Streptococcus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.90) Which bacteria can hydrolyze hippurate, is beta-hemolytic, is a major cause of neonatal meningitis and sepsis, and produces CAMP factor?

1. Enterococcus faecalis
2. Streptococcus agalactiae
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
4. Streptococcus pyogenes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.91) Which bacteria correlates with the results below?

Agar	Result
Blood agar	Beta-hemolytic colonies
MacConkey agar	No growth
Mannitol salt agar	Yellow colonies

1. Escherichia coli
2. Klebsiella pneumoniae
3. Staphylococcus aureus
4. Streptococcus pyogenes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.92) Which substance does the RPR assay detect?

1. Cardiolipin
2. Pyruvate
3. Reagin
4. Rifamycin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.93) Which parasite is pear-shaped, 10–20 micrometers long, and has one or two transverse, claw-shaped median bodies?

1. Ascaris lumbricoides
2. Enterobius vermicularis
3. Giardia lamblia
4. Strongyloides stercoralis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.94) Which parasite is pear-shaped, is 7–30 µm long, and has five flagella?

1. Dientamoeba fragilis
2. Enterobius vermicularis
3. Schistosoma hematobium
4. Trichomonas vaginalis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.95) A patient has a gangrenous leg wound. The wound is infected with an anaerobic, spore-forming, gram-positive bacillus. What organism is this likely to be?

1. Bacillus subtilis
2. Bacteroides fragilis
3. Clostridium perfringens
4. Francisella tularensis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.96) Which parasite is 2 mm long, slender, and cylindrical?

1. Ascaris lumbricoides
2. Enterobius vermicularis
3. Giardia lamblia
4. Strongyloides stercoralis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.97) A patient has a high fever and a headache and seems confused. From the blood, a small, gram-positive, catalase-positive rod-shaped organism is isolated. There is a narrow zone of beta hemolysis. What is the organism most likely to be?

1. Bordetella pertussis
2. Clostridium tetani
3. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
4. Listeria monocytogenes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.98) Which virus is the most common cause of congenital infections?

1. Cytomegalovirus
2. Measles
3. Rubella
4. Smallpox

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.99) The protective protein coat of a virus is known as the:

1. capsid
2. cell wall
3. envelope
4. sheath

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.100) Quality control for the novobiocin disk test uses which two organisms?

1. Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus fecium
2. Escherichia coli and Enterococcus faecalis
3. Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus saprophyticus
4. Streptococcus pyogenes and Streptococcus agalactiae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Hematology

4.1) What is the term for red blood cells that are different in size?

1. Anisocytosis
2. Erythrocytosis
3. Heterocytosis
4. Pinocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) The following lab results were obtained:

Test	Result
Bleeding time	Prolonged
Platelet adhesiveness	Abnormal
PT	Normal
APTT	Normal
CBC	Normal

These findings are most consistent with which inherited autosomal dominant trait?

1. Factor X deficiency
2. Factor XI deficiency
3. Hemophilia A
4. Von Willebrand disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) Which ion is essential for blood clotting?

1. Calcium
2. Iodine
3. Potassium
4. Sodium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) Which protein breaks down into D-dimer?

1. Factor X
2. Factor XIII
3. Fibrin
4. Thrombin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) A __________ clot is formed during the process of hemostasis.

1. fibrin
2. fibrinogen
3. prothrombin
4. thrombin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) In a platelet aggregation study, a patient's platelets aggregate normally in response to adenosine diphosphate, epinephrine, and collagen. However, the platelets do not aggregate in response to ristocetin, even after normal plasma is added. Which clotting disorder does the patient have?

1. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
2. Hereditary factor Xa deficiency
3. Parahemophilia
4. Von Willebrand disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) Which of the following initiates the coagulation cascade via the extrinsic pathway?

1. Factor XII
2. Prothrombinase
3. Thrombin
4. Tissue factor

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) How many oxygen molecules can bind to a hemoglobin molecule?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) Which plasma protein is the most abundant?

1. Albumin
2. Beta globulin
3. Fibrinogen
4. Gamma globulin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) Hemoglobin A consists of:

1. five alpha chains
2. one alpha chain, one beta chain, and one delta chain
3. three delta chains
4. two alpha chains and two beta chains

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) How many heme groups does a hemoglobin molecule have?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.12) How many iron atoms does a hemoglobin molecule have?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.13) Which molecule binds to hemoglobin with an affinity 240 times that of oxygen?

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Cholesterol
4. Water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.14) What is the major form of hemoglobin in adults?

1. Hemoglobin A
2. Hemoglobin F
3. Hemoglobin H
4. Hemoglobin S

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.15) Which protein binds to free hemoglobin?

1. Cryoglobulin
2. Erythropoietin
3. Haptoglobin
4. Methemoglobin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.16) How many globin groups does each hemoglobin molecule have?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.17) What is the main type of hemoglobin in fetuses and newborn babies?

1. Hemoglobin A
2. Hemoglobin A2
3. Hemoglobin F
4. Hemoglobin S

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.18) Target cells are also known as:

1. codocytes
2. dacrocytes
3. echinocytes
4. spherocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.19) Which type of acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by minimal maturation of myeloid cells?

1. FAB M1
2. FAB M2
3. FAB M3
4. FAB M4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.20) Auer rods are characteristically found in which leukemia?

1. Acute lymphocytic
2. Acute myeloid
3. Chronic lymphocytic
4. Chronic myeloid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.21) Which marker is used to help distinguish acute lymphocytic leukemia from malignant lymphoma?

1. Acid phosphatase
2. Human chorionic gonadotropin
3. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
4. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.22) A 23-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weakness, and heart palpitations. The results of a serum iron test are as follows:

Test	Result	Normal range
Serum iron concentration	28 mcg/dL	60–170 mcg/dL
Total iron-binding capacity	789 mcg/dL	240–450 mcg/dL

Based on these results, which type of anemia does the patient most likely have?

1. Hemolytic
2. Iron deficiency
3. Sickle cell
4. Vitamin deficiency

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.23) What abnormal form of hemoglobin causes sickle cell anemia?

1. HbA
2. HbA2
3. HbF
4. HbS

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.24) Which morphological classification best describes hemolytic anemia?

1. Macrocytic and hypochromic
2. Macrocytic and normochromic
3. Microcytic and hypochromic
4. Normocytic and normochromic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.25) What is the most common type of anemia?

1. Aplastic
2. Induced related
3. Iron deficiency
4. Sickle cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.26) Which anemia best fits these results?

Test	Result
Hemoglobin	7.9 g/dL
Neutrophil count	452/mm³
Platelet count	23,100/mm³

1. Aplastic anemia
2. Folic acid deficiency
3. Hemolytic anemia
4. Pernicious anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.27) Which of these anemias is hypochromic and microcytic?

1. Hemolytic
2. Megaloblastic
3. Sickle cell
4. Thalassemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.28) In which type of anemia are red blood cells smaller than normal and have decreased red color?

1. Macrocytic normochromic
2. Microcytic hypochromic
3. Normocytic hypochromic
4. Normocytic normochromic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.29) Which type of thalassemia is known as Cooley's anemia?

1. Alpha thalassemia majar
2. Alpha thalassemia minor
3. Beta thalassemia major
4. Beta thalassemia minor

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.30) Which of the following hematocrit values would be expected in a patient with untreated pernicious anemia?

1. 29%
2. 43%
3. 64%
4. 81%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.31) Pernicious anemia can be distinguished from folate deficiency by the:

1. bone marrow findings
2. mean cell volume
3. presence of autoantibodies to intrinsic factor
4. presence of hypersegmented neutrophils

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.32) Which of the following results best correlates with sickle cell anemia?

1. Hgb 10.0 g/dL, Hct 10%, WBC 8.0×10⁹/L
2. Hgb 11.0 g/dL, Hct 31%, WBC 11.0×10⁹/L
3. Hgb 5.0 g/dL, Hct 17%, WBC 13.0×10⁹/L
4. Hgb 8.0 g/dL, Hct 42%, WBC 10.0×10⁹/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.33) What is the most severe type of thalassemia?

1. Alpha thalassemia major
2. Alpha thalassemia minor
3. Beta thalassemia major
4. Beta thalassemia minor

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.34) A normal healthy individual has how many grams of hemoglobin per 100 mL of blood?

1. 6–12 g
2. 12–18 g
3. 15–20 g
4. 30–35 g

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.35) Which white blood cell is the most numerous on a normal blood slide?

1. Eosinophils
2. Lymphocytes
3. Monocytes
4. Neutrophils

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.36) What is the functional lifespan of a red blood cell?

1. 20-30 days
2. 50-75 days
3. 100-120 days
4. 220-240 days

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.37) Megakaryocytes produce and release:

1. agranulocytes
2. granulocytes
3. platelets
4. red blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.38) Which white blood cell is the largest?

1. Basophil
2. Lymphocyte
3. Monocyte
4. Neutrophil

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.39) Which is the least common white blood cell?

1. Basophil
2. Lymphocyte
3. Neutrophil
4. Thrombocyte

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.40) Which abnormal hemoglobin causes rigid red blood cells with short lifespans?

1. HgC
2. HgE
3. HgF
4. HgG

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.41) Which abnormal form of hemoglobin has iron in the Fe³⁺ state instead of the Fe²⁺ state?

1. Carboxyhemoglobin
2. Methemoglobin
3. Myohemoglobin
4. Oxyhemaglobin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.42) New methylene blue reagent is used to stain:

1. Heinz bodies
2. eosinophils
3. platelets
4. reticulocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.43) A histologist has stained a blood sample with Wright's stain but the basophils have poor definition. The histologist decides to repeat the stain. Which of these actions would improve the definition?

1. Decrease the concentration of the stain/buffer solution
2. Dilute the stain with methanol or water
3. Reduce the time between preparing the smear and fixation
4. Wash the slide before fixation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.44) Which anticoagulant is used for red blood cell counts?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Sodium citrate
4. Sodium oxalate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.45) What is the term for the percentage of red blood cells in a sample of whole blood?

1. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
2. Hematocrit
3. Hemoglobin
4. Red blood cell count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.46) What does the international normalized ratio (INR) measure?

1. How long blood takes to form a clot
2. How long erythrocytes take to separate from plasma
3. The average blood glucose level over the past 3 months
4. The ratio of oxygen to carbon dioxide in the blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.47) A lab technician dilutes a blood sample with tryptan blue by a ratio of 1:1. The technician then counts 100 cells in 5 of the large squares using a hemocytometer. What is the cell concentration?

1. 2×10⁴ cells/mL
2. 3×10⁴ cells/mL
3. 4×10⁵ cells/mL
4. 5×10⁵ cells/mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.48) What does the term "left shift" mean in hematology?

1. A decrease in the average size of red blood cells
2. A genetic disorder affecting the structure of hemoglobin
3. An increase in the number of immature neutrophils in the blood
4. The presence of glomerular-type red blood cells in the blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.49) Why is ammonium oxalate added to blood samples before platelet counts?

1. To force the blood to clot
2. To lyse the red blood cells
3. To prevent hemodilution
4. To stain the platelets blue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.50) The hemoglobin solubility test is a screening test for which disease?

1. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
2. Polycythemia vera
3. Secondary myelofibrosis
4. Sickle cell anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.51) Calculate the reticulocyte production index from the following information:

Hct	15%
Normal Hct	45%
Maturation correction	2.5
Reticulocyte percentage	9%

1. 1.2%
2. 1.5%
3. 1.8%
4. 2.1%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.52) Lipemia in a blood sample would falsely increase the spectroscopy absorbance reading of which of the following?

1. Hemoglobin
2. Platelet count
3. Red blood cell count
4. White blood cell count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.53) Calculate the corrected WBC count from the following results.

Test	Result
Uncorrected WBC count	30,000/uL
Nucleated RBC/100 WBC	100

1. 500/uL
2. 10,000/uL
3. 15,000/uL
4. 18,000/uL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.54) Calculate the corrected reticulocyte percentage from the following results.

Test	Result
RBC (cells/L)	4.7×10¹²
WBC (cells/L)	4.5×10⁹
PLT (cells/L)	310×10⁹
Hct	30% (normal Hct = 45%)
Reticulocyte count	1.5%

1. 0.5%
2. 1%
3. 1.5%
4. 2%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.55) Which cytochemical stain is used to diagnose hairy cell leukemia?

1. Chloroacetate esterase
2. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase
3. Myeloperoxidase
4. Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.56) Which of these statements is true?

1. Most laboratories use the Wintrobe method
2. The Westergren tube has a smaller diameter than the Wintrobe tube
3. The Westergren tube is longer than the Wintrobe tube
4. The Wintrobe method is more accurate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.57) Calculate the corrected reticulocyte count from the following information.

Hct	8%
Normal Hct	40%
Reticulocyte count	5%

1. 1%
2. 3%
3. 5%
4. 7%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.58) A 1/5 dilution is made for a manual white blood cell count. The technician counts 100 WBCs in ten squares of the hemocytometer. What is the white blood cell concentration?

1. 4×10⁵ cells/uL
2. 5×10⁵ cells/uL
3. 6×10⁵ cells/uL
4. 8×10⁵ cells/uL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.59) Which disorder correlates with these findings?

Test	Result
PLT	35 × 10⁹/L
HGB	72 g/L
INR	1.5
D-Dimer	22 mg/L

1. Acquired B
2. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
3. Folate deficiency anemia
4. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.60) What is a buffy coat made of?

1. Granulocytes and fibrin
2. Red blood cells and granulocytes
3. Reticulocytes and granulocytes
4. White blood cells and platelets

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.61) A woman has a leukocyte count of 3.6 × 10⁹/L. What is the term for this type of cell count?

1. Leukemia
2. Leukocytosis
3. Leukodystrophy
4. Leukopenia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.62) A woman has the following blood test results:

Test	Result
Red cell count	7.8 × 10¹²/L
White cell count	7.5 × 10⁹/L
Platelets	242 × 10⁹/L

What term applies to these results?

1. Hypererythrocytosis
2. Leukocytosis
3. Leukopenia
4. Polycythemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.63) Which white blood cell condition often indicates an allergy?

1. Eosinophilia
2. Leukemia
3. Lymphocytosis
4. Neutrophilia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.64) A patient has a high red blood cell count, a high hematocrit, a high hemoglobin level, and a low erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Which of the following terms best describes the patient's condition?

1. Anemia
2. Polycythemia
3. Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Tuberculosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.65) What test is used to diagnose hereditary spherocytosis?

1. Heat instability test
2. Kleihauer-Betke test
3. Osmotic fragility test
4. Sucrose hemolysis test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.66) Bone marrow cells that contain the Philadelphia chromosome are most often found in which type of leukemia?

1. Acute lymphocytic
2. Acute myelogenous
3. Chronic lymphocytic
4. Chronic myelogenous

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.67) A microscopic analysis of a patient's blood sample reveals neutrophils with six-lobed nuclei. Which illness does this indicate?

1. Acute myelogenous leukemia
2. Erythrocytosis
3. Hemochromatosis
4. Megaloblastic anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.68) Which of the following clinical signs is characteristic of Bernard-Soulier syndrome?

1. Abnormal aggregation with ADP
2. Increased platelet count
3. Large platelets
4. Shortened bleeding time

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.69) Patients with which of the following diseases would have a normal partial thromboplastin time (PTT)?

1. Factor V Leiden
2. Hemophilia A
3. Hemophilia B
4. Vitamin K deficiency

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.70) The APTT measures factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, II, V, and which other factor?

1. III
2. VII
3. VIIa
4. X

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.71) Which test evaluates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?

1. Closure time
2. Partial thromboplastin time
3. Prothrombin time
4. Thrombin time

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.72) Calculate the international normalised ratio (INR) from the following information.

Control PT	11.0 seconds
Patient's PT	16.5 seconds
International Sensitivity Index	1

1. 0.5
2. 1.5
3. 2.5
4. 3.5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.73) A patient has a prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds and an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 25 seconds. Which condition does this indicate?

1. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
2. Factor V Leiden
3. Liver disease
4. Normal health

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.74) Which factor deficiency correlates with the following results?

Test	Result
PT	22 seconds
APTT	79 seconds
Fibrinogen	0.5 g/L

1. Factor I
2. Factor IV
3. Factor III
4. Factor VI

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.75) Folate deficiency is associated with which of the following red blood cell morphologies?

1. Macrocytic normochromic
2. Microcytic hyperchromic
3. Normocytic hyperchromic
4. Normocytic hypochromic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.76) A patient's blood test results are as follows:

Test	Result
RBC	4x10⁶/µL
Hct	40%
Hgb	14 g/dL

What is the morphology of red blood cells?

1. Macrocytic hypochromic
2. Macrocytic normochromic
3. Microcytic hyperchromic
4. Microcytic hypochromic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.77) Given the following results, which red blood cell morphology does the patient have?

Test	Result
MCV	90 fL
MCHC	35.1 g/dL

1. Macrocytic normochromic
2. Microcytic hypochromic
3. Normocytic hypochromic
4. Normocytic normochromic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.78) Which red blood cell index is a measurement of the average amount of hemoglobin in red blood cells?

1. MCH
2. MCV
3. RBC
4. RDW

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.79) A patient has the following hematology results:

Test	Result
RBC	4.68×10¹²/L
Hemoglobin	133 g/L
Hematocrit	0.451

What is the patient's mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)?

1. 0.035 pg
2. 10.4 pg
3. 28.4 pg
4. 59.85 pg

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.80) What is the formula for calculating mean corpuscular volume (MCV)?

1. HGB / Hct
2. HGB / RBC
3. Hct / RBC
4. RBC × MCV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.81) A falsely high hematocrit would cause which red blood index to be falsely low?

1. RDW
2. MCHC
3. MCV
4. MCH

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.82) Calculate the mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of the following results.

Test	Result
RBC	5.0 × 10¹²/L
WBC	8.5 × 10⁹/L
PLT	320 × 10⁹/L
Hct	40%
Hgb	14.5 g/dL

1. 20 fL
2. 30 fL
3. 50 fL
4. 80 fL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.83) Which white blood cell has granules that stain orange?

1. Eosinophil
2. Mature neutrophil
3. Monocyte
4. Small lymphocyte

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.84) Which type of abnormal red blood cell is in the blood smear below?

1. Burr
2. Sickle
3. Spur
4. Target

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.85) A 42-year-old man with liver cirrhosis presents to the emergency ward with confusion and anemia. A peripheral blood smear is performed: Which type of abnormal red blood cells can be seen in the blood smear?

1. Burr
2. Sickle
3. Spur
4. Target

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.86) In the blood smear below, which type of red blood cell is the arrow pointing to?

1. Burr
2. Sickle
3. Spur
4. Target

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.87) Which type of abnormal red blood cells is in the blood smear below?

1. Acanthocytes
2. Dacrocytes
3. Echinocytes
4. Schistocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.88) A blood smear is performed for a neonate with low hemoglobin levels: Based on the blood smear, which disease does the neonate have?

1. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
2. Hemophilia A
3. Multiple myeloma
4. Sickle cell anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.89) Rouleaux formation on a blood smear means the blood cells:

1. are flatter than normal
2. form stacks, like stacks of coins
3. have pointy projections
4. stick together in three-dimensional clumps

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.90) Which condition best fits the following test results?

Test	Result
Iron	1,475 mcg/dL
Transferrin saturation	65%
Ferritin	875 ug/L

1. Anemia of chronic disease
2. Hemochromatosis
3. Iron deficiency anemia
4. Metabolic syndrome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.91) A patient has symptoms of fatigue, weakness, and difficulty breathing. Blood tests reveal high iron, high ferritin, and a normal total iron binding capacity (TIBC). A peripheral blood smear shows red blood cells that are microcytic and hypochromic and have basophilic stippling. Pappenheimer bodies are also observed inside the red blood cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Acute intermittent porphyria
2. Porphyria cutanea tarda
3. Sickle cell anemia
4. Sideroblastic anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.92) Which of these is a plasma derivative?

1. Albumin
2. Platelets
3. Red blood cells
4. White blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.93) The normal adult range for platelet count is ______________ per nanoliter of blood.

1. 150–450
2. 250–550
3. 350–650
4. 450–750

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.94) Which of these results indicates anemia in a male patient?

1. Hematocrit: 36%
2. MCH: 32 pg
3. MCV: 90 80 fL
4. RBC: 5.9 × 10¹²/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.95) What is the normal pH range for arterial blood?

1. 7.35–7.45
2. 8.35–8.45
3. 9.35–9.45
4. 10.35–10.45

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.96) The normal number of white blood cells in blood is between ____________ per microliter.

1. 120 and 180
2. 4,000 and 11,000
3. 13,000 and 19,000
4. 50,000 and 90,000

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.97) What is the normal hemoglobin range for women?

1. 12–16 g/dL
2. 14–18 g/dL
3. 16–20 g/dL
4. 18–22 g/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.98) Which medication is used as an ACE inhibitor for hypertension and heart failure?

1. Atorvastatin
2. Levothyroxine
3. Lisinopril
4. Metoprolol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.99) Hemoglobin A2 is elevated in which disease?

1. Alpha-thalassemia
2. Alport Syndrome
3. Beta-thalassemia
4. Hemolytic anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.100) Given the following data, calculate the absolute lymphocyte count.

Test	Result
% lymphocytes	30%
WBC	2.5 × 10⁹ cells/L

1. 0.75 cells/µL
2. 1.25 cells/µL
3. 750 cells/µL
4. 1,250 cells/µL

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Section 5: Immunology

5.1) Which component forms the recognition unit of the classical complement pathway?

1. C1q
2. C1r
3. C1s
4. C1t

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) Which X-linked recessive disease results in the absence of mature B cells?

1. Chronic granulomatous disease
2. Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome
3. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
4. X-linked lymphoproliferative disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) Chronic granulomatous disease affects which cell?

1. Basophils
2. Erythrocytes
3. Lymphocytes
4. Phagocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) Cold agglutinins are directed against which antigen?

1. I
2. M
3. i
4. m

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) Complement can be activated through three pathways: classical, lectin, and:

1. alternative
2. contemporary
3. modern
4. tertiary

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) Which type of hypersensitivity is also known as delayed-type and involves T-cells and/or macrophages releasing cytokines, leading to tissue damage?

1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) Cold agglutinins bind to which type of cell?

1. Lymphocytes
2. Myocytes
3. Red blood cells
4. Thyroid follicular cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) What type of T cells are CD4+ T cells?

1. Cytotoxic
2. Delayed type hypersensitivity
3. Helper
4. Regulatory

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.9) Which of these a primary lymphoid organ?

1. Bone marrow
2. Lymph nodes
3. Spleen
4. Tonsils

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.10) What is the name of the protein released by natural killer cells and cytotoxic T cells that forms pores in the membranes of pathogenic cells, thus lysing and killing them?

1. Cytokine
2. Granzyme
3. Inteferon
4. Perforin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.11) Consumption of raw shellfish can cause which type of hepatitis?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.12) The presence of autoantibodies to double-stranded DNA is suggestive of which autoimmune disease?

1. Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
2. Myasthenia gravis
3. Scleroderma
4. Systemic lupus erytematosus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.13) Dendritic cells, macrophages, and which other cells present antigens to T helper cells?

1. B cells
2. Basophils
3. Eosinophils
4. Mast cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.14) What is the term for an antigen capable of eliciting an immune response?

1. Adjuvent
2. Epitope
3. Hapten
4. Immunogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.15) Which process involves coating pathogens with antibodies to increase their susceptibility to phagocytosis?

1. Agglutination
2. Antioperisis
3. Chemotaxis
4. Opsonization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.16) Which autoimmune disease has anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies?

1. Goodpasture syndrome
2. Guillain-Baire syndrome
3. Kawasaki disease
4. Thyroid eye disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.17) LAK cells are made by incubating lymphocytes with which cytokine?

1. Interferon-gamma
2. Interleukin-10
3. Interleukin-2
4. Tumor necrosis factor

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.18) In which order are complement components activated in the classical complement pathway?

1. C1, C2, C3, C4
2. C3, C4, C1, C2
3. C4, C1, C3, C2
4. C4, C3, C1, C2

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.19) What type of substance makes pathogens more susceptible to phagocytosis?

1. Adjuvants
2. Haptens
3. Immunocomplexes
4. Opsonins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.20) What are LAK cells used for in clinical settings?

1. Cancer therapy
2. Destroying virus-infected cells
3. Treating autoimmune diseases
4. Vaccination enhancement

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.21) What is the term for a molecule that can only elicit an immune response when attached to a carrier?

1. Adjuvant
2. Epitope
3. Hapten
4. Immunogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.22) Antibodies to ribonucleoprotein are indicative of which disease?

1. Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis
2. Mixed connective tissue disease
3. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
4. Psoriatic arthritis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.23) Which cells produce histamine in a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?

1. Lymphocytes
2. Macrophages
3. Mast cells
4. Neutrophils

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.24) Negative selection and positive selection of T cells occur in which part of the body?

1. Bone marrow
2. Lymph node
3. Spleen
4. Thymus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.25) Which enzyme, found in bodily secretions such as tears, saliva, and milk, functions as an antimicrobial agent by cleaving the peptidoglycan component of bacterial cell walls?

1. Endopeptidase
2. Heparin
3. Lysozyme
4. Transferase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.26) Which type of immunity do B cells and antibodies mediate?

1. Cell-mediated
2. Humoral
3. Innate
4. Passive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.27) What are the three class I gene products?

1. HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C
2. IgA-DR, IgA-DP, and IgA-DQ
3. IgM-I, IgM-II, and IgM-III
4. MLS-1, MLS-2, and MLS-3

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.28) What is the main function of C3b?

1. Cytotoxicity
2. Immune adherence
3. Inflammation induction
4. Opsonization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.29) Which FAB group of acute lymphoblastic leukemias has basophilic cells with prominent cytoplasmic vacuoles?

1. L1
2. L2
3. L3
4. L4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.30) Which leukocytes are nongranular?

1. Basophils and mast cells
2. Lymphocytes and monocytes
3. Neutrophils and eosinophils
4. Neutrophils and mast cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.31) The three types of granulocyte are neutrophils, eosinophils, and:

1. basophils
2. erythrocytes
3. lymphocytes
4. monocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.32) How many heavy chains make the Fc region of the antibody molecule?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.33) Which type of bond joins light chains and heavy chains of antibodies together?

1. Allene
2. Disulfide
3. Hydrogen
4. Ionic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.34) The ability of an antibody to block binding sites on bacteria and viruses to prevent them from infecting healthy cells is called:

1. impedance
2. interception
3. invalidation
4. neutralization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.35) Antigen-presenting cells activate:

1. B cells
2. T cells
3. dendritic cells
4. macrophages

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.36) Antibody class is determined by the:

1. constant region of the heavy chain
2. constant region of the light chain
3. variable region of the heavy chain
4. variable region of the light chain

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.37) Bence Jones proteins are:

1. monoclonal free heavy chains
2. monoclonal free light chains
3. polyclonal free heavy chains
4. polyclonal free light chains

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.38) What type of immunity is facilitated by T helper cells and cytotoxic T cells?

1. Cell-mediated
2. Humoral
3. Innate
4. Passive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.39) Vaccination is what type of acquired immunity?

1. Artificial active
2. Artificial passive
3. Natural active
4. Natural passive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.40) If skin is cut with a piece of glass contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus, which component of the immune system responds first?

1. B cells
2. Neutrophils
3. Platelets
4. T cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.41) Which type of acquired immunity results when exposure to a live pathogen triggers the immune system to produce antibodies?

1. Artificial active
2. Artificial passive
3. Natural active
4. Natural passive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.42) Skin is which type of immunity?

1. Acquired
2. Active
3. Auto
4. Innate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.43) Which immune response is the body's first line of defense against invading pathogens?

1. Cell-mediated
2. Humoral
3. Innate
4. Passive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.44) The cough reflex is which type of immunity?

1. Acquired
2. Humoral
3. Innate
4. Specific

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.45) Lysozymes play an important role in which type of immunity?

1. Humoral
2. Innate
3. Passive
4. Specific

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.46) Which three antibodies can activate complement?

1. IgA, IgD, and IgE
2. IgA, IgG, and IgM
3. IgD, IgE, and IgG
4. IgD, IgE, and IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.47) Which class of antibody has γ chains?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.48) Which two antibodies have J chains?

1. IgA and IgM
2. IgD and IgG
3. IgE and IgG
4. IgG and IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.49) Which two antibodies initiate the classical complement pathway?

1. IgA and IgD
2. IgA and IgE
3. IgD and IgE
4. IgG and IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.50) What are the five classes of antibody in order from most common to least common?

1. IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE
2. IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE, IgD
3. IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, IgE
4. IgM, IgG, IgA, IgE, IgD

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.51) What is the main antibody of the secondary immune response?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.52) Which antibody protects against parasitic worms?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.53) Developing B cells always make which antibody first?

1. IgD
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.54) What is the main antibody of the primary immune response?

1. IgD
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.55) Which antibody is most effective at bacterial agglutination?

1. IgA
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.56) Which antibody is the most abundant in the body?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.57) Which antibody is abnormal in Waldenström macroglobulinemia?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.58) Which antibody is the largest?

1. IgD
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.59) Which antibody causes allergies?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.60) What is the main antibody in mucus?

1. lgA
2. lgD
3. lgE
4. lgG

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.61) Which antibody is primarily responsible for detecting foreign antigens in the respiratory tract?

1. IgA
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.62) Hepatitis A:

1. can be cured with antibiotics
2. has no vaccine to prevent it
3. is the most common type of hepatitis
4. primarily infects the liver

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.63) A peripheral pattern on the antinuclear antibody (ANA) test suggests which autoimmune disease?

1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Scleroderma
3. Sjögren syndrome
4. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.64) Which serum protein fraction is most likely to be decreased in nephritic syndrome?

1. Albumin
2. Alpha 2 globulin
3. Beta globulin
4. Gamma globulin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.65) A patient has hemophilia A and needs injections of factor VIII. However, the patient's body has developed inhibitors to human factor VIII. Which form of factor VIII could be given to this patient instead?

1. Activated
2. Canine
3. Porcine
4. Recombinant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.66) For kidney transplants, matching of which three HLA molecules is most important?

1. HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C
2. HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-DR
3. HLA-A, HLA-DP, and HLA-DQ
4. HLA-A, HLA-DP, and HLA-DR

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.67) An Rh-negative woman gives birth to her first child, an Rh-positive boy. Within how many hours after giving birth should the mother receive anti-D immunoglobulin?

1. 2
2. 8
3. 24
4. 72

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.68) Which of these anti-streptolysin O (ASO) test results is normal?

1. 126
2. 320
3. 540
4. 790

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.69) The HCV antibody test is used to screen patients for which disease?

1. HIV
2. Hepatitis C
3. Hypothyroidism
4. Shingles

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.70) uPA is a marker for which type of cancer?

1. Bladder
2. Breast
3. Colorectal
4. Ovarian

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.71) Which marker is commonly used to monitor the treatment of ovarian cancer?

1. CA-125
2. CA-15-3
3. CA-19-9
4. CEA

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.72) The cancer antigen 27-29 test is used to monitor which type of cancer?

1. Breast
2. Liver
3. Ovarian
4. Thyroid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.73) Syphilitic infection elicits which two types of antibody response?

1. Cytotoxic and noncytotoxic
2. Neoplastic and antineoplastic
3. PEGylated and non-PEGylated
4. Treponemal and nontreponemal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.74) A lab technician is running controls for a complement fixation test. The technician wants to check for the absence of anti-complementary activity of the antigen in the test. To do this, the technician should perform the test:

1. with a serum diluted to 2-5 of the usual concentration
2. with unsensitised red blood cells
3. without red blood cells
4. without the serum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.75) Which antigen does the RAST test measure?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.76) What indicates a positive result in a complement fixation test?

1. Hemolysis
2. Hemopoiesis
3. Hemostasis
4. No hemolysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.77) What kind of T cells have CD8+ co-receptors?

1. Cytotoxic
2. Delayed type hypersensitivity
3. Helper
4. Regulatory

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.78) On a precipitation curve, where does maximal precipitation occur?

1. The origin
2. The postzone
3. The prozone
4. The zone of equivalence

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.79) What indicates a negative result in a complement fixation test?

1. Hemagglutination
2. Hemolysis
3. Hemopoiesis
4. Hemostasis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.80) What is the first step to making monoclonal antibodies artificially from mice?

1. Clone the hybridoma cells
2. Combine B lymphocytes with tumor cells
3. Insert the antigen into the mouse
4. Take B lymphocytes from the mouse

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.81) A patient has clinical symptoms of Lyme disease. The doctor orders an ELISA test but the results of the test are inconclusive. The doctor orders a second ELISA test and the results are still inconclusive. Which test would the doctor order next?

1. C-reactive protein (CRP) test
2. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test
3. Rapid antigen test
4. Western blot

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.82) Which white blood cell carries out nonspecific killing of tumor cells?

1. B cells
2. Cytotoxic T cells
3. Helper T cells
4. Natural killer cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.83) In which test for syphilis is antigen mixed with serum on a plastic-coated card?

1. VDRL
2. Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)
3. Toluidine red unheated serum
4. FTA-ABS

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.84) The Cryptococcus antigen latex agglutination test detects which polysaccharide component in the capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans?

1. Glucuronoxylomannan
2. Hyaluronic acid
3. Mannoprotein
4. N-acetylgalactosamine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.85) What causes the prozone reaction in immunological tests?

1. Antibody excess
2. Antigen excess
3. Hemagglutination
4. Hemolysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.86) Why is serum heated at 56°C for 30 minutes in a water bath before VDRL testing?

1. To accelerate hemolysis
2. To kill pathogens
3. To remove non-specific inhibitors
4. To stop enzymatic activity from causing sample degradation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.87) Which of the following is a treponemal test for syphilis?

1. FTA-ABS test
2. Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test
3. Toluidine red unheated serum test
4. VDRL test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.88) A B cell deficiency would cause:

1. decreased complement levels
2. decreased phagocytosis
3. increased infections
4. zinc deficiency

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.89) From the results below, what is the antibody titer?

1:2	1:4	1:8	1:16	1:32	1:64	1:128
+	+	+	+	+	−	−

1. 1:2
2. 1:32
3. 1:64
4. 1:128

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.90) A lab technician performs a VDRL test. Under a microscope, the sample shows medium to large clumps. Which result should the lab technician report?

1. Nonreactive
2. Reactive
3. Test invalid
4. Weakly reactive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.91) Which test detects viral RNA?

1. Blood culture
2. ELISA
3. NAT
4. Western Blot

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.92) Which allergy test measures levels of antibodies after the blood serum is exposed to suspected allergens?

1. Lipoprotein panel
2. Papanicolaou test
3. Prothrombin time
4. RAST test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.93) The following test results are consistent with which health condition?

Test	Result
WBC	5,200 cells per µL
Lymphocytes	16%
CD4	7%

1. Addison disease
2. Grave's disease
3. HIV
4. Type 1 diabetes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.94) HIV self-tests are what type of test?

1. Antibody test
2. Antigen test
3. Antigen/antibody test
4. Nucleic acid test (NAT)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.95) CD56 is most associated with which leukocyte?

1. B cell
2. Natural killer cell
3. Neutrophil
4. T cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.96) CD2 is a cell adhesion molecule found mainly on the surface of T cells and which other type of cell?

1. B cells
2. Monocytes
3. Natural killer cells
4. Neutrophils

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.97) T cells exert their actions by secreting soluble proteins named:

1. antigens
2. complement factors
3. cytokines
4. interferons

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.98) Hybridoma cells are the fusion of which two cells?

1. B cells and myeloma cells
2. Dendritic cells and granulocytes
3. Natural killer cells and dendritic cells
4. T cells and Waldenström macroglobulinaemia cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.99) Hairy cell leukemia is caused by the abnormal growth of which type of cell?

1. B cell
2. Granulocyte
3. Mast cell
4. T cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.100) Which of these enzymes is a marker for acute lymphocytic leukemia?

1. Adenosine deaminase
2. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
3. Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
4. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

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Section 6: Immunohematology

6.1) Antibodies from which antigen system do NOT cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?

1. ABO
2. Duffy
3. Lewis
4. RhD

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) At what temperature is the incubation phase of the indirect antiglobulin test?

1. 22°C
2. 37°C
3. 56°C
4. 100°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) Lewis antibodies are almost always which class?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) Most antibodies produced against Rh antigens are of which class?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) Which of these antibodies is clinically insignificant?

1. Anti-Fya
2. Anti-Jka
3. Anti-P1
4. Anti-s

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) Which of these tests can detect heterophile antibodies?

1. ABO typing
2. Indirect antiglobulin test
3. Mononucleosis test
4. Rh and antibody screen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) The absence of which antigen makes red blood cells resistant to Plasmodium vivax malaria?

1. Duffy
2. Kidd
3. Lewis
4. Rhesus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.8) Why do patients with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia receive plasma exchange therapy?

1. To remove abnormal red blood cells
2. To remove blood clots
3. To remove excess IgA
4. To remove excess IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.9) Washed red blood cells are prepared by washing red cells with:

1. acetic acid
2. ethanol
3. normal saline
4. sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.10) Which concentrate carries the lowest risk of HIV and hepatitis?

1. Erythrocyte concentrate
2. Normal serum albumin
3. Platelets concentrate
4. Whole blood transfusion

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.11) Low ionic strength saline (LISS) is a potentiator that acts by reducing the _______ potential of red blood cells.

1. alpha
2. beta
3. gamma
4. zeta

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.12) Refer to the pedigree chart below: How many of the four children would be expected to have type AB blood?

1. 0
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.13) Which test detects weak-D antigens?

1. Dᵘ test
2. Kleihauer-Betke Test
3. Microplate test
4. Warm autoadsorption test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.14) How does anti-D immunoglobulin prevent Rhesus disease?

1. By binding and neutralizing anti-D
2. By destroying fetal red blood cells in the mother's bloodstream
3. By physically blocking H1 receptors, thereby stopping anti-D from reaching its target
4. By physically blocking the antigen binding site of IgD

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.15) Which of these people is eligible to donate whole blood?

1. A 19-year-old taking antibiotics for acne
2. A man who donated whole blood a month ago
3. A woman who donated whole blood two weeks ago
4. Someone who is HIV positive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.16) Men who want to donate blood need a hematocrit of at least:

1. 9%
2. 19%
3. 29%
4. 39%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.17) To donate blood, women need a hemoglobin level of at least:

1. 2.5 g/dL
2. 12.5 g/dL
3. 22.5g/dL
4. 32.5g/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.18) Blood donors should weigh at least:

1. 50 kg
2. 70 kg
3. 80 kg
4. 90 kg

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.19) When blood is transfused, what is the most important consideration?

1. Do the donor's red cells contain an antibody against the patient's red cells?
2. Do the patient's red cells contain an antibody against the donor's red cells?
3. Does the donor's serum contain an antibody against the patient's red cells?
4. Does the patient's serum contain an antibody against the donor's red cells?

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.20) Which blood type is most commonly used for intrauterine transfusions?

1. AB+
2. AB−
3. O+
4. O−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.21) The direct antiglobulin test will be positive in which of these conditions?

1. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
2. Iron deficiency anemia
3. Myeloma
4. Sickle cell anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.22) Irradiated blood components are used to prevent:

1. graft-vs-host disease
2. posttransfusion purpura
3. pulmonary edema
4. sickle cell anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.23) In blood transfusions, what kind of red cells are given to patients who have a severe allergy to standard red cells?

1. Frozen
2. Irradiated
3. Synthetic
4. Washed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.24) By what percentage does one unit of whole blood raise the hematocrit of a standard adult patient?

1. 3%
2. 6%
3. 9%
4. 12%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.25) Which of the following parasites causes transfusion-associated infections?

1. Ancylostoma duodenale
2. Giardia lamblia
3. Plasmodium malariae
4. Taenia saginata

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.26) If a patient with severe chronic anemia receives a transfusion of whole blood, which acute transfusion complication is most likely to occur?

1. Acute intravascular hemolysis
2. Anaphylactic reaction
3. Fluid overload
4. Septic shock

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.27) A 35-year-old woman needs three units of red blood cells. The laboratory performs an antibody screen to identify any blood group antibodies. The antibody screen is positive. According to the results of the antibody panel below, which antibody most likely caused the positive result?

1. Anti-C
2. Anti-D
3. Anti-E
4. Anti-K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.28) Which of these blood products needs to be irradiated before being transfused into a patient?

1. Cryoprecipitate
2. Fresh frozen plasma
3. Frozen washed red cells
4. Granulocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.29) Leukocytes are removed from transfusable blood components by a process called:

1. leukoextraction
2. leukorebation
3. leukoreduction
4. leukotransference

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.30) Transfusion of red blood cells with low 2,3-DPG levels causes which pathophysiological effect?

1. Decreased carbon dioxide levels
2. Increased cardiac output
3. Increased mixed venous oxygen tension
4. Lower blood viscosity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.31) An AB− patient requires a blood transfusion but no AB− is available. Blood from which of these blood types could be given to the patient instead?

1. A+
2. AB+
3. A−
4. O+

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.32) TRALI is a transfusion complication where excess fluid builds up in which part of the body?

1. Brain
2. Heart
3. Kidneys
4. Lungs

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.33) An apheresis donation is a donation:

1. from a donor on a dialysis machine
2. performed under general anesthetic
3. taken from a leg vein instead of an arm vein
4. where the donor gives specific blood components

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.34) Which of the following statements about platelet donors is true?

1. A platelet count is required on the first donation
2. Donors who have ingested aspirin should be deferred for 48 hours
3. The minimum interval between two platelet donations is 2 months
4. The separation of platelets from blood is called plasmapheresis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.35) Which of these questions is found on blood donor questionnaires?

1. Have you been on a plane in the past 6 months?
2. Have you eaten any canned food in the past 48 hours?
3. Have you eaten red meat in the past 12 hours?
4. Have you had a tattoo in the past 3 months?

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.36) Donated blood must be tested for which of these pathogens?

1. Ebola virus
2. Hepatitis A virus
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
4. West Nile virus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.37) What is the rarest phenotype of the Kidd blood group?

1. Jk(a+b+)
2. Jk(a+b-)
3. Jk(a-b+)
4. Jk(a-b-)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.38) People with the Jk(a-b-) phenotype are unable to:

1. breathe without the aid of a respirator
2. have children
3. make hemoglobin
4. maximally concentrate urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.39) Anti-G would react with red blood cells with which of these phenotypes?

1. A+ B− C+ D− E−
2. A− B+ C− D− E+
3. A− B+ C− D− E−
4. A− B− C− D− E−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.40) Besides the ABO and Rh antibodies, what is the most common antibody seen in blood banking?

1. Anti-Fya
2. Anti-Fyb
3. Anti-H
4. Anti-K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.41) Antibodies to which of these blood group systems show dosage?

1. Duffy
2. Kell
3. Lutheran
4. P

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.42) Which of these would result in direct exclusion in paternity testing?

1. Group AB child, group A mother, and group O man
2. Group AB child, group B mother, and group A man
3. Group B child, group B mother, and group AB man
4. Group B child, group O mother, and group AB man

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.43) A 40-year-old woman needs two units of red blood cells. The antibody screen is positive. The results of the antibody panel are as follows: Which antibody most likely caused the positive result?

1. Anti-C
2. Anti-D
3. Anti-E
4. Anti-K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.44) You suspect a patient has the Bombay blood group. To test your suspicion, you would mix the patient's red blood cells with a reagent containing which antigen?

1. Anti-D
2. Anti-E
3. Anti-H
4. Anti-K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.45) The U antigen is part of which antigen system?

1. Duffy
2. Kidd
3. Lewis
4. MNS

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.46) What percentage of Caucasians are positive for the c antigen?

1. 20%
2. 40%
3. 60%
4. 80%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.47) According to AABB guidelines, thawed fresh frozen plasma can be refrigerated for how long before it must be discarded?

1. 6 hours
2. 12 hours
3. 24 hours
4. 2 days

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.48) Fresh frozen plasma is stored at ____ or colder.

1. −30°C
2. −10°C
3. −6°C
4. 6°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.49) Which donated blood component carries the highest risk for bacterial contamination?

1. Cryoprecipitate
2. Plasma
3. Platelets
4. Red blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.50) Stored blood is automatically disqualified for transfusion if it:

1. has clots
2. has white particulate matter
3. is icteric
4. is lipemic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.51) Whole blood is stored between:

1. −12°C and −18°C
2. −6°C and 3°C
3. 2°C and 6°C
4. 8°C and 16°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.52) Which cryoprotective agent is most commonly used for red blood cells in blood banking?

1. Glycerol
2. Mannitol
3. Sorbitol
4. Thiol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.53) What temperature is cryoprecipitate stored at?

1. –18°C or below
2. –2°C to –16°C
3. 2–6°C
4. 21°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.54) What color label is used for bags of AB blood?

1. Blue
2. Pink
3. White
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.55) Which of these is a sign of hemolysis in a unit of red blood cells?

1. Blood clots
2. Bright cherry red color
3. Excessive and unusual air bubbles
4. Increased opacity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.56) For how long can donated platelets be stored at room temperature?

1. 1 hour
2. 4 hours
3. 24 hours
4. 5 days

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.57) Which type of antibody causes hemolytic disease of the newborn?

1. IgA
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.58) Which of these situations could cause hemolytic disease of the newborn?

1. A+ mother and O− fetus
2. AB+ mother and O− fetus
3. O+ mother and A− fetus
4. O− mother and O+ fetus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.59) A Rh-negative woman is pregnant with her second child. The first child was Rh-positive. What test can be used to determine if this second child is at risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn?

1. ABO blood typing of the fetus
2. Bilirubin level in umbilical cord blood
3. Direct antiglobulin test on the mother's red cells
4. Indirect antiglobulin test on the mother's serum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.60) When performing an antiglobulin test, why must the lab technician wash the red blood cells before adding the AHG reagent?

1. To ensure the antibodies bind to the antigens
2. To neutralize excess AHG reagent
3. To remove hemolyzed cells
4. To remove unbound serum globulins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.61) Why is incubation omitted in the direct antiglobulin test?

1. Incubation will cause hemolysis
2. The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo
3. The direct antiglobulin test is used if there is not enough time to perform the indirect test
4. The direct antiglobulin test only detects IgM antibodies

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.62) What color is the anti-human globulin reagent?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Red
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.63) Which blood type is used to make Coombs control cells?

1. AB+
2. AB−
3. O+
4. O−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.64) Coombs control cells are red blood cells coated with which antibody?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.65) In the indirect antiglobulin test, what happens to the red blood cells during the incubation phase?

1. Agglutination
2. Apoptosis
3. Hemolysis
4. Sensitization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.66) In antibody screens, what is the best pH for the incubation phase?

1. 6.8–7.2
2. 7.2–7.5
3. 7.5–7.8
4. 7.8–8.2

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.67) What does a positive result on the direct antibody test indicate?

1. Antibodies or complement are bound to the red blood cells
2. Normal result
3. The patient has a specific antibody in their serum or plasma
4. The serum contains anti-HBc and/or anti-HBcAb

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.68) Which of these medications can cause a false positive result on the direct antiglobulin test?

1. Aspirin
2. Clopidogrel
3. Levothyroxine
4. Penicillin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.69) A patient's blood sample has a negative result on a direct antiglobulin test. To verify the result, the technician adds Coombs control cells to the test. When the Coombs control cells are added, no agglutination is observed. Which of these is a correct interpretation?

1. The original negative test result is valid
2. The patient has antibodies against their own red blood cells
3. The saline washings were adequate
4. The test needs to be repeated

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.70) A laboratory technician is running a daily positive control to verify the reactivity of Coombs’ control cells. The technician mixes one drop of Coombs’ control cells with anti-IgG and then centrifuges the mixture. The result is an agglutination of 4+. What does this result indicate?

1. The result is abnormal; discard the Coombs’ control cells and prepare a new batch
2. The result is abnormal; discard the anti-IgG and order a new batch
3. The result is abnormal; rerun the control at a faster centrifugation speed
4. The result is normal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.71) Which of the following chemicals can potentiate the indirect antiglobulin test?

1. Ethoxylated sorbitan
2. Ethyl alcohol
3. Glycerol
4. Polyethylene glycol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.72) A patient's temperature rises by 2°C while receiving a blood transfusion. There are no abnormal results in the transfusion reaction investigation. Which transfusion reaction is the patient experiencing?

1. Allergic
2. Anaphylactic
3. Febrile non-hemolytic
4. Hemolytic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.73) Which of these transfusion reactions is delayed?

1. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload
2. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
3. Transfusion-associated sepsis
4. Transfusion-related acute lung injury

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.74) What is the most serious transfusion reaction?

1. Acute immune hemolytic reaction
2. Delayed hemolytic reaction
3. Febrile reaction
4. Graft-versus-host disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.75) Six hours after a blood transfusion, a patient presents with pain at the infusion site, back, chest, and flank. The patient's urine is dark brown. Tests reveal the patient has hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria, and hypotension. What is the likely cause?

1. Acute hemolytic reaction
2. TRALI
3. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
4. Transfusion-associated sepsis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.76) What type of transfusion reaction is caused by the destruction of incompatible red blood cells?

1. Anaphylactic
2. Febrile non-hemolytic
3. Hemolytic
4. Simple allergic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.77) Which of these is a symptom of transfusion-associated circulatory overload?

1. High oxygen levels in the blood
2. Low blood pressure
3. Shortness of breath
4. Slow heart rate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.78) A patient with type B+ blood requires an emergency blood transfusion. He receives three units of packed red blood cells from an O– donor. Shortly after the transfusion, he starts experiencing fever, nausea, hypotension, and shock. His condition worsens and he begins showing signs of hemoglobinuria, DIC, and kidney failure. Which transfusion reaction is the patient experiencing?

1. Anaphylactic
2. Circulatory overload
3. Febrile
4. Septic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.79) A patient with an Rh genotype of DCe/DCe is transfused with red blood cells with an Rh genotype of Dce/Dce. Which alloantibody will the patient's body likely produce in response to the donor's blood?

1. Anti-C
2. Anti-D
3. Anti-E
4. Anti-c

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.80) Which red blood cell abnormality is associated with the Rh-null phenotype?

1. Acanthocytosis
2. Elliptocytosis
3. Schistocytosis
4. Stomatocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.81) Which Rh antigen has the highest frequency in Blacks and Caucasians?

1. D
2. E
3. c
4. e

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.82) People whose cells have the D antigen are known as:

1. D carriers
2. IgD-positive
3. Rh-positive
4. anti-d

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.83) What percentage of people in the United States are Rh-negative?

1. 15%
2. 30%
3. 50%
4. 70%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.84) What is the rarest Rh chromosome?

1. CDe
2. CdE
3. cDE
4. cde

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.85) What is the most common Rh phenotype in African Americans?

1. DCe/dce
2. DcE/DcE
3. Dce/dce
4. dce/dce

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.86) Which blood type has no Rh antigens?

1. Rh-null
2. R₀R₀
3. r'r'
4. rr

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.87) A patient has the Rh genotype R¹R¹. What is the patient's genotype in the Fisher-Race nomenclature?

1. CDe/CDe
2. Cde/Cde
3. cdE/cdE
4. cde/cde

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.88) A patient's serum and group A antigens result in agglutination. However, the serum and group B antigens result in no agglutination. Therefore, what blood type is the patient?

1. A
2. B
3. AB
4. O

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.89) The pedigree chart below shows a type AB father, a type O mother, and their four children: How many of the four children would be expected to have type A blood?

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.90) A man has the genotype AO and a woman has the genotype AB. What are the possible phenotypes of their offspring?

1. A and B
2. AB and B
3. AB, A and B
4. AB, B and A

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.91) A patient's ABO testing results are as follows:

Red cell grouping				Serum grouping
anti-A	anti-B	anti-A₁		A₁ cells	B cells
4+	0	0		2+	4+

What is the patient's ABO subtype?

1. A₁
2. A₂
3. A₁B
4. A₂B

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.92) In blood typing, anti-A may be dyed what color as a quality control measure?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Red
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.93) What is the most common blood type in the US?

1. AB+
2. B−
3. O−
4. O+

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.94) A patient's ABO testing results are as follows:

Red cell grouping			Serum grouping
anti-A	anti-B		A cells	B cells
4+	1+		0	4+

What is the likely cause of these results?

1. Acquired B
2. Chimerism
3. Hypogammaglobulinemia
4. Immunosuppression

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.95) A patient's blood type testing results are as follows:

Red cell grouping				Serum grouping
anti-A	anti-B	anti-D		A₁ cells	B cells
0	4+	0		4+	0

What is the patient's blood group?

1. A+
2. A−
3. B+
4. B−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.96) Landsteiner's rule applies to which blood group system?

1. ABO
2. H-antigen
3. MNS
4. Rhesus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.97) A blood donor is tested with Rh antisera. The results are as follows:

anti-D	anti-C	anti-E	anti-c	anti-e
+	+	+	+	+

What is the donor's most probable Rh genotype?

1. DCe/DcE
2. DCe/dCE
3. DcE/DCE
4. Dce/dCE

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.98) A blood donor is tested with Rh antisera. The results are as follows:

anti-D	anti-C	anti-E	anti-c	anti-e
0	0	0	+	+

What is the donor's Rh genotype?

1. dCe/dCe
2. dcE/dcE
3. dce/dCe
4. dce/dce

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.99) A blood donor is tested with Rh antisera. The results are as follows:

anti-D	anti-C	anti-E	anti-c	anti-e
0	+	0	+	+

What is the donor's Rh genotype?

1. dCe/dCe
2. dcE/dcE
3. dce/dCe
4. dce/dce

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.100) Which test detects antibodies attached to red blood cells?

1. Antibody screen
2. Direct antiglobulin test
3. Elution
4. Indirect antiglobulin test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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