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1) Which of these is the responsibility of a laboratory assistant?

1. Giving results to patients
2. Performing tests that require judgement
3. Preparing chemical solutions
4. Supervising other workers

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2) Which of the following should be included in an employee's personnel file?

1. Information about the employee's family members
2. Most recent vacation destination
3. Performance reviews
4. Web addresses of the employee's social media profiles

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3) If 0.5 ml of a sample is added to 10 ml of diluent, what is the dilution factor?

1. 10
2. 11
3. 20
4. 21

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4) A lab technician makes a solution by mixing 1 liter of water with 9 g of salt. What is the salt concentration of the solution?

1. 0.9 g/L
2. 8 g/L
3. 8.9 g/L
4. 9 g/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5) A dilution factor of 1/10 means what part specimen and what part diluent?

1. 1 part specimen, 9 parts diluent
2. 1 part specimen, 10 parts diluent
3. 1 part specimen, 10.5 parts diluent
4. 1 part specimen, 11 parts diluent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6) To prepare 500 mL of buffer, the lab manual says to mix 2 parts of the concentrated buffer with 6 parts of distilled water. What quantities of buffer and water would be used?

1. 125 mL of buffer and 375 mL of water
2. 150 mL of buffer and 350 mL of water
3. 175 mL of buffer and 325 mL of water
4. 200 mL of buffer and 300 mL of water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7) How many grams of sodium chloride are needed to make 200 mL of a 5% m/v sodium chloride solution?

1. 5 g
2. 10 g
3. 15 g
4. 20 g

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8) A solution is made by mixing 100 mL of hydrochloric acid with 100 mL of water. What is the %v/v concentration of hydrochloric acid in this solution?

1. 1%
2. 10%
3. 25%
4. 50%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9) A lab technician is preparing a serial dilution with eight tubes. The first tube contains a 1/2 dilution. If the dilution factor doubles with each transfer, what would be the dilution in the eighth tube?

1. 1/128
2. 1/256
3. 1/512
4. 1/1024

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10) A molar solution is:

1. 1 mL of solute in one mole of solution
2. one gram of solute in 1 mL of solution
3. one gram of solute in one mole of solution
4. one mole of solute in 1 liter of solution

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11) A dilution ratio of 1:12 means what part specimen and what part diluent?

1. 1 part specimen, 12 parts diluent
2. 1 part specimen, 13 parts diluent
3. 11 parts specimen, 1 part diluent
4. 12 parts specimen, 1 part diluent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12) If a dilution ratio of 7:10 is used to make an acetic acid solution and the final volume of the solution is 950 mL, what is the volume of the solute?

1. 58 mL
2. 101 mL
3. 391 mL
4. 559 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13) Which prefix means 10⁻⁶?

1. Centi
2. Kilo
3. Micro
4. Nano

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 14) What does the prefix 'kilo' mean?

1. 10
2. 100
3. 1,000
4. 10,000

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 15) What does the prefix 'nano' mean?

1. 1 hundredth
2. 1 thousandth
3. 1 millionth
4. 1 billionth

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 16) Which of these is an abbreviation for 'micro'?

1. m
2. mc
3. mi
4. ms

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 17) Cubic decimeters are more commonly known as:

1. grams
2. liters
3. meters cubed
4. moles

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 18) Which metric prefix represents 0.001?

1. Micro
2. Centi
3. Pico
4. Milli

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 19) What is 0.05 mL in microliters?

1. 0.0005 μL
2. 0.005 μL
3. 5 μL
4. 50 μL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 20) What is the term for the following graph shape?

1. Normal distribution
2. Polynomial function
3. Quadratic chart
4. Reciprocal graph

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 21) For data distributed normally, how many values are within one standard deviation from the mean?

1. 50%
2. 68%
3. 83%
4. 95%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 22) In a normal distribution, what percentage of cases are above the mean?

1. 50%
2. 68%
3. 75%
4. 100%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 23) The following data were calculated on a series of 100 determinations of a control.

Mean	5.8
Median	6.0
Mode	5.7
Range	1.5–20.2
Standard deviation	0.25

If confidence limits are set at ±2 standard deviations, what are the allowable limits for the control?

1. 5.30–6.30
2. 5.35–6.25
3. 5.50–5.90
4. 5.60–5.90

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 24) What does the standard deviation tell you?

1. How many errors are in the data set
2. How spread out the data is
3. The average value in the data set
4. The number the data tends to cluster around

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 25) What is the most likely cause of a single control value deviating beyond 3 standard deviations?

1. Calibration drift
2. Random error
3. Reagent degradation
4. Wear and tear of laboratory equipment

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 26) For data distributed normally, how many values are within two standard deviations from the mean?

1. 50%
2. 68%
3. 83%
4. 95%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 27) If a data set has a mean of 7.2 and a standard deviation of 1.2, what range of values falls within two standard deviations of the mean?

1. 4.8–9.6
2. 6.0–8.4
3. 7.2–9.6
4. 8.6–10.2

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 28) For data distributed normally, how many values are within three standard deviations from the mean?

1. 68%
2. 83%
3. 95%
4. 99.7%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 29) If a control has a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 1, then 95% of the values obtained should fall within what range?

1. 1–9
2. 2–8
3. 3–7
4. 4–6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 30) Which formula calculates the coefficient of variation?

1. (Mean × 100) / standard deviation
2. (Standard deviation × 100) / standard error
3. (Standard deviation) / mean × 100
4. (Variance × 100) / mean

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 31) Automated white blood cell counts were performed on 29 blood samples. The mean value was 8.0 cells/nL and the standard deviation was 1.2 cells/nL. What is the coefficient of variation?

1. 15%
2. 30%
3. 45%
4. 60%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 32) If the mean is 20 and two standard deviations is 8, what is the coefficient of variation?

1. 0.2%
2. 4%
3. 20%
4. 40%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 33) Ten patients have the following bilirubin results: 3.1, 3.2, 3.8, 4.1, 4.7, 5.1, 5.9, 6.0, 6.2, 6.9. Calculate the mean of these results.

1. 4.5
2. 4.7
3. 4.9
4. 5.1

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 34) The middle value in a sorted data set is called the:

1. average
2. coefficient of variation
3. mean
4. median

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 35) The value that appears most often in a set of data values is called the:

1. average
2. coefficient of variation
3. mean
4. mode

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 36) A lab technician has a liter of 85% alcohol. How much water must the technician add to the alcohol to dilute it to 70%?

1. 214 mL
2. 528 mL
3. 1,214 mL
4. 1,528 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 37) A lab assistant has a 100x stock solution. From this solution, the assistant wants to make 500 mL of a 5x solution. How much of the 100x stock solution does the assistant need?

1. 5 mL
2. 10 mL
3. 25 mL
4. 50 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 38) What is the formula for calculating a percent w/v solution?

1. (mass of solute / mass of solution) × 100
2. (mass of solute / volume of solution) × 100
3. (volume of solution / mass of solute) × 100
4. (volume of solution / volume of solute) × 100

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 39) What is the formula for calculating a percent w/w solution?

1. (mass of solute / mass of solution) × 100
2. (mass of solute / volume of solution) × 100
3. (mass of solution / mass of solute) × 100
4. (mass of solution / volume of solute) × 100

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 40) Which of these expresses solution concentration for a solid solute dissolved in a liquid solvent?

1. %(m/m)
2. %(m/v)
3. %(v/m)
4. %(v/v)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 41) Which of these actions reduces the risk of repetitive strain injury?

1. Repeating the same movement many times
2. Resting your arms on a hard surface
3. Staying in the same position for long a period of time
4. Taking frequent, small breaks

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 42) The systematic process of evaluating potential hazards is called a:

1. Myers Briggs Type audit
2. health needs evaluation
3. risk assessment
4. workplace danger evaluation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 43) What is the name of a document that identifies hazards and the ways to minimize their impact?

1. Accident and incident recording form
2. First aid assessment form
3. Inspection report
4. Risk management policy

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 44) Which federal agency regulates the disposal of hazardous waste produced by laboratories?

1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
2. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
3. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 45) Which act regulates hazardous waste disposal?

1. Clean Water Act (CWA)
2. National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
3. Pollution Prevention Act (PPA)
4. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 46) Which of the following is an example of regulated waste?

1. Empty medicine bottles
2. Patient gowns
3. Sterile dressings
4. Used blood tubes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 47) Used needles should be discarded in:

1. a biohazard sharps container
2. a glass disposal bucket
3. a glass recycling bin
4. the regular garbage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 48) What is the upper flammability limit?

1. The amount of fuel that will burn before the fuel burns itself out
2. The highest concentration of a chemical that can catch fire
3. The highest temperature at which a chemical can be stored safely
4. The lowest temperature at which a chemical will ignite

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 49) In 2015, OSHA adopted the Globally Harmonized System (GHS) for classifying and labeling of chemicals, which resulted in flammable liquids being redefined as liquids with a flashpoint lower than:

1. 37.8°C
2. 67.3°C
3. 93°C
4. 100°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 50) The fire extinguisher below can be used on which of the following fires?

1. Electrical equipment
2. Methanol
3. Oil bath
4. Cardboard boxes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 51) PASS in a mnemonic for remembering the:

1. key safety principles of working in a laboratory
2. steps for first aid
3. steps to operate a fire extinguisher
4. warning signs of a stroke

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 52) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: This fire extinguisher:

1. can be used on fires involving flammable liquids or gases
2. requires annual top-ups of type B fuel
3. should be stored in a separate room from flammable chemicals
4. uses kerosene to extinguish fires

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 53) What are the three components of the fire triangle?

1. Oxygen, heat, and fuel
2. Oxygen, ignition, and fuel
3. Rescue, Alarm, Escape
4. Rescue, Alarm, Extinguish

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 54) What does the acronym RACE mean in the context of fire procedures?

1. Ready, Aim, Check, Extinguish
2. Recover, Act, Control, Escape/Evacuate
3. Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate
4. Run, Activate, Coordinate, Escape/Extinguish

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 55) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: The fire extinguisher:

1. can be used to extinguish electrical fires
2. cannot be used on electrical equipment
3. carries a risk of electric shock
4. requires charging before use

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 56) Which of these chemicals is flammable?

1. Acetone
2. Carbon tetrachloride
3. Chloroform
4. Saline

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 57) Refer to the image below: Another name for this type of fire extinguisher is a _________ fire extinguisher.

1. ABC
2. AFFF foam
3. carbon dioxide
4. class F

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 58) At low concentrations, what does hydrogen sulfide smell like?

1. Burnt sugar
2. Rotten eggs
3. Rotting meat
4. Strong cheese

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 59) When mixing acid and water:

1. add the acid quickly to the water
2. add the acid slowly to the water
3. add the water quickly to the acid
4. add the water slowly to the acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 60) Which of these chemicals is explosive?

1. Crystal violet
2. Picric acid
3. Potassium chloride
4. Sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 61) If a chemical produces harmful vapors, it should be used in a:

1. autoclave
2. biological safety cabinet
3. fume hood
4. sealed room

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 62) In the event of an acid burn, what should your first action be?

1. Cover the burn with gauze moistened in sterile saline
2. Flush the area with water
3. Go to the emergency department
4. Neutralize the acid with sodium bicarbonate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 63) In the event of a chemical splash to the eyes, what is the minimum time the eyes should be flushed with water?

1. 1 minute
2. 5 minutes
3. 10 minutes
4. 15 minutes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 64) A lab technologist has spilled concentrated hydrochloric acid onto his clothing and skin, affecting a large portion of his body. After he has removed his clothing, the next thing he should do is:

1. apply a burn ointment to his skin
2. pour baking soda onto his skin
3. seek emergency medical assistance
4. use the emergency safety shower

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 65) Universal precautions apply to which type of hazard?

1. Bloodborne pathogens
2. Dangerous chemicals
3. Environmental hazards
4. Radiation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 66) A nonpathogenic strain of E.coli would require which biosafety level?

1. BSL-1
2. BSL-2
3. BSL-3
4. BSL-4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 67) Which of these is an OPIM (other potentially infectious material)?

1. Saliva
2. Semen
3. Urine
4. Vomit

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 68) The responsibility for identifying employees at risk of exposure to blood or OPIM lies with the:

1. employer
2. government
3. patient
4. union

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 69) Which of these items of information is found on a safety data sheet?

1. Expiry date
2. Health hazards
3. Price
4. Production date

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 70) How many sections are in a standard GHS safety data sheet?

1. 8
2. 10
3. 12
4. 16

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 71) Gases under pressure require a pictogram of:

1. a flame
2. a flame over a circle
3. a gas cylinder
4. an exploding test tube

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 72) On the NFPA hazard diamond, a number 4 in the yellow quadrant means the substance:

1. is highly radioactive
2. is extremely contagious
3. readily burns at normal temperatures
4. readily explodes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 73) Which color on the NFPA hazard diamond signals the degree of hazards to health?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. White
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 74) On the NFPA hazard diamond, a number 1 in the red quadrant means the substance:

1. does not burn
2. only ignites after considerable preheating
3. ignites if moderately heated
4. can be ignited at normal temperatures

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 75) On the NFPA hazard diamond below, what do the letters SA mean?

1. Can shock and/or cause acid damage
2. Safety assessed
3. Simple asphyxiant
4. Substance abuse

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 76) What does a number 2 in the blue quadrant of an NFPA hazard diamond indicate?

1. Continued exposure to the substance could cause temporary incapacitation or injury
2. The substance can be ignited at normal temperatures
3. The substance is unreactive with water
4. The substance reacts with water in an unusual or dangerous way

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 77) In the NFPA hazard diamond, which quadrant indicates special hazards?

1. Blue
2. Red
3. White
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 78) Where should bulk quantities of acetone be kept?

1. Biological safety cabinet
2. Flammable storage cabinet
3. Freezer
4. Refrigerator

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 79) How should ethers be stored?

1. In airtight bottles
2. In the light
3. In the refrigerator
4. Underwater

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 80) What is the correct place to store a stock solution of ethanol?

1. Flammable safety cabinet
2. Freezer
3. Fume hood
4. Refrigerator

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 81) Always keep picric acid:

1. dry
2. refrigerated
3. ventilated
4. wet

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 82) Under OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard, which of the following information is mandatory on hazardous chemical labels?

1. Environmental pictogram
2. Expiration date
3. Personal protective equipment (PPE) pictogram
4. Phone number of the manufacturer or importer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 83) If a chemical has a hazard that warrants a “Danger” signal word and another hazard that warrants the “Warning” signal word then what should appear on the label?

1. Both "Warning" and "Danger"
2. Neither "Warning" nor "Danger" but the word "Fatal" instead
3. Only the “Danger” signal word
4. Only the “Warning” signal word

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 84) A lab assistant has spilled acetone on the floor. What should be your first action?

1. Clean up the spill
2. Move everyone to fresh air
3. Tell the lab assistant to wash his eyes
4. Turn off any flames

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 85) Which of these substances would be the best solution to clean up a large blood spill?

1. 1:10 dilution of bleach
2. 70% isopropyl alcohol
3. Antibacterial soap and water
4. Povidone-iodine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 86) Which concentration of bleach is used to decontaminate benchtops?

1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 30%
4. 50%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 87) Cold sterilization uses _________ to sterilize medical instruments.

1. chemicals
2. cold air
3. ice
4. liquid nitrogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 88) What is the first step when cleaning up a blood spill?

1. Decontaminate reusable equipment such as dustpans and brushes
2. Pour disinfectant onto the spill
3. Put on PPE
4. Soak up the spill with paper towels

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 89) Which of these dilutions is the most effective disinfectant?

1. 1% ethyl alcohol
2. 10% ethyl alcohol
3. 40% ethyl alcohol
4. 70% ethyl alcohol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 90) Which disinfectant inactivates prions?

1. Alcohol
2. Formaldehyde
3. Formalin
4. Sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 91) Which cleaning product releases a toxic gas when mixed with urine?

1. Chlorine bleach
2. Hydrogen peroxide
3. Isopropyl alcohol
4. Povidone-iodine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 92) Which of these chemicals would be the best choice to neutralize a weak acid spill in the laboratory?

1. Acetic acid
2. Boric acid
3. Sodium bicarbonate
4. Sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 93) Mercury spills are most dangerous when the spill occurs:

1. in a fume hood
2. in a poorly ventilated area
3. near sources of ignition
4. near the flammable storage cabinet

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 94) Which of these is used when cleaning a radioactive spill?

1. Tongs
2. Soda ash
3. Spill pillow
4. Soda lime

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 95) Autoclaves work on which principle?

1. Cold sterilization
2. Free-flowing steam
3. Hot water
4. Moist heat sterilization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 96) What pressure and temperature do autoclaves use?

1. 12 psi at 115°C
2. 12 psi at 120°C
3. 15 psi at 112°C
4. 15 psi at 121°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 97) Which type of glass is autoclavable?

1. Borosilicate
2. Float
3. Lead
4. Soda-lime

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 98) Which of these procedures kills all infectious microorganisms, including bacterial spores?

1. Cleaning
2. Disinfection
3. Sanitization
4. Sterilization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 99) What problem can happen if you open a dry heat oven during the sterilization procedure?

1. Glassware may break
2. Glassware may get wet
3. Sterilization may not be complete
4. The oven may get damaged

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 100) Which of these is an example of a Standard Precaution?

1. Fire extinguisher
2. Hand hygiene
3. Keeping chemicals containers closed
4. Radiation shielding

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 101) What is the universal solvent?

1. 0.85% sodium chloride
2. 10% ethanol
3. 8.5% NaCl
4. Water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 102) Which of these statements best describes preventive maintenance?

1. Fixing things before they break
2. Identifying unexpected failures
3. Repairing equipment after it fails
4. Turning off machines when they are not in use

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 103) Which grade of chemical is the highest purity?

1. Commercial
2. Laboratory
3. Reagent
4. Technical

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 104) A reagent requires 1.26 grams of sodium carbonate. The lab technician should measure it with a:

1. analytical balance
2. desiccator
3. pH meter
4. single pan balance

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 105) The main use of a buffer is to:

1. accentuate changes in pH
2. make a solution more acidic
3. make a solution more basic
4. minimize changes in pH

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 106) Triple beam balances give their readings in what unit?

1. Grams
2. Kilograms
3. Liters
4. Milliliters

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 107) Which pH buffer solution is typically used first when calibrating a pH meter?

1. pH 1
2. pH 4
3. pH 7
4. pH 10

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 108) Refractometers are calibrated by using a sample of:

1. cow blood
2. distilled water
3. healthy urine
4. hydrochloric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 109) Which water purification method involves boiling water and then letting the steam cool?

1. Deionization
2. Distillation
3. Filtration
4. Reverse osmosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 110) What is the equation to convert revolutions per minute (RPM) to relative centrifugal force (RCF)?

1. RCF = RPM × 1.144 × 10⁵ × r²
2. RCF = RPM × 1.144 × 10⁻⁵ × r²
3. RCF = RPM² × 1.118 × 10⁵ × r
4. RCF = RPM² × 1.118 × 10⁻⁵ × r

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 111) Water that does not contain charged particles is called ________ water.

1. chlorinated
2. de-ionized
3. distilled
4. flat

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 112) What is the term for a solution in which no more solvent can be dissolved?

1. Concentrated
2. Diluted
3. Saturated
4. Soluted

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 113) Which microscope is most used in clinical laboratories?

1. Dark-field
2. Florescent
3. Light
4. Phase-contrast

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 114) Which part of a microscope adjusts the light intensity?

1. Iris diaphragm
2. Numerical aperture
3. Ocular lens
4. Stage clip

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 115) Microscopes usually have which objective lenses?

1. 10x, 40x, and 100x
2. 10x, 50x, and 100x
3. 20x, 40x, and 80x
4. 20x, 50x, and 80x

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 116) Which microscope would be best to examine an unstained, wet preparation of cells before dehydration?

1. Brightfield
2. Electron
3. Fluorescence
4. Phase contrast

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 117) What does a condenser lens on a microscope do?

1. Control the aperture of light
2. Focus the light on the specimen
3. Increase the magnification
4. Provide an initial magnification of 10x

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 118) Which microscope magnification is used to distinguish between different bacteria and see their internal structure?

1. 10x
2. 100x
3. 400x
4. 1000x

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 119) You notice dirt in the field of view while using a microscope. The dirt moves when you rotate the eyepiece. What action should you take?

1. Clean the eyepiece
2. Clean the objective
3. Open the iris
4. Tighten the tension adjustment

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 120) A pipette gives a reading of 4.9 mL when the true value of the volume of liquid inside the pipette is 5.0 mL. What is the percent error?

1. 2%
2. 4%
3. 6%
4. 8%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 121) Pipettes marked TC are:

1. allowed to drain freely
2. marked with a double ring at the mouthpiece
3. rinsed out after delivery
4. used for toxic, corrosive liquids

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 122) Which of these items of glassware is made to deliver specific volumes?

1. Beaker
2. Round-bottom flask
3. Volumetric flask
4. Volumetric pipette

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 123) Which pipette is the most accurate?

1. Bulb
2. Graduated
3. Pasteur
4. Volumetric

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 124) A to-deliver pipettor has an accuracy of +/- 0.8% and a precision of +/- 0.15%. When using the pipette to deliver a volume of 100 µL, what range would you expect the volume of liquid to fall within?

1. 99.05–100.95 µL
2. 99.2–100.8 µL
3. 99.55–100.45 µL
4. 99.85–100.15 µL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 125) What do double rings mean on a pipette?

1. The last drop must be blown out
2. The pipette can hold 2 mL
3. The pipette will deliver the measured amount of liquid only at 20°C
4. The volume is measured at this point

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 126) Which pipette has a bulged-out portion in the middle?

1. Mohr
2. Pasture
3. Serological
4. Volumetric

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 127) For accurate measurements, a volumetric pipette should be viewed:

1. above eye level
2. at an angle
3. at eye level
4. below eye level

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 128) Which glassware is used to measure 24-hour urine volumes?

1. Beaker
2. Erlenmeyer flask
3. Graduated cylinder
4. Volumetric flask

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 129) Which type of pipette has calibration marks to the tip?

1. Disposable
2. Micropipette
3. Serological
4. Volumetric

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 130) Biological safety cabinets should be tested at least every:

1. year
2. 2 years
3. 3 years
4. 4 years

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 131) What type of filter do biological safety cabinets use to remove airborne particles, such as bacteria and viruses?

1. Electrostatic
2. Fiberglass
3. HEPA
4. UV light

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 132) Which kind of centrifuge is used to spin capillary tubes?

1. Angle head
2. Cytospin
3. Microhematocrit
4. Refrigerated

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 133) Which kind of centrifuge has good cellular morphology preservation?

1. Angle head
2. Cytocentrifuge
3. Microhematocrit
4. Refrigerated

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 134) Before turning on a centrifuge, make sure:

1. all liquid specimen tubes are uncovered
2. the centrifuge is balanced
3. the centrifuge is on a slanted surface
4. the cover is open

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 135) Which device measures the RPM of a centrifuge?

1. Ohmmeter
2. Rheostat
3. Tachometer
4. Voltmeter

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 136) What is the most common cause of excessive centrifuge vibration?

1. Electrical interference
2. Unbalanced tubes
3. Uneven bench surfaces
4. Variable voltage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 137) What does it mean if a lab value is critical?

1. The patient has a life-threatening condition
2. The test is malfunctioning and needs calibrating
3. The value is needed to calculate other lab results
4. The value must be reported to the doctor within 24 hours

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 138) Which of these situations would cause random errors?

1. A lab assistant who reads the volume of liquids in flasks at a different angle every time
2. A plastic tape measure that has become slightly stretched over the years
3. A scale that has been incorrectly calibrated and always gives a value 10 g lighter than the real weight
4. A thermometer that always reads 2 degrees too high

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 139) _____________ is when readings become consistently lower or higher over time.

1. Calibration
2. Drift
3. Offset error
4. Unpredictability

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 140) A lab technician is counting the number of colonies on an agar plate. She accidentally counts the same colony twice. What type of error is this?

1. Environmental
2. Instrumental
3. Observational
4. Theoretical

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 141) Which of these is a pre-analytical error?

1. A light blue top tube filled only halfway
2. A result reported on the wrong patient
3. Incorrect calculation of test results
4. Incorrect interpretation of results

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 142) Which of these is an example of a zero error?

1. A blood sample missing a label
2. A lab technician forgetting a zero when performing a calculation
3. A thermometer registering 102°C in boiling water instead of 100°C
4. Scales giving a reading of 1.1 g when nothing is placed on them

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 143) Which of these is a post-analytical error?

1. A hemolyzed specimen
2. An empty collection tube
3. Incorrect information on the test request
4. Results reported in the wrong units

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 144) Random errors mainly affect:

1. accuracy
2. external validity
3. internal validity
4. precision

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 145) Which of these best meets the definition of proficiency testing?

1. Inspections to prevent work-related accidents
2. Testing for illegal drugs in a biological sample
3. Tests to ensure workers have the skills and knowledge to perform their jobs
4. The testing of unknown samples sent to the laboratory

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 146) The process of checking and rectifying the precision and accuracy of a measuring instrument is called:

1. calibration
2. estimation
3. graduation
4. mensuration

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 147) Which of the following is an example of a quality assurance indicator?

1. C-reactive protein test
2. Keep thorough records of exposure incidents
3. Laboratory staff must work under a fume hood when dealing with toxic chemicals
4. Laboratory turnaround time

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 148) Where would you find the instructions for running quality controls for a specific assay?

1. Laboratory quality manual
2. Safety data sheet
3. Safety manual
4. Standard operating procedure

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 149) What kind of chart is a graphical presentation of run-to-run or day-to-day quality control values?

1. Eadie–Hofstee
2. Hanes–Woolf
3. Levey–Jennings
4. Lineweaver–Burk

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 150) Which federal agency provides calibration services for thermometers?

1. American Association for Clinical Chemistry (AACC)
2. American Clinical Laboratory Association (ACLA)
3. Department of Energy (DOE)
4. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 151) The monitoring of laboratory processes to ensure the accuracy of test results is an aspect of:

1. corporate compliance
2. critical thinking
3. quality assurance
4. risk management

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 152) Which term means the extent to which measurements agree with the true value?

1. Accuracy
2. Precision
3. Reliability
4. Reproducibility

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 153) If the same thing is measured many times and the measurements are always the same, this means the measurements are:

1. accurate
2. reliable
3. valid
4. variable

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 154) Data is reliable when:

1. it answers the research question
2. it relates to the issue being studied
3. similar values are obtained in repeated measurements of the same group
4. the instrument measurements are precise

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 155) Precise values:

1. are caused by random errors
2. are close to the true value
3. are the same as the true value
4. fall within a narrow range

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 156) What is the formula for calculating diagnostic specificity?

1. False negatives / (false negatives + true positives)
2. False positives / (false positives + true negatives)
3. True negatives / (true negatives + false positives)
4. True positives / (true positives + false negatives)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 157) The quality control chart of an instrument shows ten consecutive data points on one side of the mean. What should you do?

1. Accept the run
2. Reject the run and follow the method's troubleshooting procedures
3. Repeat the control sera on the next run
4. Report the results with a disclaimer that they may be erroneous

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 158) A lab technician performs a control run and finds that five consecutive measurements fall on the same side of the mean. What should the lab technician do?

1. Accept the control run
2. Accept the control run but make a note of the incident in the log file
3. Reject the control run and take corrective action
4. Rerun the control run

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 159) In a run of twenty control samples, a single control value falls two standard deviations outside of the mean. The other control readings are within the normal range and no source of error can be identified. What is the most appropriate action to take?

1. Inform relevant clinicians that past results may be incorrect
2. Prepare a new reagent
3. Replace the equipment
4. Report patient results

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 160) Which of these best defines 'turnaround time'?

1. The duration of a blood cell count
2. The time required for sample preparation
3. The time taken for instrument maintenance
4. The time taken to deliver results to a physician

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 161) Solid crystals of potassium oxalate are added to distilled water in a container. Which term describes the potassium oxalate?

1. Reagent
2. Solute
3. Solution
4. Solvent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 162) What is a delta check?

1. A comparison of a laboratory's results to the results from an outside facility
2. A comparison of current test results to previous results
3. An inspection to ensure all patients are wearing wristbands
4. The verification of a patient's identity using at least three identifiers

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 163) An acid buffer can be made by mixing a:

1. strong acid with a strong base
2. weak acid with a strong base
3. weak acid with a weak base
4. weak acid with its salt

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 164) Which of these actions would increase a laboratory's efficiency?

1. Finding ways to increase the time it takes to perform key tasks
2. Storing frequently used equipment in easy-to-reach places
3. Using an inconsistent labeling system
4. Using paper files instead of digital files

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 165) What is the term for a solution that contains less solute than the maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved?

1. Diluted
2. Saturated
3. Supersaturated
4. Unsaturated

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 166) A hypertonic solution:

1. causes cells to grow
2. contains a higher concentration of solutes compared to another solution
3. contains a lower concentration of solutes compared to another solution
4. contains the same concentration of solutes compared to another solution

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 167) How often should reagent strips be tested with controls?

1. Daily
2. Weekly
3. Monthly
4. Every three months

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 168) A courier delivers a chain-of-custody sample to a technician at a laboratory. Who needs to sign and date the chain-of-custody form?

1. Only the courier
2. Only the laboratory technician
3. The courier and the laboratory technician
4. The laboratory manager and the laboratory technician

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 169) Which of the following is NOT required on a chain of custody form?

1. The name of the patient's doctor
2. The name of the person who collected the specimen
3. The time the specimen was collected
4. The type of specimen collected

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 170) You receive a specimen that should come with a chain of custody form. However, the form is missing. What should you do?

1. Ask for a new specimen to be collected
2. Fill out a new chain of custody form yourself
3. Perform the test anyway
4. Use a chain of custody form from a specimen of a different patient

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 171) Which of these tests requires chain of custody documentation?

1. Complete blood count
2. Fetal fibronectin
3. Free light chains test
4. Legal paternity test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 172) OSHA requires employers to offer what vaccine to workers who have occupational exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials?

1. HAV
2. HBV
3. HIV
4. MMR

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 173) In OSHA's hierarchy of controls, what is the most effective type of hazard control?

1. Administrative controls
2. Elimination
3. Engineering controls
4. Substitution

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 174) OSHA's Hazard Communication standard requires employers to inform workers about the workplace dangers of:

1. bloodborne pathogens
2. dangerous chemicals
3. general safety hazards
4. miscommunication

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 175) Which GHS pictogram is not mandatory?

1. Environment
2. Exclamation mark
3. Flame over circle
4. Gas cylinder

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 176) In OSHA, a(n) __________ person is defined as "one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has the authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them."

1. authorized
2. capable
3. competent
4. qualified

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 177) OSHA action levels are set for what type of hazard?

1. Ergonomic hazards
2. Hazardous substances
3. Psychosocial hazards
4. Slips, trips, and falls

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 178) In OSHA's hierarchy of controls, what is the least effective type of hazard control?

1. Administrative controls
2. Engineering controls
3. Personal protective equipment
4. Substitution

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 179) What is an exempt employee?

1. An employee who does not have to pay income taxes
2. An employee who is not paid for working overtime
3. An employee working on a temporary or seasonal basis
4. An employee working remotely

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 180) Title I, Employment, is part of which civil rights law prohibiting discrimination?

1. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
2. Civil Rights Act
3. Equal Employment Opportunity Act (EEOA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 181) Which federal law, passed in 1972, amended Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 to address employment discrimination against African Americans and other minorities?

1. Employment Non-Discrimination Act (ENDA)
2. Equal Employment Opportunity Act (EEOA)
3. Equal Pay Act
4. Rehabilitation Act

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 182) Which act sets the rules governing exempt and nonexempt employees?

1. Civil Rights Acts
2. Equal Pay Act (EPA)
3. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 183) The Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) allows employees how many weeks of unpaid leave within a 12-month period without jeopardizing their job?

1. 12 weeks
2. 20 weeks
3. 24 weeks
4. 36 weeks

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 184) What federal agency regulates the manufacturing of prescription medications?

1. American Dental Association (ADA)
2. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 185) What federal agency monitors the Occupational Safety and Health Act?

1. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
2. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
4. United States Public Health Service (USPHS)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 186) Which federal agency regulates the transport of hazardous materials?

1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
2. Department Of Transportation (DOT)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 187) Which federal agency is responsible for ensuring that clinical laboratories uphold and enforce CLIA standards?

1. Center for Global Health (CGH)
2. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
3. Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA)
4. Office of Public Health Science (OPHS)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 188) Who enforces HIPAA?

1. The Attorney General
2. The Department of Health and Human Services
3. The Surgeon General
4. The US Senate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 189) Which federal agency regulates in vitro diagnostic (IVD) tests?

1. Federal Laboratory Consortium (FLC)67j 24
2. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
3. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 190) Which federal agency investigates complaints of job discrimination?

1. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOS)
2. Fair Labor Association (FLA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 191) Which federal agency sets the standards and guidelines for Hospital, Medical, and Infectious Waste Incinerators (HMIWI)?

1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
2. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 192) Which federal agency requires employers to provide safety training to their employees?

1. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOH)
2. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
3. United States Department of the Interior (USDI)
4. United States Office of Personnel Management (USOPM)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 193) Which federal agency enforces workplace safety laws?

1. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
2. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
4. Office of Public Health Science (OPHS)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 194) Which federal agency approves the use of new clinical laboratory tests?

1. American Clinical Laboratory Association (ACLA)
2. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 195) Which federal agency requires employers to provide workers with PPE?

1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
2. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
3. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 196) What federal agency categorizes clinical laboratory tests by their complexity?

1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
2. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 197) What federal agency approves disinfectants for use in laboratories?

1. American Medical Association (AMA)
2. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
3. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 198) Which federal agency enforces federal employment discrimination laws, such as the Civil Rights Act and the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?

1. Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA)
2. Employment and Training Administration (ETA)
3. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 199) Which federal agency monitors the proficiency testing performance of clinical laboratories?

1. American Medical Association (AMA)
2. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
3. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Service (CMS)
4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 200) Which law sets the federal minimum wage?

1. Civil Rights Act
2. Equal Pay Act
3. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
4. National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 201) Which federal law prohibits employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, gender, and national origin?

1. Americans with Disabilities Act
2. Civil Rights Act
3. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
4. National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 202) Which law requires laboratories to document the competency of their personnel?

1. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
2. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
3. National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 203) Which federal law requires health care providers to provide a sign language interpreter for deaf patients?

1. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
2. Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)
3. Health Care Right of Conscience Act (HCRCA)
4. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 204) Which act outlines the lawful use and disclosure of protected health information?

1. Digital Accountability and Transparency Act (DATA)
2. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)
3. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
4. Privacy Act

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 205) What act states that workers have the right to know about hazardous conditions in the workplace?

1. The Health Care Consent Act
2. The Human Tissue Act
3. The Occupational Safety and Health Act
4. The SAFETY Act

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 206) The Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act revised which OSHA standard?

1. Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
2. Confined Space Entry Standard
3. Hazardous Communication Standard
4. Personal Protective Equipment Standard

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 207) Which act prevents employers from retaliating against workers for complaining about unsafe working conditions?

1. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
2. Federal Employees' Compensation Act (FCCA)
3. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
4. Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 208) According to the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), which type of sign should be used to indicate a potentially hazardous situation that could result in minor or moderate injury?

1. Caution
2. Danger
3. Notice
4. Warning

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 209) The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals has two signal words for hazardous chemicals: "Danger" and:

1. Attention
2. Caution
3. Notice
4. Warning

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 210) How often does CLIA require routine inspections of non-waived laboratories?

1. Every three months
2. Every six months
3. Every year
4. Every two years

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 211) According to CLIA, who is responsible for the day-to-day supervision of the laboratory operation and the testing personnel?

1. General supervisor
2. Laboratory director
3. Technical supervisor
4. Testing personnel

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 212) Most tests performed in clinical laboratories are:

1. waived
2. moderately complex
3. highly complex
4. microbiology culture tests

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 213) According to CLIA regulations, calibration verification of test systems must be performed at least every:

1. three months
2. six months
3. year
4. two years

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 214) Laboratories are exempt from proficiency testing if they:

1. are CLIA certified
2. have a Certificate of Compliance
3. have fewer than six employees
4. only perform waived tests

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 215) CLIA considers which of these a high-complexity test?

1. Complete blood count
2. Electrolyte profile
3. Microscopic analysis of urine
4. Peripheral smear

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 216) According to CLIA, who is responsible for specimen processing, test performance, and reporting test results?

1. Laboratory director
2. Technical consultant
3. Technical supervisor
4. Testing personnel

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 217) Which CLIA certificate allows laboratories to conduct moderate or high complexity tests before the laboratory is inspected and a final certificate is issued?

1. Accreditation
2. Compliance
3. Registration
4. Waiver

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 218) The process of testing and adjusting an instrument or system to ensure its readings accurately reflect the actual amount of the substance being measured is known as:

1. calibration
2. proficiency testing
3. quality control
4. verification

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 219) CLIA divides laboratory tests by complexity into how many categories?

1. 3
2. 5
3. 6
4. 8

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 220) What is a Certificate of Waiver?

1. A document that allows a facility to perform simple tests
2. A document that allows a laboratory to perform tests without a patient's permission
3. A document that excuses laboratories from following particular FDS guidelines
4. A document that exempts an item of equipment from the RoHS Directive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 221) According to CLIA, who is responsible for ensuring the adequacy of the procedure used for verifying performance specifications in a laboratory?

1. Laboratory technician
2. Medical equipment repairer
3. Technical consultant
4. Test system manufacturer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 222) CLIA refers to moderate and high complexity tests collectively as _____________ tests.

1. cleared
2. licensed
3. nonwaived
4. point-of-care

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 223) Which of these is a CLIA waived test?

1. Complete blood count
2. Fecal occult blood test
3. Immunoassay
4. Peripheral smear

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 224) According to CLIA, who is responsible for the overall operation and administration of the laboratory?

1. Clinical consultant
2. Laboratory director
3. Technical consultant
4. Technical supervisor

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 225) When should laboratories use alternative proficiency assessment?

1. For highly complex tests
2. For tests that have critical values
3. When a traditional proficiency test is not available
4. When the laboratory is not yet CLIA-certified

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 226) CLIA requires laboratory competency assessment programs to assess how many areas of competency?

1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 9

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 227) Dipstick urinalysis falls under which CLIA category of test complexity?

1. High complexity
2. Moderate complexity
3. Provider performed microscopy
4. Waived

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 228) How often does CLIA require laboratories to perform proficiency testing?

1. Every month
2. Every two years
3. Once a year
4. Twice a year

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 229) A patient has the following lipid panel results:

Test	Result
Total cholesterol	160 mg/dL
LDL	100 mg/dL
VLDL	20 mg/dL
HDL	40 mg/dL
Triglycerides	150 mg/dL

Calculate the cholesterol ratio.

1. 0.25
2. 4
3. 50
4. 150

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 230) A patient's cholesterol test results are as follows:

Test	Result
Triglycerides	200 mg/dL
Cholesterol	300 mg/dL
HDL	70 mg/dL

From these results, calculate the patient's LDL.

1. 190 mg/L
2. 200 mg/L
3. 210 mg/L
4. 220 mg/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 231) Which of these chemistry results would fail the CLIA quality requirements for proficiency testing?

1. Blood gas pH: 0.2 above the target value
2. Sodium: 2 mmol/L below the target value
3. Total calcium: 0.5 mg/dL below the target value
4. Total cholesterol: 4% above the target value

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 232) How does Beer's Law calculate absorbance?

1. Concentration × (molar attenuation coefficient / path length)
2. Concentration × (path length / molar attenuation coefficient)
3. Molar attenuation coefficient × (concentration / path length)
4. Molar attenuation coefficient × concentration × path length

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 233) A patient's serum protein results are as follows:

Test	Result
Total protein	6.6.g/dL
Albumin	3.3 g/dL
Alpha₁	0.2 g/dL
Alpha₂	0.7 g/dL
Beta	1.1 g/dL
Gamma	1.3 g/dL

Calculate the patient's A/G ratio.

1. 0.9
2. 1.0
3. 1.1
4. 1.2

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 234) What is the solubility equilibrium formula?

1. Kₛₚ = [A⁺]ᵃ × [B⁻]ᵇ
2. Kₛₚ = [A⁺]ᵇ × [B⁻]ᵃ
3. Kₛₚ = [A⁻]ᵃ × [B⁺]ᵇ
4. Kₛₚ = [A⁻]ᵇ × [B⁺]ᵃ

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 235) A buffer is made by mixing a weak acid or weak base with:

1. a salt solution
2. a strong acid or strong base
3. acetic acid
4. its conjugate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 236) A pH of 5 is how many times more acidic than a pH of 6?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 10
4. 100

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 237) What term describes a substance that minimizes changes in pH?

1. Anhydride
2. Buffer
3. Compound
4. Solvent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 238) What is the term for a solution with a pH value of less than 7?

1. Acidic
2. Alkaline
3. Basic
4. Neutral

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 239) pH is a measurement of which ion?

1. Carbon
2. Hydrogen
3. Nitrogen
4. Oxygen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 240) Which pH is considered neutral?

1. 0
2. 1
3. 3
4. 7

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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