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1) A phlebotomist fails to check patient identifiers before collecting blood samples. What is the most likely consequence?

1. Clotting
2. Hemolysis
3. Increased turnaround time
4. Specimen misidentification

Reveal answer 2) A patient arrives for a blood draw when the phlebotomist realizes she forgot to label the collection tubes from the previous patient, who has already left. What should the phlebotomist do?

1. Discard the tubes and schedule a redraw
2. Label the tubes immediately using the information from requisition form
3. Send the unlabelled tubes to the laboratory with a note of explanation
4. Set the tubes aside and label them later

Reveal answer 3) A phlebotomist accidentally collects a coagulation test in a lavender-top tube instead of a light blue-top tube. What should the phlebotomist do?

1. Add sodium citrate to the red-top tube
2. Pour the blood sample into the correct tube
3. Reject the specimen and recollect it in the correct tube
4. Relabel the lavender-top tube as a light blue-top tube

Reveal answer 4) A technologist notes a clot in an EDTA sample. What is the most appropriate action?

1. Dilute the sample to account for the trapped cells
2. Gently stir the sample to break up the clot
3. Reject the specimen and request a new one
4. Remove the clot with an applicator stick

Reveal answer 5) You are labeling a specimen when a coworker interrupts you to ask a question. What is the best action?

1. Answer your coworker's question first
2. Ask someone else to label the specimen
3. Label the specimen first
4. Redraw the specimen

Reveal answer 6) How much water must be added to 1 liter of 85% v/v alcohol to dilute it to 70%? Assume volumes are additive.

1. 214 mL
2. 528 mL
3. 1,214 mL
4. 1,528 mL

Reveal answer 7) What volume of a 100× stock solution is needed to prepare 500 mL of a 5× solution?

1. 5 mL
2. 10 mL
3. 25 mL
4. 50 mL

Reveal answer 8) What is the formula for calculating a percent w/v solution?

1. (solute mass / solution mass) × 100
2. (solute mass / solution volume) × 100
3. (solution volume / solute mass) × 100
4. (solution volume / solute volume) × 100

Reveal answer 9) What is the formula for calculating a percent w/w solution?

1. (solute mass / solution mass ) × 100
2. (solute mass / solution volume) × 100
3. (solution mass / solute mass) × 100
4. (solution mass / solute volume) × 100

Reveal answer 10) What is the usual way to express solution concentration for a liquid solute dissolved in a liquid solvent?

1. %(m/m)
2. %(m/v)
3. %(v/m)
4. %(v/v)

Reveal answer 11) If 0.5 mL of a sample is added to 10 mL of diluent, what is the dilution factor?

1. 10
2. 11
3. 20
4. 21

Reveal answer 12) What is the salt concentration of a 500 mL solution containing 4.5 g of salt?

1. 0.9 g/L
2. 8 g/L
3. 8.9 g/L
4. 9 g/L

Reveal answer 13) A dilution of 1/10 means what part specimen and what part diluent?

1. 1 part specimen, 9 parts diluent
2. 1 part specimen, 10 parts diluent
3. 1 part specimen, 10.5 parts diluent
4. 1 part specimen, 11 parts diluent

Reveal answer 14) How much concentrate and water are needed to make 500 mL of buffer made from 2 parts concentrate and 6 parts water?

1. 125 mL of concentrate and 375 mL of water
2. 150 mL of concentrate and 350 mL of water
3. 175 mL of concentrate and 325 mL of water
4. 200 mL of concentrate and 300 mL of water

Reveal answer 15) How many grams of sodium chloride are needed to make 200 mL of a 5% m/v sodium chloride solution?

1. 5 g
2. 10 g
3. 15 g
4. 20 g

Reveal answer 16) A 200 mL solution is prepared by diluting 100 mL of ethanol with water. What is the % v/v concentration of the solution?

1. 1%
2. 10%
3. 25%
4. 50%

Reveal answer 17) A technologist is preparing a serial dilution with eight tubes. The first tube contains a 1/2 dilution. The technologist dilutes each following tube to half the concentration of the previous tube. What is the dilution in the eighth tube?

1. 1/128
2. 1/256
3. 1/512
4. 1/1024

Reveal answer 18) What is a molar solution?

1. 1 gram of solute in 1 mL of solution
2. 1 gram of solute in 1 mole of solution
3. 1 mL of solute in 1 mole of solution
4. 1 mole of solute in 1 liter of solution

Reveal answer 19) Assuming volumes are additive, how much solute is needed to prepare 950 mL of a solution made from 7 parts solute and 10 parts solvent?

1. 58 mL
2. 101 mL
3. 391 mL
4. 559 mL

Reveal answer 20) Which of these is the responsibility of a laboratory assistant?

1. Giving results to patients
2. Performing tests that require judgment
3. Preparing chemical solutions
4. Supervising other workers

Reveal answer 21) A coworker asks you about a patient’s biopsy result, but they are not involved in the patient’s care. What should you do?

1. Refer the worker to the patient’s primary physician
2. Refuse to discuss the patient’s information
3. Share the result but omit the patient's name
4. Share the result only if the worker signs a confidentiality report

Reveal answer 22) A technologist notices that an unauthorized staff member has been accessing patient records. What should she do?

1. Contact the patients involved
2. Delete the records immediately
3. Monitor the staff member's activity for a week to gather evidence
4. Report it to a supervisor

Reveal answer 23) A technologist talks about a patient’s biopsy result in the hospital cafeteria. Which professional expectation is not being met?

1. Adaptability
2. Confidentiality
3. Cultural humility
4. Time management

Reveal answer 24) Which of the following should be included in an employee's personnel file?

1. Most recent vacation destination
2. Performance reviews
3. Political affiliation
4. Web addresses of the employee's social media profiles

Reveal answer 25) A technologist calls the ER department and says, "I have a critical hemoglobin of 5 g/dL for John Doe, MRN 12345." If the laboratory has a readback policy, what must the nurse reply?

1. "Please hold while I notify the physician immediately.”
2. "Please read the result back to me."
3. "That is a hemoglobin of 5 g/dL for John Doe, MRN 12345."
4. “Okay, that is a critical hemoglobin for John Doe, MRN 12345.”

Reveal answer 26) A breast biopsy container is labelled "left breast", but the request form says "right breast". What should the laboratory do?

1. Contact the patient to confirm the correct side
2. Contact the surgical department
3. Discard the biopsy and request a new one
4. Process the specimen, but add a note in the file

Reveal answer 27) Your neighbour asks about a friend’s biopsy result because he wants to know if it is serious. What should you do?

1. Call the patient to ask for permission
2. Give only general information
3. Say that you cannot discuss patient information
4. Tell your neighbour whether the result is benign or malignant

Reveal answer 28) A technologist finds a bottle of stain reagent without a label. What should the technologist do?

1. Discard it down the sink
2. Treat it as hazardous
3. Use it if the color looks normal
4. Use it only on non-urgent specimens

Reveal answer 29) A histology specimen is marked STAT, but its label does not match the request form. What should you do?

1. Ask the operating room to resolve the mismatch
2. Change the label to match the request form
3. Change the request form to match the label
4. Process it immediately

Reveal answer 30) A patient’s family member asks a technologist for the patient's biopsy results. What should the technologist do?

1. Ask the family member to sign a Release of Information form
2. Give the result to the family member
3. Refer the family member to the pathologist
4. Refuse to release results without proper authorization

Reveal answer 31) A technologist completes a stool culture but forgets to enter the result into the LIS. What is the main problem?

1. The LIS will delete the record
2. The bacteria will become resistant to antibiotics
3. The healthcare team may not receive the result
4. The result becomes automatically invalid

Reveal answer 32) A technologist discovers that a culture plate was incubated at the wrong temperature overnight. What is the most appropriate action?

1. Ignore it if colonies are visible
2. Inform the supervisor and document the issue
3. Re-incubate the plate at the correct temperature
4. Report all results as preliminary

Reveal answer 33) A technologist notices that a final report was released with an incorrect organism name. What should the technologist do?

1. Correct the report and notify appropriate personnel
2. Delete the incorrect report from the system
3. Do nothing because the report was already released
4. Request a new patient sample and notify the patient

Reveal answer 34) A CSF Gram stain shows gram-negative diplococci. What should the laboratory do?

1. Report as normal flora
2. Report the result as a critical value
3. Request a new sample
4. Wait until full identification before reporting

Reveal answer 35) A patient has the following lipid panel results.

Test	Result
Total cholesterol	160 mg/dL
LDL	100 mg/dL
HDL	40 mg/dL

Calculate the total cholesterol-to-HDL cholesterol ratio.

1. 0.25
2. 4
3. 50
4. 150

Reveal answer 36) A patient's cholesterol results are as follows.

Test	Result
Triglycerides	200 mg/dL
Cholesterol	300 mg/dL
HDL	70 mg/dL

Use the Friedewald equation to calculate the patient's LDL.

1. 190 mg/dL
2. 200 mg/dL
3. 210 mg/dL
4. 220 mg/dL

Reveal answer 37) Which of these chemistry results fails the CLIA quality requirements for proficiency testing?

1. Blood gas pH: 1 above the target value
2. Sodium: 2 mmol/L below the target value
3. Total calcium: 0.5 mg/dL below the target value
4. Total cholesterol: 4% above the target value

Reveal answer 38) The Beer–Lambert Law states that absorbance =

1. concentration × (molar absorptivity / path length)
2. concentration × (path length / molar absorptivity)
3. molar absorptivity × (concentration / path length)
4. molar absorptivity × concentration × path length

Reveal answer 39) A patient's serum protein results are as follows.

Test	Result
Total protein	6.6 g/dL
Albumin	3.3 g/dL
Alpha₁	0.2 g/dL
Alpha₂	0.7 g/dL
Beta	1.1 g/dL
Gamma	1.3 g/dL

Calculate the patient's A/G ratio.

1. 0.9
2. 1.0
3. 1.1
4. 1.2

Reveal answer 40) The hematology analyzer gives a critical hemoglobin result. What is the best action?

1. Notify the appropriate clinical team
2. Request a new specimen
3. Rerun the sample to verify the result
4. Wait for the other tests to be complete

Reveal answer 41) A technician forgot to perform quality control on a hematology analyzer. What is the main concern?

1. Patient results may be inaccurate
2. The analyzer's warranty may be voided
3. The laboratory will lose its accreditation
4. The technician may have accidentally been exposed to a biological agent

Reveal answer 42) What does it mean if a lab value is critical?

1. The patient may have a life-threatening condition
2. The test is malfunctioning and needs to be calibrated
3. The value is needed to calculate other lab results
4. The value must be reported to the doctor within 24 hours

Reveal answer 43) How should proficiency testing samples be tested?

1. Before patient samples
2. By a reference laboratory
3. By a senior technologist
4. The same as regular specimens

Reveal answer 44) A laboratory compares its staining quality with results from other laboratories. This is an example of:

1. competency assessment
2. internal quality control
3. method validation
4. proficiency testing

Reveal answer 45) Which of these situations would cause random errors?

1. Reading liquid volumes from different angles
2. Using a balance that was not zeroed before use
3. Using a scale that always reads 10 g too low
4. Using a thermometer that always reads 2°C too high

Reveal answer 46) What is the term for when readings become consistently lower or higher over time?

1. Calibration
2. Drift
3. Offset error
4. Unpredictability

Reveal answer 47) While counting the number of colonies on an agar plate, a lab technician accidentally counts the same colony twice. What type of error is this?

1. Environmental
2. Instrumental
3. Observational
4. Theoretical

Reveal answer 48) Which of these is a pre-analytical error?

1. Calculating test results incorrectly
2. Interpreting results incorrectly
3. Mislabeling a blood specimen
4. Reporting a result on the wrong patient

Reveal answer 49) Which of these is a zero error?

1. A blood sample missing a label
2. A lab technician forgetting a zero when performing a calculation
3. A thermometer registering 102°C in boiling water instead of 100°C
4. Scales that give a reading of 1.1 g when nothing is placed on them

Reveal answer 50) Which of these is a post-analytical error?

1. A hemolyzed specimen
2. An empty collection tube
3. Incorrect information on the test request
4. Results reported in the wrong units

Reveal answer 51) Which of these is an example of a systematic error?

1. A specimen tube is mislabeled
2. Splashover contaminates a gel card well
3. The incubator temperature is consistently too hot
4. The technician makes a typo when entering a result into the LIS

Reveal answer 52) Random error mainly affects:

1. accuracy
2. external validity
3. internal validity
4. precision

Reveal answer 53) A technologist notices that anti-D control reactions have gradually weakened over several days. What kind of error is this?

1. Clerical
2. Post-analytical
3. Random
4. Systematic

Reveal answer 54) What is the term for a solution with a precisely known concentration?

1. Benchmark
2. Control
3. Model
4. Standard

Reveal answer 55) Checking and adjusting a measuring instrument against a known standard is called:

1. calibration
2. estimation
3. graduation
4. mensuration

Reveal answer 56) What are quality indicators?

1. Measures used to monitor performance
2. Physical strips that change color to reveal a chemical state
3. Reference samples used to verify the accuracy of tests
4. Tools used to adjust the accuracy of equipment

Reveal answer 57) Which of the following is a quality assurance indicator?

1. C-reactive protein test
2. Fume hoods
3. Laboratory turnaround time
4. Thorough records of exposure incidents

Reveal answer 58) A technologist performs corrective maintenance on an automated analyzer. What should the technologist do before resuming patient testing?

1. Decontaminate the interior with bleach
2. Re-run the last five patient samples
3. Run proficiency testing
4. Run quality control

Reveal answer 59) Why are controls tested with patient specimens?

1. To calculate the concentration of the patient's analyte
2. To calibrate the instrument
3. To ensure the testing process is working properly
4. To establish the patient’s reference range

Reveal answer 60) The result of a blind duplicate should:

1. closely agree with the original result
2. fall below the detection limit of the instrument
3. fall within the reference interval for the test
4. match the result of the positive control

Reveal answer 61) A substance with a known value that is used to ensure the validity and accuracy of test results is called a:

1. control
2. reagent
3. reference
4. sample

Reveal answer 62) What is the difference between a standard and a control?

1. Standards are prepared by the laboratory, while controls are provided by the manufacturer
2. Standards are used for calibration, while controls check that the test is working correctly
3. Standards have unknown concentrations, while controls have known concentrations
4. Standards measure test precision, while controls measure test accuracy

Reveal answer 63) Where would you find the instructions for running quality controls for a specific assay?

1. Laboratory quality manual
2. Safety data sheet
3. Safety manual
4. Standard operating procedure

Reveal answer 64) Below is a blood bank control chart for anti-D reagent QC:

Day	Reaction strength
1	4+
2	4+
3	4+
4	2+
5	2+
6	2+

What is the name for this pattern?

1. Dispersion
2. Random error
3. Shift
4. Trend

Reveal answer 65) What kind of chart is a graphical presentation of run-to-run or day-to-day quality control values?

1. Eadie-Hofstee
2. Hanes-Woolf
3. Levey-Jennings
4. Lineweaver-Burk

Reveal answer 66) What is a commercial control?

1. A calibration standard made in the laboratory
2. A control prepared from pooled patient specimens
3. A control purchased from a manufacturer
4. A control used solely for marketing demonstrations

Reveal answer 67) What is the purpose of a blind duplicate?

1. To determine the detection limit
2. To establish a reference range
3. To evaluate consistency between results
4. To identify matrix interferences

Reveal answer 68) Which federal agency provides calibration services for thermometers?

1. American Association for Clinical Chemistry (AACC)
2. American Clinical Laboratory Association (ACLA)
3. Department of Energy (DOE)
4. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)

Reveal answer 69) The systematic monitoring and evaluation of the entire laboratory testing process is an aspect of:

1. corporate compliance
2. critical thinking
3. quality assurance
4. risk management

Reveal answer 70) Which term means the extent to which measurements agree with the true value?

1. Accuracy
2. Precision
3. Reliability
4. Reproducibility

Reveal answer 71) If the same test is repeated several times and always gives the same result, the test is:

1. accurate
2. reliable
3. valid
4. variable

Reveal answer 72) When is data considered reliable?

1. When the instruments provide precise measurements
2. When it is close to the true value
3. When it is statistically significant
4. When repeated measurements yield similar results

Reveal answer 73) Precise values:

1. are caused by random errors
2. are close to the true value
3. are the same as the true value
4. fall within a narrow range

Reveal answer 74) How is diagnostic sensitivity calculated?

1. False negatives / (false negatives + true positives)
2. False positives / (false positives + true negatives)
3. True negatives / (true negatives + false positives)
4. True positives / (true positives + false negatives)

Reveal answer 75) What is the purpose of calibrating equipment?

1. To ensure accurate and reliable measurements
2. To ensure employees understand how to use equipment
3. To prevent laboratory-acquired infections
4. To protect workers from harm

Reveal answer 76) What should a laboratory do if it receives proficiency testing samples from another laboratory for testing?

1. Forward the samples to an outside laboratory
2. Notify the inspecting authority
3. Test the samples immediately
4. Test the samples the same way you test patient specimens

Reveal answer 77) Which of these best meets the definition of proficiency testing?

1. Inspections to prevent work-related accidents
2. Testing for illegal drugs in a biological sample
3. Tests to ensure workers have the skills and knowledge to perform their jobs
4. The testing of unknown samples sent to the laboratory

Reveal answer 78) A proficiency testing sample arrives during a busy shift. What should the technologist do with the specimen?

1. Give it to the most experienced technologist
2. Process it the same way as patient specimens
3. Test it first, before other specimens
4. Test it last, after all other work is complete

Reveal answer 79) What is the purpose of external quality assessment?

1. To calibrate new laboratory instruments
2. To evaluate a laboratory's performance
3. To replace the need for daily controls
4. To track the expiration dates of reagents

Reveal answer 80) What is the purpose of proficiency testing?

1. To evaluate a laboratory's testing accuracy
2. To monitor the rate of equipment malfunctions
3. To track the inventory levels of laboratory reagents
4. To train new employees on laboratory techniques

Reveal answer 81) The quality control chart of an instrument shows ten consecutive data points on one side of the mean. What should you do?

1. Accept the run
2. Reject the run and follow the method's troubleshooting procedures
3. Repeat the control sera on the next run
4. Report the results with a disclaimer that they may be erroneous

Reveal answer 82) In a control run, five consecutive measurements fall between the mean and +1 SD. What should the lab technician do?

1. Accept the control run
2. Accept the control run, but make a note of the incident in the log file
3. Reject the control run and take corrective action
4. Rerun the control run

Reveal answer 83) In a run of twenty control samples, a single control value falls between 2 and 3 standard deviations from the mean. The other control readings are within the normal range, and no source of error can be identified. What is the most appropriate action to take?

1. Inform the clinician that results are likely to be incorrect
2. Prepare a new reagent
3. Replace the equipment
4. Report patient results

Reveal answer 84) A laboratory accidentally releases a report with an incorrect blood group result. What should the laboratory do?

1. Amend the report and notify the clinical staff
2. Delete the original report and issue a new report
3. Request a new sample and issue a new report
4. Retest the original sample and issue a new report

Reveal answer 85) During pretransfusion testing, the patient's ABO blood group does not match the historical record. What is the most appropriate action?

1. Change the historical record to match the new result
2. Report the current ABO result as the patient's blood group
3. Report the historical ABO result as the patient's blood group
4. Resolve the discrepancy

Reveal answer 86) A laboratory switches from using a highly toxic chemical to a less toxic alternative. Which safety principle has the laboratory applied?

1. Administrative controls
2. Elimination
3. Engineering controls
4. Substitution

Reveal answer 87) An AHG reagent fails daily QC, so the technologist opens a new vial, which passes QC. However, the technologist only documents the passed QC, not the failed QC. Why is this a problem?

1. All results will be legally invalid
2. The new vial is now contaminated
3. The test is now inaccurate
4. There is no record of the failure

Reveal answer 88) Below is a blood bank control chart for anti-D reagent QC:

Day	Reaction strength
1	4+
2	4+
3	2+
4	4+
5	4+
6	4+

What does this pattern most likely suggest?

1. Random error
2. Shift
3. Systematic error
4. Trend

Reveal answer 89) Which action could constitute battery?

1. Disclosing a patient's health information without consent
2. Holding down a patient to draw their blood against their will
3. Refusing to draw blood from a patient who arrives late to the appointment
4. Spreading malicious rumours about a colleague

Reveal answer 90) A patient forgets to collect one urine sample during a 24-hour urine collection. What should usually happen?

1. Add extra urine
2. Estimate the volume of the missed sample
3. Restart the 24-hour collection
4. Submit the container and write “one sample missed” on the requisition

Reveal answer 91) A courier delivers a chain of custody sample to a technician at a laboratory. Who needs to sign and date the chain of custody form?

1. Only the courier
2. Only the laboratory technician
3. The courier and the laboratory technician
4. The laboratory manager and the laboratory technician

Reveal answer 92) Which of the following is NOT required on a chain of custody form?

1. The name of the patient's doctor
2. The name of the person who collected the specimen
3. The time the specimen was collected
4. The type of specimen collected

Reveal answer 93) What should the laboratory do if a chain-of-custody form is missing?

1. Ask the courier to complete a new form
2. Fill out a new form yourself
3. Reject the specimen
4. Test the specimen, but add a comment

Reveal answer 94) Which problem with a chain-of-custody form would automatically result in rejection of the specimen?

1. The courier's name is missing
2. The specimen ID does not match the ID on the form
3. The specimen temperature box is unticked
4. There is a digit error in the patient's ID number

Reveal answer 95) Which of these tests requires chain of custody documentation?

1. Complete blood count
2. Fetal fibronectin
3. Free light chains test
4. Legal paternity test

Reveal answer 96) A urine specimen for a drug screen arrives in the laboratory. However, the seal of the specimen bottle is broken. What should you do?

1. Ask the courier to reseal the bottle
2. Reject the specimen
3. Test the specimen, but add a comment
4. Transfer the urine to a new, sterile container

Reveal answer 97) A blood sample is unlabeled, but a nurse states that she knows which patient it belongs to. What is the best action?

1. Label it using the nurse’s information
2. Let the nurse label it herself
3. Reject it and request a new sample
4. Test it, but with a comment about the missing label

Reveal answer 98) A blood sample arrives at the laboratory, but the name on the tube does not match the requisition. What should the laboratory do?

1. Accept the sample, but write a note in the LIS
2. Ask the phlebotomist to correct the label
3. Correct the label
4. Request a new sample

Reveal answer 99) Which of these is a reason for rejecting a CBC specimen?

1. The patient was fasting
2. The specimen is at room temperature
3. The specimen is clotted
4. The specimen was collected in a lavender tube

Reveal answer 100) A glucose specimen was left unprocessed at room temperature and discovered 3 hours later. What is the best action?

1. Add a glycolysis inhibitor and run the sample
2. Centrifuge the specimen and run the sample
3. Request a new sample
4. Shake the tube and run the sample

Reveal answer 101) A laboratory fails to notify the doctor of a critical result. What type of error is this?

1. Analytical
2. Post-analytical
3. Pre-analytical
4. Quality control failure

Reveal answer 102) Which of these is required when documenting a critical result communication?

1. The name of the laboratory director
2. The patient's date of birth
3. The patient’s room number
4. The person notified

Reveal answer 103) A technologist notices that a critical result was entered into the LIS but not phoned, even though the SOP requires phone notification. What should the technologist do?

1. Delete the result
2. Document that the result is in the LIS
3. Nothing, because the result is already in the computer
4. Phone the result and document the notification

Reveal answer 104) A lab technologist amends a report after an error is found. What should the technologist document?

1. Only the corrected result
2. The correction, department, laboratory telephone number, and person who made the change
3. The correction, patient's ID number, and technologist's initials
4. The correction, reason for amendment, date, time, and person who made the change

Reveal answer 105) A laboratory audit reveals frequent delays in critical result reporting. Which intervention would most effectively solve this problem?

1. Eliminating verbal communication
2. Implementing escalation protocols
3. Increasing documentation requirements
4. Retraining staff on sample collection techniques

Reveal answer 106) A laboratory issues blood for transfusion, but then discovers a mistake in the blood typing results. What should the laboratory do first?

1. Contact the clinical area
2. Delete the issue record and create a new record
3. Repeat testing on the original sample
4. Request a new sample

Reveal answer 107) A technologist accidentally enters a susceptibility result under the wrong patient record. What is the most important concern?

1. The laboratory’s turnaround time will increase
2. The microorganisms could die before susceptibility testing occurs
3. The report may be delayed
4. The wrong patient may receive inappropriate treatment

Reveal answer 108) You phone a frozen section diagnosis to the operating room. What is the most important action before ending the call?

1. Ask the receiver to read back the result
2. Confirm the patient's preferred pronouns
3. Document the call in the laboratory information system
4. Politely thank the receiver

Reveal answer 109) According to OSHA, which vaccine must be offered to employees at risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens?

1. HIV
2. Hepatitis A
3. Hepatitis B
4. MMR

Reveal answer 110) What is the most effective type of hazard control in the ISO 45001 Hierarchy of Controls?

1. Administrative controls
2. Elimination
3. Engineering controls
4. Substitution

Reveal answer 111) Which danger must employers inform workers about under OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard?

1. Bloodborne pathogens
2. Dangerous chemicals
3. General safety hazards
4. Miscommunication

Reveal answer 112) Which GHS pictogram is not mandatory under OSHA?

1. Environment
2. Exclamation mark
3. Flame over circle
4. Gas cylinder

Reveal answer 113) In OSHA, a(n) __________ person is defined as "one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has the authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them."

1. authorized
2. capable
3. competent
4. qualified

Reveal answer 114) What type of hazard are OSHA action levels for?

1. Chemicals and noise
2. Ergonomic hazards
3. Psychosocial hazards
4. Slips, trips, and falls

Reveal answer 115) What is the least effective type of hazard control in the ISO 45001 Hierarchy of Controls?

1. Administrative controls
2. Engineering controls
3. Personal protective equipment
4. Substitution

Reveal answer 116) What is an exempt employee?

1. An employee who does not have to pay income taxes
2. An employee who is exempt from overtime rules
3. An employee working on a temporary or seasonal basis
4. An employee working remotely

Reveal answer 117) Title I, Employment, is part of which civil rights law prohibiting discrimination?

1. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
2. Civil Rights Act
3. Equal Employment Opportunity Act (EEOA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Reveal answer 118) Which federal law, passed in 1972, amended Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 to strengthen protections against employment discrimination?

1. Employment Non-Discrimination Act (ENDA)
2. Equal Employment Opportunity Act (EEOA)
3. Equal Pay Act
4. Rehabilitation Act

Reveal answer 119) Which act regulates whether employees are exempt or nonexempt?

1. Civil Rights Acts
2. Equal Pay Act (EPA)
3. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)

Reveal answer 120) How many weeks of unpaid leave does the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) allow employees within a 12-month period without jeopardizing their job?

1. 12 weeks
2. 20 weeks
3. 24 weeks
4. 36 weeks

Reveal answer 121) What legal term describes a person who is not of sound mind and is considered legally incapable of responsibility for their actions?

1. Corpus juris
2. Habeas corpus
3. Non compos mentis
4. Res ipsa loquitur

Reveal answer 122) Which legal term means the degree of care a prudent, reasonable healthcare provider would exercise in a given situation?

1. Customary care
2. Optimal care
3. Scope of practice
4. Standard of care

Reveal answer 123) What could a physician be held liable for if he fails to inform the patient of the risks and benefits of a procedure?

1. Assault
2. Battery
3. Fraud
4. Negligence

Reveal answer 124) What federal agency regulates the manufacturing of prescription medications?

1. American Dental Association (ADA)
2. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Reveal answer 125) What federal agency administers and enforces the Occupational Safety and Health Act?

1. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
2. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
4. United States Public Health Service (USPHS)

Reveal answer 126) Which federal agency regulates the transport of hazardous materials?

1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
2. Department of Transportation (DOT)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)

Reveal answer 127) Which federal agency regulates clinical laboratories through the CLIA program?

1. Center for Global Health (CGH)
2. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
3. Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA)
4. Office of Public Health Science (OPHS)

Reveal answer 128) Which agency enforces the HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules?

1. The Attorney General
2. The Office for Civil Rights
3. The Surgeon General
4. The US Senate

Reveal answer 129) Which agency provides procedures and reagents for rapidly detecting biothreats and emerging infectious diseases?

1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
2. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
3. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Reveal answer 130) Which federal agency regulates in vitro diagnostic tests?

1. Federal Laboratory Consortium (FLC)
2. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
3. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Reveal answer 131) Which federal agency investigates complaints of job discrimination?

1. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
2. Fair Labor Association (FLA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Reveal answer 132) Which federal agency sets the standards and guidelines for Hospital, Medical, and Infectious Waste Incinerators (HMIWI)?

1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
2. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Reveal answer 133) Which federal agency requires employers to provide safety training to their employees?

1. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
2. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
3. United States Department of the Interior (USDI)
4. United States Office of Personnel Management (USOPM)

Reveal answer 134) Which federal agency enforces workplace safety laws?

1. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
2. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
4. Office of Public Health Science (OPHS)

Reveal answer 135) Which federal agency regulates commercially marketed in vitro diagnostic tests?

1. American Clinical Laboratory Association (ACLA)
2. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Reveal answer 136) Which federal agency requires employers to provide workers with PPE?

1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
2. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
3. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Reveal answer 137) What federal agency categorizes clinical laboratory tests by their complexity?

1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
2. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Reveal answer 138) What federal agency regulates general-purpose surface disinfectants?

1. American Medical Association (AMA)
2. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
3. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Reveal answer 139) Which federal agency enforces federal employment discrimination laws, such as the Civil Rights Act and the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?

1. Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA)
2. Employment and Training Administration (ETA)
3. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Reveal answer 140) Which federal agency regulates laboratory testing performed on humans?

1. American Medical Association (AMA)
2. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
3. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Reveal answer 141) Which law sets the federal minimum wage?

1. Civil Rights Act
2. Equal Pay Act
3. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
4. National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)

Reveal answer 142) Which federal law prohibits employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, and national origin?

1. Americans with Disabilities Act
2. Civil Rights Act
3. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
4. National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)

Reveal answer 143) Which law requires laboratories to document the competency of their personnel?

1. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
2. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
3. National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)

Reveal answer 144) Which law requires healthcare providers to ensure effective communication with deaf patients, such as providing a qualified interpreter?

1. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
2. Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)
3. Health Care Right of Conscience Act (HCRCA)
4. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

Reveal answer 145) Which act outlines the lawful use and disclosure of protected health information?

1. Digital Accountability and Transparency Act (DATA)
2. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)
3. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
4. Privacy Act

Reveal answer 146) Which act gives workers the right to know about hazards in the workplace?

1. Health Care Consent Act (HCCA)
2. Occupational Safety and Health Act
3. Privacy Act
4. SAFETY Act

Reveal answer 147) Which law requires safeguards when sending health information by email?

1. CAN-SPAM Act
2. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
3. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
4. Privacy Act

Reveal answer 148) Which OSHA standard did the Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act amend?

1. Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
2. Confined Space Entry Standard
3. Hazard Communication Standard
4. Personal Protective Equipment Standard

Reveal answer 149) Which act prevents employers from retaliating against workers for complaining about unsafe working conditions?

1. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
2. Federal Employees' Compensation Act (FECA)
3. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
4. Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA)

Reveal answer 150) Under the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) standards, which safety sign indicates a potential hazard that may result in minor or moderate injury?

1. Caution
2. Danger
3. Notice
4. Warning

Reveal answer 151) The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals has two signal words for hazardous chemicals: "Danger" and:

1. Attention
2. Caution
3. Notice
4. Warning

Reveal answer 152) How often does CLIA require routine inspections of non-waived laboratories?

1. Every three months
2. Every six months
3. Every year
4. Every two years

Reveal answer 153) According to CLIA, who is responsible for the day-to-day supervision of the laboratory operation and its personnel?

1. General supervisor
2. Laboratory director
3. Technical supervisor
4. Testing personnel

Reveal answer 154) How often does CLIA require calibration verification of test systems?

1. Every three months
2. Every six months
3. Every year
4. Every two years

Reveal answer 155) When are laboratories exempt from proficiency testing?

1. When they are CLIA certified
2. When they have a Certificate of Compliance
3. When they have six or fewer employees
4. When they only perform waived tests

Reveal answer 156) Under CLIA regulations, which of these is a high-complexity test?

1. Complete blood count
2. Drugs of abuse testing
3. Electrolyte profile
4. Examination of a blood smear

Reveal answer 157) According to CLIA, who is responsible for specimen processing, test performance, and reporting test results?

1. Laboratory director
2. Technical consultant
3. Technical supervisor
4. Testing personnel

Reveal answer 158) Which CLIA certificate allows laboratories to conduct moderate or high complexity tests before the laboratory is inspected and a final certificate is issued?

1. Accreditation
2. Compliance
3. Registration
4. Waiver

Reveal answer 159) Under CLIA regulations, how many categories of lab test complexity are there?

1. 3
2. 5
3. 6
4. 8

Reveal answer 160) What does a Certificate of Waiver allow a facility to do?

1. Conduct tests without patient consent
2. Perform simple, low-risk laboratory tests
3. Store controlled substances without a DEA license
4. Use RoHS-exempt equipment

Reveal answer 161) According to CLIA, who is responsible for the technical and scientific oversight of the laboratory?

1. Laboratory technician
2. Medical equipment repairer
3. Technical consultant
4. Test system manufacturer

Reveal answer 162) CLIA refers to moderate and high complexity tests collectively as _____________ tests.

1. cleared
2. licensed
3. nonwaived
4. point-of-care

Reveal answer 163) Which of these tests is most likely to be CLIA-waived?

1. Complete blood count
2. Immunoassay
3. Peripheral smear
4. Urine hCG test

Reveal answer 164) According to CLIA, who is responsible for the overall operation and administration of the laboratory?

1. Clinical consultant
2. Laboratory director
3. Technical consultant
4. Technical supervisor

Reveal answer 165) When should laboratories use alternative assessment?

1. For highly complex tests
2. For tests that have critical values
3. When a traditional proficiency test is not available
4. When the laboratory is not yet CLIA-certified

Reveal answer 166) According to CLIA, how many areas of competency must be included in a laboratory competency assessment program?

1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 9

Reveal answer 167) Which CLIA category of test complexity does dipstick urinalysis fall under?

1. High complexity
2. Moderate complexity
3. Provider performed microscopy
4. Waived

Reveal answer 168) What is mixed with a weak acid or a weak base to create a buffer?

1. A salt solution
2. A strong acid or strong base
3. Acetic acid
4. The conjugate salt

Reveal answer 169) How many times more acidic is pH 5 than pH 6?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 10
4. 100

Reveal answer 170) Which term describes a substance that minimizes changes in pH?

1. Anhydride
2. Buffer
3. Compound
4. Solvent

Reveal answer 171) What is the term for a solution with a pH value of less than 7?

1. Acidic
2. Alkaline
3. Basic
4. Neutral

Reveal answer 172) Which ion does pH measure?

1. Carbon
2. Hydrogen
3. Nitrogen
4. Oxygen

Reveal answer 173) Which pH is neutral?

1. 0
2. 1
3. 3
4. 7

Reveal answer 174) For data distributed normally, what percentage of values fall within one standard deviation of the mean?

1. 50%
2. 68%
3. 83%
4. 95%

Reveal answer 175) In a normal distribution, what percentage of cases are above the mean?

1. 50%
2. 68%
3. 75%
4. 100%

Reveal answer 176) The following data were calculated on a series of 100 determinations of a control.

Mean	5.8
Median	6.0
Standard deviation	0.25

If control limits are set at ±2 standard deviations, what are the allowable limits for the control?

1. 5.30–6.30
2. 5.35–6.25
3. 5.50–5.90
4. 5.60–5.90

Reveal answer 177) For data distributed normally, what percentage of values fall within two standard deviations of the mean?

1. 50%
2. 68%
3. 83%
4. 95%

Reveal answer 178) If a data set has a mean of 7.2 and a standard deviation of 1.2, what range of values falls within two standard deviations of the mean?

1. 4.8–9.6
2. 6.0–8.4
3. 7.2–9.6
4. 8.6–10.2

Reveal answer 179) For data distributed normally, what percentage of values fall within three standard deviations of the mean?

1. 68%
2. 83%
3. 95%
4. 99.7%

Reveal answer 180) Assuming values are normally distributed, what range should encompass 95% of observed values if a control has a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 1?

1. 1–9
2. 2–8
3. 3–7
4. 4–6

Reveal answer 181) Which formula calculates the coefficient of variation?

1. (Mean / standard deviation) × 100
2. (Standard deviation / mean) × 100
3. (Standard deviation / variance) × 100
4. (Variance / mean) × 100

Reveal answer 182) Automated white blood cell counts are performed on 29 blood samples. The mean value is 8.0 cells/nL, and the standard deviation is 1.2 cells/nL. What is the coefficient of variation?

1. 15%
2. 30%
3. 45%
4. 60%

Reveal answer 183) If the mean is 20 and two standard deviations is 8, what is the coefficient of variation?

1. 0.2%
2. 4%
3. 20%
4. 40%

Reveal answer 184) Ten patients have the following bilirubin results: 3.1, 3.2, 3.8, 4.1, 4.7, 5.1, 5.9, 6.0, 6.2, 6.9. Calculate the mean of these results.

1. 4.5
2. 4.7
3. 4.9
4. 5.1

Reveal answer 185) What is the term for the middle value in a sorted data set?

1. Average
2. Coefficient of variation
3. Mean
4. Median

Reveal answer 186) What is the term for the value that appears most often in a set of data values?

1. Average
2. Coefficient of variation
3. Mean
4. Mode

Reveal answer 187) Where should bulk quantities of acetone be kept?

1. Biological safety cabinet
2. Flammable storage cabinet
3. Freezer
4. Refrigerator

Reveal answer 188) How is diethyl ether stored?

1. In airtight containers
2. In the light
3. In the refrigerator
4. Underwater

Reveal answer 189) Where should stock ethanol solutions be stored?

1. Flammable safety cabinet
2. Freezer
3. Fume hood
4. Refrigerator

Reveal answer 190) Under OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard, which of the following information is mandatory on hazardous chemical labels?

1. Environmental pictogram
2. Expiration date
3. Personal protective equipment (PPE) pictogram
4. Phone number of the manufacturer or importer

Reveal answer 191) If a chemical has a hazard that warrants a “Danger” signal word and another hazard that warrants the “Warning” signal word, then what signal word should appear on the label?

1. "Fatal"
2. Both "Warning" and "Danger"
3. Only the “Danger” signal word
4. Only the “Warning” signal word

Reveal answer 192) A small acetone spill occurs on the bench near a lit Bunsen burner. What should be the first action?

1. Clean up the spill
2. Move everyone to fresh air
3. Turn off the flame
4. Wash eyes with water

Reveal answer 193) Which of these substances would be the best solution to clean up a large blood spill?

1. 1:10 dilution of bleach
2. 70% isopropyl alcohol
3. Antibacterial soap and water
4. Povidone-iodine

Reveal answer 194) Which concentration of bleach solution is used to decontaminate benchtops?

1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 30%
4. 50%

Reveal answer 195) What does cold sterilization use to sterilize medical instruments?

1. Chemicals
2. Cold air
3. Ice
4. Liquid nitrogen

Reveal answer 196) What is the first step when cleaning up a blood spill?

1. Pour disinfectant onto the spill
2. Put on PPE
3. Record the incident in the incident book
4. Wash your hands

Reveal answer 197) Which of these ethyl alcohol dilutions is the most effective disinfectant?

1. 10% ethyl alcohol
2. 40% ethyl alcohol
3. 70% ethyl alcohol
4. 100% ethyl alcohol

Reveal answer 198) Which chemical is used to decontaminate equipment exposed to prions?

1. Alcohol
2. Formaldehyde
3. Hydrogen peroxide
4. Sodium hydroxide

Reveal answer 199) Which cleaning product releases a toxic gas when used to clean urine spills?

1. Chlorine bleach
2. Hydrogen peroxide
3. Isopropyl alcohol
4. Povidone-iodine

Reveal answer 200) Which chemical is best for neutralizing weak acid spills?

1. Acetic acid
2. Boric acid
3. Sodium bicarbonate
4. Sodium hydroxide

Reveal answer 201) Mercury spills are most dangerous when the spill occurs:

1. in a fume hood
2. in a poorly ventilated area
3. near sources of ignition
4. near the flammable storage cabinet

Reveal answer 202) Which of these is used for cleaning minor liquid radioactive spills?

1. Bleach
2. Lead sheet
3. Paper towels
4. Soda ash

Reveal answer 203) What pressure and temperature are commonly used for steam sterilization in an autoclave?

1. 12 psi at 115°C
2. 12 psi at 120°C
3. 15 psi at 112°C
4. 15 psi at 121°C

Reveal answer 204) Which type of glass is autoclavable?

1. Borosilicate
2. Float
3. Lead
4. Soda-lime

Reveal answer 205) Which process kills all microorganisms, including spores?

1. Cleaning
2. Disinfection
3. Sanitization
4. Sterilization

Reveal answer 206) Why should a dry-heat sterilizer remain closed throughout the sterilization cycle?

1. To avoid damaging the oven
2. To ensure complete sterilization
3. To prevent moisture from entering the chamber
4. To prevent oxygen from entering the chamber

Reveal answer 207) Which of these is a Standard Precaution?

1. Fire extinguisher
2. Hand hygiene
3. Keeping chemical containers closed
4. Radiation shielding

Reveal answer 208) What is the meaning of a 4 in the yellow quadrant of an NFPA hazard diamond?

1. The substance is highly radioactive
2. The substance is extremely contagious
3. The substance readily burns at normal temperatures
4. The substance readily explodes

Reveal answer 209) Which color on the NFPA hazard diamond signals the degree of hazards to health?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. White
4. Yellow

Reveal answer 210) What is the meaning of a 1 in the red quadrant on the NFPA hazard diamond?

1. The substance does not burn
2. The substance only ignites after considerable preheating
3. The substance ignites if moderately heated
4. The substance can be ignited at normal temperatures

Reveal answer 211) On the NFPA hazard diamond below, what do the letters SA mean?

1. Can shock or cause acid damage
2. Safety assessed
3. Simple asphyxiant
4. Substance abuse

Reveal answer 212) What does a number 2 in the blue quadrant of an NFPA hazard diamond indicate?

1. Continued exposure to the substance could cause temporary incapacitation or injury
2. The substance can be ignited at normal temperatures
3. The substance is unreactive with water
4. The substance reacts with water in an unusual or dangerous way

Reveal answer 213) In the NFPA hazard diamond, which quadrant is for special hazards?

1. Blue
2. Red
3. White
4. Yellow

Reveal answer 214) Which prefix means 10⁻⁶?

1. Centi-
2. Kilo-
3. Micro-
4. Nano-

Reveal answer 215) What does the prefix kilo- mean?

1. 10
2. 100
3. 1,000
4. 10,000

Reveal answer 216) What does the prefix nano- mean?

1. 1 hundredth
2. 1 thousandth
3. 1 millionth
4. 1 billionth

Reveal answer 217) What does the symbol μ represent in SI units?

1. 10⁹
2. 10⁻³
3. 10⁻⁶
4. 10⁻⁹

Reveal answer 218) What are cubic decimeters more commonly known as?

1. Grams
2. Liters
3. Meters cubed
4. Moles

Reveal answer 219) Which prefix means 0.001?

1. Micro-
2. Centi-
3. Pico-
4. Milli-

Reveal answer 220) What is 0.05 mL in microliters?

1. 0.0005 μL
2. 0.005 μL
3. 5 μL
4. 50 μL

Reveal answer 221) What is the following graph shape?

1. Normal distribution
2. Polynomial function
3. Quadratic chart
4. Reciprocal graph

Reveal answer 222) Which federal agency regulates the disposal of hazardous waste produced by laboratories?

1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
2. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
3. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Reveal answer 223) Which act regulates hazardous waste disposal?

1. Clean Water Act (CWA)
2. National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
3. Pollution Prevention Act (PPA)
4. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

Reveal answer 224) Which of these is regulated waste?

1. Empty medicine bottles
2. Gauze packaging
3. Sterile dressings
4. Used blood tubes

Reveal answer 225) Where should you discard used needles?

1. Biohazard sharps container
2. Glass disposal bucket
3. Glass recycling bin
4. Regular garbage

Reveal answer 226) What is an upper flammability limit?

1. The amount of fuel that will burn before the fuel burns itself out
2. The highest concentration of a vapor that can catch fire
3. The highest temperature at which a liquid can be stored safely
4. The highest temperature that a chemical can reach when ignited

Reveal answer 227) Under OSHA regulations, a flammable liquid has a flash point at or below which temperature?

1. 37.8°C
2. 67.3°C
3. 93°C
4. 100°C

Reveal answer 228) Refer to the image below. Which of these fires can this fire extinguisher extinguish?

1. Cardboard boxes
2. Electrical equipment
3. Methanol
4. Oil bath

Reveal answer 229) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol. This fire extinguisher:

1. can be used on fires involving flammable liquids or gases
2. requires annual top-ups of type B fuel
3. should be stored in a separate room from flammable chemicals
4. uses kerosene to extinguish fires

Reveal answer 230) What are the three components of the fire triangle?

1. Oxygen, heat, and fuel
2. Oxygen, ignition, and fuel
3. Rescue, Alarm, Escape
4. Rescue, Alarm, Extinguish

Reveal answer 231) What does the acronym RACE mean in the context of fire procedures?

1. Ready, Aim, Check, Extinguish
2. Recover, Act, Control, Extinguish/Evacuate
3. Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate
4. Run, Activate, Coordinate, Extinguish/Evacuate

Reveal answer 232) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: This fire extinguisher:

1. can extinguish electrical fires
2. cannot be used on electrical equipment
3. carries a risk of electric shock
4. requires charging before use

Reveal answer 233) Which of these chemicals is flammable?

1. Acetone
2. Carbon tetrachloride
3. Chloroform
4. Saline

Reveal answer 234) Where should paraformaldehyde solutions be prepared?

1. In a biological safety cabinet
2. In a chemical fume hood
3. In the sink
4. Under a laminar flow clean bench

Reveal answer 235) A 500 mL bottle of 35% formaldehyde falls on the floor and breaks. What should be your first action?

1. Dilute the spill with water
2. Evacuate the area
3. Put on PPE
4. Record the incident in the incident log

Reveal answer 236) At low concentrations, what does hydrogen sulfide smell like?

1. Burnt sugar
2. Rotten eggs
3. Rotting meat
4. Strong cheese

Reveal answer 237) When mixing acid and water:

1. add the acid quickly to the water
2. add the acid slowly to the water
3. add the water quickly to the acid
4. add the water slowly to the acid

Reveal answer 238) Where should you handle chemicals that produce harmful vapors?

1. Autoclave
2. Biological safety cabinet
3. Fume hood
4. Sealed room

Reveal answer 239) What should be your first action in the event of an acid burn?

1. Cover the burn with gauze moistened in sterile saline
2. Flush the burn with water
3. Go to the emergency department
4. Neutralize the acid with sodium bicarbonate

Reveal answer 240) What is the minimum amount of time the eyes should be flushed with water in the event of a chemical splash?

1. 1 minute
2. 5 minutes
3. 10 minutes
4. 15 minutes

Reveal answer 241) A lab technologist has spilled concentrated hydrochloric acid onto his clothing and skin, affecting a large portion of his body. After he has removed his clothing, what is the next thing he should do?

1. Apply a burn ointment to his skin
2. Pour baking soda onto his skin
3. Seek emergency medical assistance
4. Use the emergency safety shower

Reveal answer 242) Which type of hazard do universal precautions apply to?

1. Bloodborne pathogens
2. Dangerous chemicals
3. Environmental hazards
4. Radiation

Reveal answer 243) Which biosafety level does a nonpathogenic strain of E. coli require?

1. BSL-1
2. BSL-2
3. BSL-3
4. BSL-4

Reveal answer 244) Which of these is an OPIM (other potentially infectious material)?

1. Blood
2. Semen
3. Urine
4. Vomit

Reveal answer 245) The responsibility for identifying employees at risk of exposure to blood or OPIM lies with the:

1. employer
2. government
3. patient
4. union

Reveal answer 246) What is the pictogram for a pressurized gas?

1. A flame
2. A flame over a circle
3. A gas cylinder
4. An exploding test tube

Reveal answer 247) Which of these is found on safety data sheets?

1. Expiry date
2. Health hazards
3. Price
4. Production date

Reveal answer 248) How many sections are in a standard GHS safety data sheet?

1. 8
2. 10
3. 12
4. 16

Reveal answer 249) Which centrifuge is used to spin capillary tubes?

1. Angle head
2. Cytospin
3. Microhematocrit
4. Refrigerated

Reveal answer 250) Which centrifuge concentrates cells from a fluid specimen onto a microscope slide for morphological examination?

1. Angle head
2. Cytocentrifuge
3. Microhematocrit
4. Refrigerated

Reveal answer 251) What should you do before turning on a centrifuge?

1. Ensure the centrifuge is balanced
2. Open the cover
3. Place the centrifuge on a slanted surface
4. Uncover all liquid specimen tubes

Reveal answer 252) What does RPM indicate on a centrifuge?

1. How fast the centrifuge spins
2. How long the centrifuge spins for
3. How many tubes the centrifuge can hold
4. The maximum weight the rotor can safely handle

Reveal answer 253) Which device measures the RPM of a centrifuge?

1. Ohmmeter
2. Rheostat
3. Tachometer
4. Voltmeter

Reveal answer 254) What is the most common cause of excessive centrifuge vibration?

1. Electrical interference
2. Unbalanced tubes
3. Uneven bench surfaces
4. Variable voltage

Reveal answer 255) What is the term for water from which charged particles have been removed?

1. Chlorinated water
2. De-ionized water
3. Distilled water
4. Flat water

Reveal answer 256) What is the term for a solution in which no more solute can be dissolved?

1. Concentrated
2. Diluted
3. Saturated
4. Soluted

Reveal answer 257) Which microscope is used most in clinical laboratories?

1. Acoustic
2. Electron
3. Light
4. Scanning probe

Reveal answer 258) Which part of a microscope controls the brightness of the light bulb?

1. Diaphragm
2. Numerical aperture
3. Rheostat
4. Stage clip

Reveal answer 259) Which part of a microscope controls how much light reaches the specimen?

1. Diaphragm
2. Numerical aperture
3. Objective lens
4. Rheostat

Reveal answer 260) Which objective lenses do compound light microscopes usually have?

1. 2×, 10×, 50×, and 100×
2. 2×, 20×, 50×, and 80×
3. 4×, 10×, 40×, and 100×
4. 5×, 20×, 40×, and 80×

Reveal answer 261) Which microscope is best for examining an unstained, wet preparation of cells before dehydration?

1. Brightfield
2. Electron
3. Fluorescence
4. Phase contrast

Reveal answer 262) Which part of a microscope focuses light onto the specimen?

1. Condenser
2. Diaphragm
3. Objective lens
4. Ocular lens

Reveal answer 263) Which magnification is typically used to examine the morphology of bacteria?

1. 10x
2. 100x
3. 400x
4. 1000x

Reveal answer 264) You notice dirt in the field of view while using a microscope. The dirt moves when you rotate the eyepiece. What action should you take?

1. Clean the eyepiece
2. Clean the objective
3. Open the iris
4. Tighten the tension adjustment

Reveal answer 265) A pipette gives a reading of 4.9 mL, but the true value of the volume of liquid inside the pipette is 5.0 mL. What is the percent error?

1. 2%
2. 4%
3. 6%
4. 8%

Reveal answer 266) Which item of glassware is designed to deliver specific volumes?

1. Beaker
2. Erlenmeyer flask
3. Volumetric flask
4. Volumetric pipette

Reveal answer 267) Which pipette is the most accurate?

1. Graduated
2. Mohr
3. Pasteur
4. Volumetric

Reveal answer 268) What does "10 mL TD 25 SEC" on a pipette mean?

1. The pipette can be filled with 10 mL in 25 seconds
2. The pipette can deliver 10 mL in its primary tube and 25 mL in its secondary tube
3. The pipette is calibrated to deliver 10 mL after a 25-second drain time
4. You should wait 25 seconds between filling and dispensing the pipette

Reveal answer 269) A to-deliver pipettor has an accuracy of +/- 0.8%. When using the pipette to deliver a volume of 100 µL, what range would you expect the volume of liquid to fall within?

1. 99.05–100.95 µL
2. 99.2–100.8 µL
3. 99.55–100.45 µL
4. 99.85–100.15 µL

Reveal answer 270) What do the double rings mean on this pipette?

1. The last drop must be blown out
2. The pipette can hold 2 mL
3. The pipette will deliver the measured amount of liquid only at 20°C
4. The volume is measured at this point

Reveal answer 271) Which pipette has a bulged-out portion in the middle?

1. Mohr
2. Pasteur
3. Serological
4. Volumetric

Reveal answer 272) At which level should a volumetric pipette be viewed for an accurate reading?

1. At an angle
2. At eye level
3. Just above eye level
4. Just below eye level

Reveal answer 273) Which glassware is used to measure 24-hour urine volumes?

1. Beaker
2. Erlenmeyer flask
3. Graduated cylinder
4. Graduated pipette

Reveal answer 274) Which type of pipette is used to measure and dispense various volumes using calibration marks (graduations) along the entire length of the tube?

1. Disposable
2. Pasteur
3. Serological
4. Volumetric

Reveal answer 275) What does a biological safety cabinet protect against?

1. Infectious aerosols
2. Thermal burn injuries
3. UV radiation
4. Volatile chemical vapors

Reveal answer 276) How often should biological safety cabinets be certified?

1. Once a year
2. Every 2 years
3. Every 3 years
4. Every 4 years

Reveal answer 277) What type of filter in biological safety cabinets removes airborne particles such as bacteria and viruses?

1. Electrostatic
2. Fiberglass
3. HEPA
4. UV light

Reveal answer 278) Which grade of chemical is used in analytical laboratory work that requires high-purity chemicals?

1. AR
2. CP
3. LR
4. USP

Reveal answer 279) Which hazard category do formalin, xylene, and other reagents fall into?

1. Biological
2. Chemical
3. Magnetic
4. Radiation

Reveal answer 280) Which situation should be documented as a laboratory incident?

1. A culture plate is moved to the incubator
2. A specimen arrives leaking
3. A technician takes a scheduled 15-minute break
4. The LIS autoverifies results

Reveal answer 281) Which of these actions reduces the risk of repetitive strain injury?

1. Repeating the same movement many times
2. Resting your arms on a hard surface
3. Sitting in the same position for a long period of time
4. Taking frequent breaks

Reveal answer 282) What is the name of the process of assessing the severity and likelihood of workplace hazards?

1. Health needs evaluation
2. Myers-Briggs type indicator
3. Risk assessment
4. Workplace danger evaluation

Reveal answer 283) What does the mnemonic PASS help to remember?

1. The key safety principles of working in a laboratory
2. The steps for first aid
3. The steps to operate a fire extinguisher
4. The warning signs of a stroke

Reveal answer 284) What is the term for a document that identifies hazards and the ways to minimize their impact?

1. Accident and incident recording form
2. First aid assessment form
3. Inspection report
4. Risk assessment

Reveal answer 285) What is the universal solvent?

1. 0.85% sodium chloride
2. 10% ethanol
3. 8.5% sodium chloride
4. Water

Reveal answer 286) Which of these describes preventive maintenance?

1. Identifying unexpected failures
2. Repairing equipment after it fails
3. Servicing equipment before it fails
4. Turning off machines when they are not in use

Reveal answer 287) Which of these chemical grades has the highest purity?

1. Commercial
2. Laboratory
3. Reagent
4. Technical

Reveal answer 288) Which equipment measures small masses with high precision?

1. Analytical balance
2. Desiccator
3. PH meter
4. Single pan balance

Reveal answer 289) What is the function of a buffer?

1. To accentuate changes in pH
2. To make a solution more acidic
3. To make a solution more basic
4. To minimize changes in pH

Reveal answer 290) Triple-beam balances give readings in what unit of measurement?

1. Grams
2. Kilograms
3. Liters
4. Milliliters

Reveal answer 291) Which pH buffer solution is typically used first when calibrating a pH meter?

1. pH 1
2. pH 4
3. pH 7
4. pH 10

Reveal answer 292) What substance is used to calibrate refractometers?

1. Buffer solution
2. Distilled water
3. Healthy urine
4. Hydrochloric acid

Reveal answer 293) Which water purification method involves boiling water into steam, and then letting the steam cool?

1. Deionization
2. Distillation
3. Filtration
4. Reverse osmosis

Reveal answer 294) How is relative centrifugal force (RCF) converted from revolutions per minute (RPM)?

1. RCF = RPM × 1.144 × 10⁵ × r²
2. RCF = RPM × 1.144 × 10⁻⁵ × r²
3. RCF = RPM² × 1.118 × 10⁵ × r
4. RCF = RPM² × 1.118 × 10⁻⁵ × r

Reveal answer 295) Which of these best defines 'turnaround time'?

1. The duration of a blood cell count
2. The time from specimen receipt to result reporting
3. The time required for sample preparation
4. The time taken for instrument maintenance

Reveal answer 296) Solid crystals of potassium oxalate are added to distilled water in a container. Which term describes the potassium oxalate?

1. Reagent
2. Solute
3. Solution
4. Solvent

Reveal answer 297) What is a delta check?

1. A comparison of a laboratory's results to those from an outside facility
2. A comparison of current test results to previous results
3. An inspection to ensure all patients are wearing wristbands
4. The verification of a patient's identity using at least three identifiers

Reveal answer 298) Which of these actions would increase a laboratory's efficiency?

1. Increasing the time it takes to perform key tasks
2. Keeping frequently used equipment within easy reach
3. Using an inconsistent labeling system
4. Using paper files instead of digital files

Reveal answer 299) What is the term for a solution that contains less solute than the maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved?

1. Diluted
2. Saturated
3. Supersaturated
4. Unsaturated

Reveal answer 300) A hypertonic solution:

1. causes cells to grow
2. contains a higher concentration of solutes than another solution
3. contains a lower concentration of solutes than another solution
4. contains the same concentration of solutes as another solution

Reveal answer

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