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AMT MLT Certification Exam: Practice Test 1

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About the AMT MLT exam

The AMT MLT (Medical Laboratory Technician) certification exam is set by the American Medical Technologists (AMT). Passing the exam proves to employers that you can work in a laboratory as a medical technologist.

The exam contains 210 questions and lasts 3 hours. All questions are multiple-choice.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the AMT MLT exam.

This page contains 210 practice questions divided into the nine sections of the exam: 1. General Laboratory, 2. Chemistry, 3. Hematology, 4. Coagulation and Hemostasis, 5. Immunology and Serology, 6. Immunohematology, 7. Blood Banking and Transfusion Services, 8. Microbiology, and 9. Urinalysis and Body Fluids.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Sections

  1. General Laboratory
  2. Chemistry
  3. Hematology
  4. Coagulation and Hemostasis
  5. Immunology and Serology
  6. Immunohematology
  7. Blood Banking and Transfusion Services
  8. Microbiology
  9. Urinalysis and Body Fluids

Section 1: General Laboratory

1.1) When drawing blood from an obese patient, which location should be the first place you look for a vein?
  1. The antecubital fossa
  2. The back of the knee
  3. The feet
  4. The neck
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1.2) Which vacutainer tube contains sodium citrate?
  1. Black
  2. Gray
  3. Light blue
  4. Pink
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1.3) What additive prevents glycolysis in blood samples?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Potassium oxalate
  4. Sodium fluoride
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1.4) A phlebotomist has to draw a patient's blood into a blood culture bottle and four tubes: red, green, light blue, and purple. Which should the phlebotomist fill first?
  1. Blood culture bottle
  2. Light blue top tube
  3. Purple top tube
  4. Red top tube
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1.5) Five minutes after a blood draw, the patient is still bleeding from the venipuncture site. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Apply a pressure bandage to the patient
  2. Give the patient an anti-inflammatory medication
  3. Notify the patient's nurse
  4. Tell the patient it is okay to leave
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1.6) You dilute a sample four times using a dilution factor of 20 each time. What is the final dilution?
  1. 1/20
  2. 1/80
  3. 1/8,000
  4. 1/160,000
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1.7) If you need 48 g of magnesium to make 80 g of magnesium oxide, how much magnesium would you need to make 20 g of magnesium oxide?
  1. 6 g
  2. 12 g
  3. 18 g
  4. 24 g
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1.8) What is the basic metric unit for measuring length?
  1. Foot
  2. Inch
  3. Meter
  4. Meter cubed
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1.9) What is the abbreviation for moles?
  1. ml
  2. mo
  3. mol
  4. z
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1.10) What is 77°F in Celsius?
  1. 25°C
  2. 40°C
  3. 55°C
  4. 70°C
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1.11) What is 2.08691 rounded to three significant figures?
  1. 2.08
  2. 2.086
  3. 2.087
  4. 2.09
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1.12) What is 0.7817 rounded to the nearest whole number?
  1. 0.5
  2. 0.8
  3. 1
  4. 1.5
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1.13) What does log₄64 equal?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
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1.14) What is 10 mg in micrograms?
  1. 0.0001 mcg
  2. 0.001 mcg
  3. 10,000 mcg
  4. 100 mcg
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1.15) CO₂ fire extinguishers are effective against which type of fire?
  1. Flammable gas
  2. Flammable liquid
  3. Paper
  4. Wood
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1.16) Which of these gases is flammable?
  1. Argon
  2. Helium
  3. Hydrogen
  4. Neon
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1.17) Which of these statements about reactive chemicals is false?
  1. Always add water to acid
  2. Oxidizers are stored separately from reducers
  3. Reactive chemicals include picric acid and sodium azide
  4. Some reactive chemicals may react with water
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1.18) What is the term for chemicals that cause birth defects in embryos and fetuses?
  1. Carcinogens
  2. Corrosives
  3. Phenyls
  4. Teratogens
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1.19) Which of these chemicals is air-reactive?
  1. Ethanol
  2. Metallic potassium
  3. Phenol
  4. Sodium cyanide
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1.20) When visiting a patient in enteric isolation, staff must wear gloves and what other item of equipment?
  1. Gown
  2. Hazard suit
  3. Helmet
  4. Shoe covers
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1.21) In the NFPA hazard diamond, which quadrant indicates special hazards?
  1. Blue
  2. Red
  3. White
  4. Yellow
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1.22) Which of these factors is NOT considered when storing chemicals?
  1. Light sensitivity
  2. Heat sensitivity
  3. Explosive properties
  4. Solubility
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1.23) Which microscope is most used in clinical laboratories?
  1. Dark-field
  2. Florescent
  3. Light
  4. Phase-contrast
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1.24) What is the total magnification of a microscope if the eyepiece lens is 10x and the objective lens is 20x?
  1. 30x
  2. 200x
  3. 375x
  4. 525x
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1.25) What does a condenser lens on a microscope do?
  1. Control the aperture of light
  2. Focus the light on the specimen
  3. Increase the magnification
  4. Provide an initial magnification of 10x
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1.26) What is a delta check?
  1. A comparison of a laboratory's results to the results from an outside facility
  2. A comparison of current test results to previous results
  3. An inspection to ensure all patients are wearing wristbands
  4. The verification of a patient's identity using at least three identifiers
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1.27) What is the main reason a capillary puncture site is warmed beforehand?
  1. To delay clotting
  2. To increase blood flow
  3. To minimize contamination
  4. To reduce hemoconcentration
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1.28) Which of these tests is collected first during a single capillary puncture?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Electrolytes
  3. Glucose
  4. Phosphorus
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1.29) Midstream urine samples are most often used for:
  1. culture and susceptibility
  2. mononucleosis testing
  3. pregnancy testing
  4. routine urinalysis
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1.30) 2-hr PC means 2 hours:
  1. after a meal
  2. after an operation
  3. before a meal
  4. before an operation
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1.31) Which of these is a normal pH for a sperm sample?
  1. 5.4
  2. 6.2
  3. 7.6
  4. 8.8
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Section 2: Chemistry

2.1) If a blood sample is taken in an EDTA tube, which of these test results would be affected?
  1. Calcium
  2. Cholesterol
  3. Glucose
  4. Urea
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2.2) What does GTT stand for?
  1. Genetic test
  2. Glucose tolerance test
  3. Guanine-thymine test
  4. Guaranteed time and temperature
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2.3) Angiotensin II stimulates the release of which hormone?
  1. Adrenaline
  2. Aldosterone
  3. Cortisol
  4. T4
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2.4) Hyperthyroidism, an enlarged thyroid, and exophthalmos are all symptoms of which disease?
  1. Graves' disease
  2. Hashimoto's disease
  3. Myasthenia gravis
  4. Myxedema
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2.5) Night blindness is caused by a deficiency in which vitamin?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B12
  3. Vitamin B6
  4. Vitamin C
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2.6) Beriberi is a deficiency of which vitamin?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B1
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin D1
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2.7) What autoimmune disorder results in hypothyroidism?
  1. Celiac disease
  2. Hashimoto's disease
  3. Multiple sclerosis
  4. Myasthenia gravis
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2.8) Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism is also called:
  1. delayed puberty
  2. precocious puberty
  3. primary hypogonadism
  4. secondary hypogonadism
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2.9) Bilirubin is a product of the breakdown of which compound?
  1. Albumin
  2. Heme
  3. Urobilin
  4. Urobilinogen
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2.10) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) stimulates the re-absorption of:
  1. hydrogen ions
  2. oxygen
  3. potassium
  4. water
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2.11) Which gland produces melatonin?
  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Pancreas
  3. Pineal gland
  4. Thymus
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2.12) Which form of thyroid hormone is the most biologically active?
  1. T0
  2. T1
  3. T2
  4. T3
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2.13) Which hormone is also known as epinephrine?
  1. Adrenaline
  2. Cortisol
  3. Testosterone
  4. Vasopressin
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2.14) Which monosaccharide is the main end product of carbohydrate digestion?
  1. Glucose
  2. Lactose
  3. Maltose
  4. Sucrose
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2.15) Which lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme is found mainly in the lungs?
  1. LDH-1
  2. LDH-2
  3. LDH-3
  4. LDH-4
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2.16) Which organ conjugates bilirubin?
  1. Kidneys
  2. Liver
  3. Pancreas
  4. Spleen
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2.17) B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is secreted primarily by which organ?
  1. Heart
  2. Kidneys
  3. Liver
  4. Lungs
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2.18) Adipose tissue stores:
  1. fat
  2. mucous
  3. protein
  4. water
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2.19) Fat molecules consist of three fatty acids and a ___________ backbone.
  1. amino acid
  2. glycerol
  3. monosaccharide
  4. polysaccharide
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2.20) Which of these is a lipid?
  1. Cholesterol
  2. Hemoglobin
  3. Immunoglobulin A
  4. Insulin
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2.21) Lipase breaks down:
  1. enzymes
  2. fats
  3. proteins
  4. red blood cells
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2.22) How many fatty acids does a triglyceride molecule have?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
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2.23) High levels of which lipoprotein are associated with a decreased risk of accelerated atherosclerosis?
  1. Chylomicrons
  2. HDL
  3. LDL
  4. VLDL
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2.24) What color is hemoglobin?
  1. Blue
  2. Red
  3. White
  4. Yellow
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2.25) A patient has an A1c of 10.0%. To the nearest mg/dL, calculate an estimate of the patient's average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months.
  1. 220 mg/dL
  2. 240 mg/dL
  3. 260 mg/dL
  4. 280 mg/dL
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2.26) How should ethers be stored?
  1. In airtight bottles
  2. In the light
  3. In the refrigerator
  4. Underwater
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2.27) Bromocresol purple and bromocresol green are dyes used to measure the levels of:
  1. Bence Jones protein
  2. albumin
  3. globulins
  4. immunoproteins
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2.28) Which of these test results indicates diabetes?
  1. A random blood glucose test of 88 mg/dL
  2. Blood glucose level of 135 mg/dL two hours into a glucose tolerance test
  3. Fasting blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL
  4. Hemoglobin 1Ac level of 4.8%
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2.29) Iodine is a:
  1. chalcogen
  2. halogen
  3. metal
  4. phenol
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2.30) The sweat test measures the amount of _________ in sweat.
  1. chloride
  2. copper
  3. lead
  4. phosphatase
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2.31) Which of these biochemistry tests should be kept away from the light?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Calcium
  3. Glucose
  4. Urea
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2.32) Which of these is a normal blood creatinine level for a man?
  1. 1.0 mg/dL
  2. 2.0 mg/dL
  3. 3.0 mg/dL
  4. 4.0 mg/dL
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2.33) A patient's blood gas results are as follows:
Test Result
pH 7.26
PaCO₂ 55 mmHg
These results would be classified as:
  1. metabolic acidosis
  2. metabolic alkalosis
  3. respiratory acidosis
  4. respiratory alkalosis
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2.34) What blood gas results would be expected for a patient with kidney failure?
  1. Metabolic acidosis
  2. Metabolic alkalosis
  3. Respiratory acidosis
  4. Respiratory alkalosis
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2.35) Carcinoembryonic antigen is a protein primarily associated with:
  1. cancer
  2. heart disease
  3. liver failure
  4. pregnancy
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2.36) A patient has the following lipid panel results:
Test Result
Total cholesterol 160 mg/dL
LDL 100 mg/dL
VLDL 20 mg/dL
HDL 40 mg/dL
Triglycerides 150 mg/dL
Calculate the cholesterol ratio.
  1. 0.25
  2. 4
  3. 50
  4. 150
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2.37) A blood sample has an elevated result when tested with the Jaffe reaction. This indicates:
  1. arrhythmia
  2. kidney function impairment
  3. pregnancy
  4. prolonged hypothermia
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2.38) At what pH are barbital buffers used in the serum protein electrophoresis test?
  1. 5.0
  2. 5.6
  3. 6.5
  4. 8.6
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2.39) In total bilirubin assays, bilirubin reacts with diazotized sulfanilic acid to form:
  1. azobilirubin
  2. bilirubin glucuronide
  3. biliverdin
  4. diazobilirubin
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2.40) A patient's cholesterol test results are as follows:
Test Result
Triglycerides 230 mg/dL
Cholesterol 280 mg/dL
HDL 55 mg/dL
Calculate the patient's LDL.
  1. 119 mg/dL
  2. 149 mg/dL
  3. 159 mg/dL
  4. 179 mg/dL
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2.41) What is the primary screening test for thyroid dysfunction?
  1. Free T3 test
  2. Free T4 test
  3. TSH test
  4. Total T4 test
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2.42) Scurvy is caused by a deficiency of which vitamin?
  1. Niacin
  2. Thiamine
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin C
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Section 3: Hematology

3.1) Which anticoagulant tube is needed to collect a sample for an HbA1c test?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Sodium citrate
  4. Sodium fluoride
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3.2) 55% of blood is:
  1. hemoglobin
  2. plasma
  3. red blood cells
  4. white blood cells
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3.3) Formed elements in blood include which of the following?
  1. Electrolytes
  2. Fibrinogen
  3. Plasma proteins
  4. White blood cells
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3.4) Hemoglobin A consists of:
  1. five alpha chains
  2. one alpha chain, one beta chain, and one delta chain
  3. three delta chains
  4. two alpha chains and two beta chains
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3.5) Plasma makes up around _____ of the total blood.
  1. 55%
  2. 65%
  3. 75%
  4. 95%
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3.6) Which plasma protein helps maintain blood volume by pulling tissue fluid into capillaries?
  1. Albumin
  2. Fibrinogen
  3. Gamma globulin
  4. Prothrombin
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3.7) Which of these anemias is hypochromic and microcytic?
  1. Hemolytic
  2. Megaloblastic
  3. Sickle cell
  4. Thalassemia
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3.8) Pernicious anemia can be distinguished from folate deficiency by the:
  1. bone marrow findings
  2. mean cell volume
  3. presence of autoantibodies to intrinsic factor
  4. presence of hypersegmented neutrophils
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3.9) Which white blood cell is the largest?
  1. Basophil
  2. Lymphocyte
  3. Monocyte
  4. Neutrophil
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3.10) Which blood cells protect the body from pathogens and foreign cells?
  1. Erythrocytes
  2. Hemoglobin
  3. Leukocytes
  4. Platelets
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3.11) Monokines are:
  1. chemicals released for macrophages
  2. neutralized monocytes
  3. responsible for lymphokines
  4. sensitized macrophages
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3.12) On a normal blood smear, which blood cell is the most numerous?
  1. Basophil
  2. Eosinophil
  3. Erythrocyte
  4. Platelet
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3.13) Which white blood cell is the most numerous on a normal blood slide?
  1. Eosinophils
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Neutrophils
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3.14) Which white blood cell contains heparin?
  1. Basophil
  2. Lymphocyte
  3. Monocyte
  4. Neutrophil
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3.15) Monocytes can develop into which two types of cells?
  1. B cells and T cells
  2. Macrophages and dendritic cells
  3. Neutrophils and basophils
  4. Neutrophils and eosinophils
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3.16) White blood cells are also known as:
  1. erythrocytes
  2. leukocytes
  3. osteocytes
  4. thrombocytes
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3.17) The liquid that separates out when blood coagulates is:
  1. fibrinogen
  2. lymph
  3. plasma
  4. serum
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3.18) The Coulter principle is based on the detection of:
  1. changes in cell electrical currents
  2. color absorption changes
  3. diffusion
  4. high-frequency sound waves
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3.19) What color is lipemic plasma?
  1. Brownish-yellow
  2. Clear red
  3. Milky
  4. Straw-colored
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3.20) For a test requiring whole blood, the blood sample must be collected in a vacutainer containing a(n):
  1. anticoagulant
  2. antiglycolytic agent
  3. clot activator
  4. serum separating gel
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3.21) What is the preferred source of DNA for DNA testing?
  1. Plasma proteins
  2. Platelets
  3. Red blood cells
  4. White blood cells
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3.22) Which routine hematology test includes hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood count, and white blood count determinations?
  1. CBC
  2. CDC
  3. CPK
  4. CRP
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3.23) Capillary blood composition most closely resembles:
  1. arterial blood
  2. lymph fluid
  3. tissue fluid
  4. venous blood
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3.24) A buffy coat forms when:
  1. an SST is left to rest for 24 hours
  2. whole anticoagulated blood is centrifuged
  3. whole blood is left to rest for 24 hours
  4. whole coagulated blood is centrifuged
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3.25) Hematocrit results will be low for patients with:
  1. an infection
  2. anemia
  3. dehydration
  4. polycythemia vera
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3.26) What is a buffy coat made of?
  1. Granulocytes and fibrin
  2. Red blood cells and granulocytes
  3. Reticulocytes and granulocytes
  4. White blood cells and platelets
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3.27) What is the term for a leukocyte count of 18.4 × 10⁹/L?
  1. Leukocytosis
  2. Leukodystrophy
  3. Leukopenia
  4. Leukorrhea
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3.28) A man has a red cell count of 3.6 × 10¹²/L. What is the term for this type of cell count?
  1. Anemia
  2. Leukocytosis
  3. Leukopenia
  4. Polycythemia
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3.29) A deficiency of red blood cells is called:
  1. anemia
  2. erythremia
  3. hemophilia
  4. leukemia
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3.30) A microscopic analysis of a patient's blood sample reveals neutrophils with six-lobed nuclei. Which illness does this indicate?
  1. Acute myelogenous leukemia
  2. Erythrocytosis
  3. Hemochromatosis
  4. Megaloblastic anemia
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3.31) What test is used to diagnose hereditary spherocytosis?
  1. Heat instability test
  2. Kleihauer-Betke test
  3. Osmotic fragility test
  4. Sucrose hemolysis test
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3.32) Hematocrit = _____________ × 3
  1. hemoglobin
  2. mean corpuscular volume
  3. red blood cell count
  4. white blood cell count
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3.33) Which red blood cell index is a measurement of the average amount of hemoglobin in red blood cells?
  1. MCH
  2. MCV
  3. RBC
  4. RDW
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3.34) Which white blood cell has granules that stain orange?
  1. Eosinophil
  2. Mature neutrophil
  3. Monocyte
  4. Small lymphocyte
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3.35) What color vacutainer tube is used to collect blood for blood banking?
  1. Black
  2. Gray
  3. Green
  4. Pink
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3.36) Polycythemia makes the blood:
  1. appear blue
  2. more acidic
  3. thicker
  4. thinner
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3.37) Which of these results indicates anemia in a male patient?
  1. Hematocrit: 36%
  2. MCH: 32 pg
  3. MCV: 90 80 fL
  4. RBC: 5.9 × 10¹²/L
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3.38) Hemoglobin A2 is elevated in which disease?
  1. Alpha-thalassemia
  2. Alport Syndrome
  3. Beta-thalassemia
  4. Hemolytic anemia
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Section 4: Coagulation and Hemostasis

4.1) Which of these vacutainer tubes does NOT contain an anticoagulant?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
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4.2) Which pathway is also known as the contact activation pathway?
  1. Common pathway
  2. Extrinsic pathway
  3. Intrinsic pathway
  4. Tissue factor pathway
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4.3) What is the name for the series of reactions that stop blood flow after a cut?
  1. Erythropoiesis
  2. Hemolysis
  3. Hemostasis
  4. Homeostasis
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4.4) A __________ clot is formed during the process of hemostasis.
  1. fibrin
  2. fibrinogen
  3. prothrombin
  4. thrombin
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4.5) The term thrombocytopenia indicates a:
  1. abnormally high number of thrombocytes
  2. abnormally low number of thrombocytes
  3. normal number of erythrocytes
  4. normal number of platelets
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4.6) In a platelet aggregation study, a patient's platelets aggregate normally in response to adenosine diphosphate, epinephrine, and collagen. However, the platelets do not aggregate in response to ristocetin, even after normal plasma is added. Which clotting disorder does the patient have?
  1. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
  2. Hereditary factor Xa deficiency
  3. Parahemophilia
  4. Von Willebrand disease
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4.7) The following lab results were obtained:
Test Result
Bleeding time Prolonged
Platelet adhesiveness Abnormal
PT Normal
APTT Normal
CBC Normal
These findings are most consistent with which inherited autosomal dominant trait?
  1. Factor X deficiency
  2. Factor XI deficiency
  3. Hemophilia A
  4. Von Willebrand disease
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4.8) What is the name of the process by which platelets adhere to one another and form a hemostatic plug?
  1. Activation
  2. Aggregation
  3. Attachment
  4. Hemostasis
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4.9) Platelets:
  1. are also known as antithrombins
  2. are enzymes
  3. convert prothrombin to thrombin
  4. form a plug in the hole of damaged blood vessels
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4.10) Megakaryocytes produce and release:
  1. agranulocytes
  2. granulocytes
  3. platelets
  4. red blood cells
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4.11) Red blood cells shaped like teardrops are called:
  1. acanthocytes
  2. dacrocytes
  3. drepanocytes
  4. echinocytes
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Section 5: Immunology and Serology

5.1) Which immune system cells destroy infected or malignant host cells?
  1. B lymphocytes
  2. Natural killer cells
  3. Neutrophils
  4. T lymphocytes
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5.2) Which type of immunity do B cells and antibodies mediate?
  1. Cell-mediated
  2. Humoral
  3. Innate
  4. Passive
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5.3) Killer T cells:
  1. attack virus-invaded cells
  2. sensitize the activity of macrophage
  3. suppress the activity of B cells
  4. terminate the normal immune response
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5.4) What are T cells?
  1. Blood cells that carry oxygen and carbon dioxide around the body
  2. Cells that make up the thyroid
  3. Immune system cells that produce antibodies in response to an infection
  4. Immune system cells that target specific antigens
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5.5) Which protein do helper T cells have on their surface?
  1. CD4
  2. CD5
  3. CD6
  4. CD7
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5.6) Developing B cells always make which antibody first?
  1. IgD
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
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5.7) Cells in a hypertonic solution will:
  1. hemolyze
  2. not be affected
  3. shrink
  4. swell and burst
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5.8) In a patient with HIV, which of these samples would have the highest concentration of the virus?
  1. Feces
  2. Serum
  3. Sweat
  4. Urine
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Section 6: Immunohematology

6.1) Antibody class is determined by the:
  1. constant region of the heavy chain
  2. constant region of the light chain
  3. variable region of the heavy chain
  4. variable region of the light chain
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6.2) Which antibody is the most abundant in the body?
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
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6.3) Which of these tests would NOT be performed in immunohematology?
  1. Coombs direct
  2. Crossmatch
  3. Group and Rh
  4. Reticulocyte count
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6.4) Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs due to:
  1. ABO incompatibility
  2. Rh incompatibility
  3. hemophilia
  4. leukemia
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6.5) The absence of which antigen makes red blood cells resistant to Plasmodium vivax malaria?
  1. Duffy
  2. Kidd
  3. Lewis
  4. Rhesus
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6.6) Which of these situations could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn?
  1. Rh+ mother, Rh+ fetus
  2. Rh+ mother, Rh− fetus
  3. Rh− mother, Rh+ fetus
  4. Rh− mother, Rh− fetus
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6.7) When blood is transfused, what is the most important consideration?
  1. Do the donor's red cells contain an antibody against the patient's red cells?
  2. Do the patient's red cells contain an antibody against the donor's red cells?
  3. Does the donor's serum contain an antibody against the patient's red cells?
  4. Does the patient's serum contain an antibody against the donor's red cells?
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6.8) People with O− blood can only receive blood that is:
  1. AB+
  2. A−
  3. B+
  4. O−
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6.9) Which blood group system is the most important for blood transfusions?
  1. ABO
  2. Lutheran
  3. MNS
  4. P
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6.10) Which two genes code the MNS antigens?
  1. Cysteine-rich protein 1 and cysteine-rich protein 2
  2. Glycophorin A and glycophorin B
  3. Lamin A/C and lamin B1
  4. VASH1 and VASH2
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6.11) Which of these statements is correct?
  1. People lacking type A antigens on their red blood cells have anti-B antibodies in their blood
  2. People lacking type B antigens on their red blood cells have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their blood
  3. People with type A antigens on their red blood cells have anti-A antibodies in their blood
  4. People with type B antigens on their red cells have anti-B antibodies in their blood
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6.12) A person's blood group is determined by:
  1. the antibodies circulating in their blood
  2. the antibodies on the surface of their red blood cells
  3. the antigens circulating in their blood
  4. the antigens on the surface of their red blood cells
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6.13) What is the rarest phenotype of the Kidd blood group?
  1. Jk(a+b+)
  2. Jk(a+b-)
  3. Jk(a-b+)
  4. Jk(a-b-)
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6.14) Which of these situations could be dangerous for a fetus?
  1. Both the father and mother are Rh-positive
  2. The father has blood type A and the mother has blood type B
  3. The father has blood type O and the mother has blood type AB
  4. The father is Rh-positive and the mother is Rh-negative
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6.15) A person is Rh-positive if they have which antigen on their red blood cells?
  1. RhC
  2. Rhc
  3. RhD
  4. RhE
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6.16) What does "Rhesus positive" mean?
  1. A deficiency of Factor VIII that results in hemophilia
  2. Antibodies in a pregnant woman's blood are destroying her baby's blood cells
  3. The presence of the D antigen on the surface of red blood cells
  4. The presence of the rhesus antibody in the blood
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6.17) On which chromosome are the RHD and RHCE genes?
  1. Chromosome 1
  2. Chromosome 3
  3. Chromosome 5
  4. Chromosome 7
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6.18) A person with B and D antigens on their red blood cells is called:
  1. A negative
  2. A positive
  3. B negative
  4. B positive
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6.19) The ABO system of blood groups is based on the presence of which proteins on red blood cells?
  1. Agglutinins
  2. Antibodies
  3. Antigens
  4. Immunoglobulins
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6.20) A person with type AB blood has:
  1. A and B antigens
  2. A antigens and anti-B antibodies
  3. B antigens and anti-A antibodies
  4. no antigens
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6.21) Which blood type is the universal donor?
  1. AB–
  2. A–
  3. B+
  4. O–
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6.22) If a patient's ABO blood group genotype is BO, then what is the patient's blood type?
  1. A
  2. AB
  3. B
  4. O
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Section 7: Blood Banking and Transfusion Services

7.1) In humans, the major histocompatibility complex is also called the _____ system.
  1. EHP
  2. GOW
  3. HLA
  4. IRH
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7.2) Autologous blood is:
  1. a person's own blood
  2. blood from a sibling
  3. blood from a twin
  4. blood from an anonymous donor
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7.3) Washed red blood cells are prepared by washing red cells with:
  1. acetic acid
  2. ethanol
  3. normal saline
  4. sodium hydroxide
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7.4) Which of these people is eligible to donate whole blood?
  1. A 19-year-old taking antibiotics for acne
  2. A man who donated whole blood a month ago
  3. A woman who donated whole blood two weeks ago
  4. Someone who is HIV positive
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7.5) Why is blood matching performed before blood transfusions?
  1. To avoid erythroblastosis fetalis
  2. To avoid newborn hemolytic disease
  3. To avoid the recipient's antibodies attacking the donor's red blood cells
  4. To avoid the recipient's antigens attacking the donor's red blood cells
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7.6) In blood transfusions, what kind of red cells are given to patients who have a severe allergy to standard red cells?
  1. Frozen
  2. Irradiated
  3. Synthetic
  4. Washed
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7.7) Which of these types of blood transfusion is rarely given nowadays?
  1. Plasma transfusion
  2. Platelet transfusion
  3. Red blood cell transfusion
  4. White blood cell transfusion
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7.8) Leukocytes are removed from transfusable blood components by a process called:
  1. leukoextraction
  2. leukorebation
  3. leukoreduction
  4. leukotransference
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7.9) A unit of donated blood is roughly equivalent to how many pints?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
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7.10) When donated blood is bright yellow to brown, it is probably due to:
  1. bacterial contamination
  2. high levels of bilirubin
  3. high levels of fat
  4. red blood cells
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7.11) What is the 30-minute rule in blood banking?
  1. After a transfusion, the donor should sit in a quiet room for 30 minutes before going home
  2. Red blood cell units left out of a refrigerator for more than 30 minutes cannot be returned to the refrigerator
  3. The tourniquet should not be left on the patient's arm for more than 30 minutes
  4. Transfusions of red blood cell units should take no longer than 30 minutes
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7.12) Which of these is a sign of hemolysis in a unit of red blood cells?
  1. Blood clots
  2. Bright cherry red color
  3. Excessive and unusual air bubbles
  4. Increased opacity
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7.13) Stored blood is automatically disqualified for transfusion if it:
  1. has clots
  2. has white particulate matter
  3. is icteric
  4. is lipemic
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7.14) While separating the components of a blood donation, you notice an unusual green color in the plasma bag. Which of these could be the cause of the green color?
  1. The donor ate a fatty meal before the blood donation
  2. The donor ate a large number of carrots before the blood donation
  3. The donor is on a contraceptive pill
  4. The donor is taking a vitamin A supplement
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7.15) Which of these is a symptom of transfusion-associated circulatory overload?
  1. High oxygen levels in the blood
  2. Low blood pressure
  3. Shortness of breath
  4. Slow heart rate
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Section 8: Microbiology

8.1) PST tubes contain a gel plasma separator and:
  1. EDTA
  2. lithium heparin
  3. silica
  4. sodium citrate
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8.2) Which of these methods results in sterilization?
  1. Autoclaving
  2. Chemical disinfectants
  3. Freezing
  4. Soap and water
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8.3) What term describes microorganisms that do not produce disease?
  1. Apathogens
  2. Aseptic organisms
  3. Nonpathogens
  4. Normal flora
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8.4) Which of these tests can detect heterophile antibodies?
  1. ABO typing
  2. Indirect antiglobulin test
  3. Mononucleosis test
  4. Rh and antibody screen
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8.5) A lab technician performs a Triple Sugar Iron test. Both the slant and the butt turn yellow. The technician therefore records the result as A/A. What do the two A's stand for?
  1. Acid/Acid
  2. Alkaline/Acid
  3. Alkaline/Alkaline
  4. All/All
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8.6) Which Plasmodium species has a distinctive band-like or sash-like structure in the trophozoite stage?
  1. Falciparum
  2. Malariae
  3. Ovale
  4. Vivax
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8.7) What type of organism do phages infect?
  1. Animals
  2. Bacteria
  3. Plants
  4. Viruses
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8.8) The presence of a black precipitate on the Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) test indicates the bacteria produced:
  1. carbon dioxide
  2. glucose
  3. hydrogen sulfide
  4. lactose
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8.9) Some bacteria can produce a capsule that is resistant to heat and drying. What is this capsule called?
  1. Cyst
  2. Scab
  3. Spore
  4. Tunic
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8.10) What is the term for an organism that grows best at high salt concentrations?
  1. Capnophile
  2. Halophile
  3. Osmophile
  4. Xerophile
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8.11) Which Streptococcus species causes post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
  1. S. aureus
  2. S. epidermidis
  3. S. pneumonia
  4. S. pyogenes
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8.12) Corynebacterium diphtheria is a:
  1. gram-negative cocci
  2. gram-negative rod
  3. gram-positive cocci
  4. gram-positive rod
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8.13) Where should agar plates be stored before use?
  1. In a cupboard
  2. In a dry oven
  3. In the freezer
  4. In the fridge
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8.14) MacConkey agar differentiates bacteria based on their:
  1. ability to ferment lactose
  2. ability to hydrolyze starch
  3. ability to utilise the safranin dye
  4. hemolytic activity
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8.15) Mueller-Hinton agar isolates which type of bacteria?
  1. Mycobacterium
  2. Neisseria
  3. Salmonella
  4. Staphylococcus
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8.16) Which substance does the RPR assay detect?
  1. Cardiolipin
  2. Pyruvate
  3. Reagin
  4. Rifamycin
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8.17) Which bacteria can hydrolyze hippurate, is beta-hemolytic, is a major cause of neonatal meningitis and sepsis, and produces CAMP factor?
  1. Enterococcus faecalis
  2. Streptococcus agalactiae
  3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  4. Streptococcus pyogenes
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8.18) A man cuts his hand while doing yard work. The wound becomes infected. A Gram stain reveals the wound contains gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli. Which media can be used to selectively isolate each organism?
  1. Columbia-CNA and Chocolate
  2. KV-laked agar and Thayer-Martin
  3. PEA and MacConkey
  4. Sheep blood and Chocolate
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8.19) Immunology tests are based on the reaction of:
  1. acids and bases
  2. antigens and antibodies
  3. lysing agents and red blood cells
  4. proteins and salicylsalicylic acid
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8.20) Which of these media is used to transport and preserve stool specimens?
  1. Blood agar
  2. Cary-Blair media
  3. Lowenstein-Jensen agar
  4. MacConkey agar
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Section 9: Urinalysis and Body Fluids

9.1) To reach the urinary bladder, urine passes from the kidney through a tube called the:
  1. renal column
  2. renal pelvis
  3. ureter
  4. urethra
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9.2) What gives urine its yellow color?
  1. Urea
  2. Uric acid
  3. Urobilin
  4. Urobilinogen
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9.3) Pregnancy test strips detect the presence of which hormone?
  1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
  2. Estrogen
  3. Human chorionic gonadotropin
  4. Progesterone
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9.4) Which reagent tablet tests for the presence of glucose in urine?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. TCA
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9.5) When used for detecting urinary tract infections, urine dipsticks test for:
  1. nitrates
  2. nitrites
  3. phosphates
  4. sugars
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9.6) What chemical does the urine glucose dipstick test use?
  1. Glucose oxidase
  2. Glucose oxide
  3. Glucose reductase
  4. Hexichloridine
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9.7) What do the letters TCA on a urine drug test stand for?
  1. Target channel adapter
  2. Trichloroacetic acid
  3. Trichloroethane
  4. Tricyclic antidepressant
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9.8) Amorphous urates:
  1. disappear if the urine is heated
  2. form blue sediment in acidic urine
  3. form white sediment in alkaline urine
  4. have a non-granular appearance
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9.9) Urine microscopic examination is performed on:
  1. diluted urine
  2. heated urine
  3. refrigerated urine
  4. the sediment suspension of centrifuged urine
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9.10) The urine specific gravity test compares the density of urine to the density of:
  1. air
  2. blood
  3. lymph fluid
  4. water
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9.11) Which of these is normally present in urine?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Creatinine
  3. Glucose
  4. Protein
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9.12) A patient's urine sample is positive for ketones. The patient probably has:
  1. advanced liver disease
  2. heart disease
  3. pernicious anemia
  4. uncontrolled diabetes
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9.13) A urine sample tested positive for urine protein by a dipstick test but negative by the sulfosalicylic acid method. What is the probable cause of these conflicting results?
  1. The urine contained crystals
  2. The urine contained ketones
  3. The urine was very alkaline
  4. The urine was very turbid
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9.14) What is the SI unit for reporting the result of urine glucose tests?
  1. mg/L
  2. mg/dL
  3. mmol/L
  4. mmol/dL
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9.15) Which of these tests does NOT require a 24-hour urine specimen?
  1. Creatinine clearance
  2. Ketones
  3. Ketosteroids
  4. Quantitative drug analysis
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9.16) What is the medical term for an abnormally low urine volume?
  1. Aciduria
  2. Oliguria
  3. Polyuria
  4. Pyuria
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9.17) Which of these would be checked during a macroscopic examination of urine?
  1. Acidity
  2. Appearance under a microscope
  3. Color
  4. Specific gravity
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9.18) A urine's specific gravity is directly proportional to its:
  1. dissolved solids
  2. salt content
  3. sugar content
  4. turbidity
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9.19) Urine that smells like ammonia may be a sign the patient has:
  1. a Proteus infection
  2. a yeast infection
  3. diabetes
  4. hepatitis
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9.20) Which type of urinary cast is a sign of chronic renal failure?
  1. Fatty
  2. Renal tubular epithelial cell
  3. Waxy
  4. White blood cell
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9.21) Adults normally produce around how many liters of urine per day?
  1. 1 to 2
  2. 3 to 4
  3. 5 to 6
  4. 7 to 8
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9.22) Tiny, colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals in a urine sample are most likely:
  1. ammonium biurate
  2. calcium oxalate
  3. hippuric acid
  4. uric acid
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9.23) A pH of 8 is:
  1. acidic
  2. alkaline
  3. negative
  4. neutral
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