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MLPAO MLA/T Certification Exam: Practice Test 1

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About the MLPAO MLA/T exam

The MLPAO MLA/T Certification Exam is an examination that students must pass before they can work as laboratory assistants in Ontario, Canada.

The exam is set by the MLPAO (Medical Laboratory Professionals Association of Ontario).

The exam consists of 200 multiple-choice questions and a score of 60% or more is needed to pass.

There are three exam dates per year. These are in March, June, and November. For up-to-date info about exam dates, go to www.mlpao.org/mlat-exam.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the MLPAO MLA/T exam.

This page contains 500 practice questions divided into the thirteen sections of the exam: 1. Standards of Practice, 2. Medical Terminology, 3. Basic Biology, Anatomy and Physiology, 4. Laboratory Mathematics and Quality Assurance, 5. Specimen Procurement, Processing and Data Collection, 6. Laboratory Safety, 7. Laboratory Equipment, 8. Histology and Cytology, 9. Clinical Microbiology, 10. Clinical Chemistry, 11. Clinical Hematology, 12. Transfusion Medicine, and 13. Electrocardiograms.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Check out all the practice tests in this series: Practice Test 1, Practice Test 2, and Practice Test 3.

Sections

  1. Standards of Practice
  2. Medical Terminology
  3. Basic Biology, Anatomy and Physiology
  4. Laboratory Mathematics and Quality Assurance
  5. Specimen Procurement, Processing and Data Collection
  6. Laboratory Safety
  7. Laboratory Equipment
  8. Histology and Cytology
  9. Clinical Microbiology
  10. Clinical Chemistry
  11. Clinical Hematology
  12. Transfusion Medicine
  13. Electrocardiograms

Section 1: Standards of Practice

1.1) Which of these laws primarily concerns data privacy?
  1. HCCA
  2. Ontario Regulation 107/96 Controlled Act
  3. PIPEDA
  4. RHPA
  5. The Canada Health Act
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1.2) What is the term for the mechanisms and processes protecting health information from unauthorized access?
  1. Accountability
  2. Confidentiality
  3. Isolation
  4. Secrecy
  5. Security
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1.3) The obligation of a person or organization to not disclose health information unless authorized by law or the patient is known as:
  1. accountability
  2. confidentiality
  3. privacy
  4. secrecy
  5. security
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1.4) A patient asks a lab assistant for test results. What should the lab assistant do?
  1. Agree to call the patient at home
  2. Give the results to the patient
  3. Let the patient check their results on the lab computer
  4. Print a copy of the results for the patient but keep the original results in the patient's file
  5. Refer the request to the supervisor
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1.5) What do double rings mean on a pipette?
  1. The last drop must be blown out
  2. The pipette can hold 2 mL
  3. The pipette measures a precise volume
  4. The pipette will deliver the measured amount of liquid only at 20°C
  5. The volume is measured at this point
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1.6) The monitoring of laboratory processes to ensure the accuracy of test results is an aspect of:
  1. commercial control
  2. corporate compliance
  3. critical thinking
  4. quality assurance
  5. risk management
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1.7) What is the purpose of a custody seal on a sample container?
  1. To help identify the sample if the container is misplaced
  2. To prevent air from entering the container
  3. To prevent air from escaping from the container
  4. To show whether the container has been tampered with
  5. To show who currently has custody of the container
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1.8) A failure to take proper care over a task is called:
  1. abuse
  2. culpability
  3. fraud
  4. negligence
  5. restitution
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1.9) Which principle of PIPEDA states that an organization must have clear, readily available policies about how it manages personal information?
  1. Accountability
  2. Consent
  3. Individual access
  4. Openness
  5. Safeguards
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1.10) Which principle of PIPEDA states that organizations must be able to explain why they are collecting personal information?
  1. Accountability
  2. Accuracy
  3. Challenging compliance
  4. Identifying purposes
  5. Limiting use, disclosure, and retention
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1.11) How many fair information principles does PIPEDA have?
  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 10
  5. 12
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1.12) Ontario's Health Care Consent Act states that a patient can refuse treatment if they have:
  1. a lawyer
  2. a terminal disease
  3. a treatment plan
  4. mental capacity
  5. private health insurance
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1.13) Which act sets out the rights and duties of all of Ontario's workers?
  1. Canada Health Act
  2. Canadian Human Rights Act
  3. Health Care Consent Act
  4. Occupational Health and Safety Act
  5. Regulated Health Professions Act
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1.14) The Regulated Health Professions Act defines a controlled act as:
  1. a law that can only be changed by the federal government
  2. a law that controls the movement and supply of hazardous materials In Canada
  3. a law that sets the standards for health professionals in Canada
  4. an activity that can cause harm if performed by an unqualified person
  5. an activity that requires the patient’s consent
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1.15) Which of these acts only applies in Ontario?
  1. Access to Information Act
  2. Controlled Drugs and Substances Act
  3. Hazardous Products Act
  4. Personal Health Information Protection Act
  5. Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act
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1.16) The Health Professions Procedural Code is part of which act?
  1. Canada Health Act
  2. Health Care Consent Act
  3. Occupational Health and Safety Act
  4. Personal Health Information Protection Act
  5. Regulated Health Professions Act
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1.17) Which Ontario government agency administers the Laboratory and Specimen Collection Centre Licensing Act, 1990?
  1. Health Professions Appeal and Review Board
  2. HealthForceOntario
  3. Ministry of Economic Development, Job Creation and Trade
  4. Ministry of Labour
  5. Ontario Ministry of Health and Long-Term Care
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1.18) What is the CMLTO?
  1. The national association for medical laboratory technicians in Canada
  2. The national certifying body for medical laboratory assistants in Canada
  3. The provincial association for medical laboratory professionals in Ontario
  4. The provincial governing body for medical laboratory technologists in Ontario
  5. The trade union for medical laboratory technicians in Canada
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1.19) Which Ontario Act governs specimen collection centres and medical laboratories?
  1. CLIA
  2. Canada Health Act
  3. LSCCLA
  4. Laboratory Services Act
  5. MLT Act
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1.20) Who enforces the Personal Health Information Protection Act (PHIPA)?
  1. Health Canada
  2. Information and Privacy Commissioner
  3. Ministry of Health and Long-Term Care
  4. Ontario Human Rights Commission
  5. Public Health Ontario
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1.21) Which principle of the Canada Health Act requires provinces to provide all services deemed medically necessary?
  1. Accessibility
  2. Comprehensiveness
  3. Portability
  4. Public administration
  5. Universality
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1.22) What is the national professional society for Canada's medical laboratory professionals?
  1. ASCLS
  2. ASCP
  3. CMLTO
  4. CSMLS
  5. MLPAO
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Section 2: Medical Terminology

2.1) What does the term "comorbidity" mean?
  1. A clinically insignificant condition
  2. A disease is present in two or more patients
  3. A patient has passed a disease onto someone else
  4. An event in which two patients die at the same time
  5. The presence of two or more health conditions in the same patient
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2.2) What is the term for the production of lymphocytes?
  1. Lymphadenitis
  2. Lymphedema
  3. Lymphocytopenia
  4. Lymphoid
  5. Lymphopoiesis
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2.3) The gap between two neurons is called the:
  1. stimulus
  2. subarachnoid space
  3. subdural space
  4. synapse
  5. ventricle
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2.4) What is the negative log of hydrogen ion concentration better known as?
  1. SG
  2. SI
  3. pH
  4. pKa
  5. the T/S constant
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2.5) What is macrocytosis?
  1. A blood cancer
  2. A high concentration of white blood cells
  3. A platelet deficiency
  4. A tumour
  5. Abnormally large red blood cells
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2.6) An injection into the tissues between the skin and muscle is called a _________ injection.
  1. intradermal
  2. intradermous
  3. intramuscular
  4. intravenous
  5. subcutaneous
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2.7) What is asepsis?
  1. An inflammatory immune response triggered by an infection
  2. Blood clotting
  3. Cell death
  4. The absence of pathogens and infections
  5. The first stage of sepsis
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2.8) What is a frozen section?
  1. A batch of patient blood samples transported on dry ice
  2. A biopsy procedure where a tissue specimen is frozen, cut and then analyzed
  3. A surgical technique that uses freezing cold to kill cancerous cells
  4. A urine sample transported to the lab on dry ice, defrosted and then tested
  5. The part of donated patient blood that forms crystals when frozen
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2.9) Names of enzymes end with which suffix?
  1. -ase
  2. -cyte
  3. -ose
  4. -osis
  5. -phage
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2.10) What does the prefix entero- mean?
  1. Entire
  2. Inside
  3. Intestine
  4. Outside
  5. Stomach
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2.11) Which suffix means 'resembling'?
  1. -eal
  2. -ic
  3. -lith
  4. -oid
  5. -osis
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2.12) What does the medical abbreviation O&P stand for?
  1. Occult platelets
  2. Oncology and pediatrics
  3. Ongoing procedure
  4. Operation and post-operation
  5. Ova and parasites
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2.13) What blood test does the acronym PPT stand for?
  1. Partial thrombin time
  2. Partial thromboplastin time
  3. Proportional thrombin time
  4. Proportional thromboplastin time
  5. Proportional thyroxine time
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2.14) What does the F stand for in FBS test?
  1. Fasting
  2. Fatal
  3. Fetal
  4. Final
  5. First
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2.15) Which term describes the spread of malignant tumours to a distant location?
  1. Anaplasia
  2. Encapsulation
  3. Infiltration
  4. Invasion
  5. Metastasis
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2.16) What is nocturia?
  1. Black urine
  2. Blood in the urine
  3. Difficulty urinating
  4. Excessive urination at night
  5. Pain during a period
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2.17) What is the medical term for fever?
  1. Hypertension
  2. Hypothermia
  3. Pyogenic
  4. Pyrexia
  5. Pyrogenia
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2.18) What is the medical term for fainting?
  1. Edema
  2. Exsanguination
  3. Singultus
  4. Syncope
  5. Vertigo
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2.19) A patient who is 'febrile' has:
  1. a fever
  2. a weak heart rhythm
  3. an infection
  4. low blood sugar
  5. muscle wasting
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2.20) What is the medical term for a heart attack?
  1. Angina
  2. Angina pectoris
  3. Arrhythmia
  4. Cardiomyopathy
  5. Myocardial infarction
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2.21) Coagulation is more commonly known as:
  1. bleeding
  2. clotting
  3. dissolving
  4. mixing
  5. sweating
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2.22) What is the name for the series of reactions that stop blood flow after a cut?
  1. Agglutination
  2. Erythropoiesis
  3. Hemolysis
  4. Hemostasis
  5. Homeostasis
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2.23) Which of the following initiates the coagulation cascade via the extrinsic pathway?
  1. Factor X
  2. Factor XII
  3. Prothrombinase
  4. Thrombin
  5. Tissue factor
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2.24) What is the term for a heartbeat of fewer than 60 beats per minute?
  1. Bradycardia
  2. Endocardia
  3. Epicardia
  4. Myocardia
  5. Tachycardia
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2.25) What is the term for an antigen capable of eliciting an immune response?
  1. Adjuvent
  2. Epitope
  3. Hapten
  4. Immunogen
  5. Paratope
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2.26) Neurons that transmit nerve impulses toward the central nervous system are called ____________ neurons.
  1. bipolar
  2. central
  3. intermediary
  4. motor
  5. sensory
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2.27) A three-base sequence in DNA or RNA is known as a(n):
  1. amino acid
  2. codon
  3. nucleic acid
  4. nucleotide
  5. ribosome
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2.28) What is anemia?
  1. A condition where the bone marrow makes too many red blood cells
  2. A high number of platelets
  3. A low level of healthy red blood cells or hemoglobin
  4. A low level of reticulocytes
  5. An impairment of the body's ability to make blood clots
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2.29) Red blood cells are also known as:
  1. eosinophils
  2. erythrocytes
  3. lymphocytes
  4. monocytes
  5. thrombocytes
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2.30) What does sterile mean?
  1. Free from all living microorganisms
  2. Free from all living microorganisms and spores
  3. Free of all nonpathogens
  4. Free of all pathogens
  5. Produced in a laboratory
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2.31) Icteric serum contains high amounts of:
  1. bacteria
  2. bilirubin
  3. hemolyzed red blood cells
  4. protein
  5. white blood cells
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2.32) Which term means the ability of a procedure to detect only a substance of interest instead of other substances?
  1. Analytical sensitivity
  2. Analytical specificity
  3. Diagnostic sensitivity
  4. Diagnostic specificity
  5. Diagnostic subjectivity
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2.33) What do the letters TCA on a urine drug test stand for?
  1. Target channel adapter
  2. Threshold crossing alert
  3. Trichloroacetic acid
  4. Trichloroethane
  5. Tricyclic antidepressant
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2.34) What is the name for the lung secretion that is tested for malignant cells?
  1. Saliva
  2. Simulacrum
  3. Spittle
  4. Sputum
  5. Synovial fluid
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Section 3: Basic Biology, Anatomy and Physiology

3.1) Occipital, sphenoid, frontal, temporal, and ethmoid are bones of the:
  1. cranium
  2. face
  3. pelvis
  4. spine
  5. thorax
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3.2) From smallest to largest, the levels of organization of the body are:
  1. cellular, chemical, organelle, organ, tissue, system, organism
  2. chemical, microscopic, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism
  3. chemical, organelle, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism
  4. organism, chemical, tissue, cellular, organ, system, organelle
  5. organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, organelle, chemical
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3.3) Around 60% of the human adult body is:
  1. blood
  2. bone
  3. muscle
  4. skin
  5. water
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3.4) Which element is the basis of organic chemistry?
  1. Carbon
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Iron
  4. Nitrogen
  5. Oxygen
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3.5) Insulin stimulates the conversion of glucose to which molecule?
  1. Galactose
  2. Glucagon
  3. Glycogen
  4. Maltose
  5. Sucrose
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3.6) What is the end product of purine metabolism?
  1. Allantoin
  2. Hypoxanthine
  3. Urea
  4. Uric acid
  5. Xanthine
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3.7) When a blood vessel is damaged, what is the first process that occurs?
  1. Coagulation
  2. Hemolysis
  3. Platelet plug formation
  4. Vasoconstriction
  5. Vasodilation
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3.8) Which of these coagulation factors is in the common pathway of coagulation?
  1. Factor II
  2. Factor IX
  3. Factor VII
  4. Factor XI
  5. Factor XIII
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3.9) Which chromosome is only present in males?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. X
  5. Y
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3.10) Formed elements are:
  1. blood plasma
  2. blood serum
  3. the clotting factors in blood
  4. the white blood cells produced during an infection
  5. white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets
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3.11) What causes colloid osmotic pressure in blood?
  1. Proteins in the blood
  2. Proteins in the interstitial fluid
  3. Sodium and chloride ions in the blood
  4. Sodium and chloride ions in the intestinal fluid
  5. The water component of the blood
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3.12) What is the major hematopoietic site in adults?
  1. Blood
  2. Bone marrow
  3. Liver
  4. Lymph nodes
  5. Spleen
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3.13) Which molecule binds to hemoglobin with an affinity 240 times that of oxygen?
  1. ATP
  2. Carbon dioxide
  3. Carbon monoxide
  4. Cholesterol
  5. Water
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3.14) How many heme groups does a hemoglobin molecule have?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
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3.15) Which of these defence mechanisms is non-specific?
  1. B-cell production
  2. Cell-mediated immunity
  3. Skin
  4. T-cell production
  5. The immunologic response
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3.16) During exercise, blood flow within a muscle is increased by:
  1. homogenization
  2. hyalinization
  3. liquidation
  4. precipitation
  5. vasodilatation
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3.17) Which of these hormones is produced by the pituitary gland?
  1. Insulin
  2. T4
  3. TRH
  4. TSH
  5. Testosterone
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3.18) Which hormone lowers blood glucose levels?
  1. FSH
  2. Glucagon
  3. Insulin
  4. Progesterone
  5. T4
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3.19) The pineal gland produces which hormone?
  1. Adrenaline
  2. Aldosterone
  3. Cortisol
  4. Dopamine
  5. Melatonin
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3.20) Which hormone stimulates contractions of the uterus during childbirth?
  1. Human chorionic gonadotropin
  2. Luteinizing hormone
  3. Oestrogen
  4. Oxytocin
  5. Progesterone
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3.21) Which of these is an organ of the endocrine system?
  1. Brain
  2. Large intestine
  3. Pancreas
  4. Spleen
  5. Stomach
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3.22) What is the final part of the digestive system?
  1. Anus
  2. Cecum
  3. Duodenum
  4. Ileum
  5. Rectum
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3.23) Which of these is a disaccharide?
  1. Fructose
  2. Galactose
  3. Glucose
  4. Starch
  5. Sucrose
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3.24) What is the main site for the absorption of digested food?
  1. Kidneys
  2. Large intestine
  3. Liver
  4. Small intestine
  5. Stomach
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3.25) Which sensory neuron responds to changes in the chemical composition of the blood?
  1. Chemoreceptor
  2. Mechanoreceptor
  3. Nociceptor
  4. Photoreceptor
  5. Proprioceptor
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3.26) What type of sensory neuron detects pain?
  1. Chemoreceptor
  2. Electromagnetic receptor
  3. Mechanoreceptor
  4. Nociceptor
  5. Thermoreceptor
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3.27) Which type of neuron sends impulses from the central nervous system to effectors such as muscles and glands?
  1. Chemoreceptor
  2. Interneuron
  3. Motor
  4. Nociceptor
  5. Sensory
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3.28) What is the function of the respiratory system?
  1. To fight off infections
  2. To make enzymes
  3. To regulate the endocrine system
  4. To regulate the heartbeat
  5. To supply oxygen to tissue
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3.29) What is the largest vein in the body?
  1. Aorta
  2. Hepatic portal vein
  3. Iliac vein
  4. Inferior vena cava
  5. Pulmonary vein
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3.30) Cells can secrete out large proteins with the process of:
  1. endocytosis
  2. exocytosis
  3. osmosis
  4. phagocytosis
  5. pinocytosis
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3.31) Which element is found in protein but not in carbohydrates and fats?
  1. Carbon
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Oxygen
  5. Water
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3.32) Which organ system regulates hormone secretion?
  1. Cardiovascular
  2. Digestive
  3. Endocrine
  4. Reproductive
  5. Urinary
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3.33) Meningitis is an infection of which body system?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Digestive
  3. Endocrine
  4. Nervous
  5. Urinary
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3.34) Which of these is a function of the integumentary system?
  1. Digestion of food
  2. Filtration of blood
  3. Production of red blood cells
  4. Regulation of body temperature
  5. Synthesis of insulin
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3.35) Addison's disease, Graves' disease, and Hashimoto's disease are all diseases of which body system?
  1. Cardiovascular
  2. Digestive
  3. Endocrine
  4. Immune
  5. Respiratory
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3.36) Hypotension and arteriosclerosis are diseases of which body system?
  1. Cardiovascular
  2. Endocrine
  3. Genitourinary
  4. Integumentary
  5. Respiratory
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3.37) The kidney is part of which organ system?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Digestive
  3. Endocrine
  4. Lymphatic
  5. Urinary
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3.38) How many kinds of stop codons are there in the genetic code?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
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3.39) Lysosomes contain:
  1. DNA
  2. chromosomes
  3. digestive enzymes
  4. hemoglobin
  5. mitochondria
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3.40) An immature neutrophil is called a:
  1. LE cell
  2. band cell
  3. blast cell
  4. packed cell
  5. reticulocyte
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3.41) Which cells contribute most to blood clotting?
  1. Lymphocytes
  2. Neutrophils
  3. Platelets
  4. Red blood cells
  5. White blood cells
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3.42) What is the blood cell below?
  1. Macrophage
  2. Monocyte
  3. Neutrophil
  4. Platelet
  5. Red blood cell
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3.43) The innate immune system is also called the _________ immune system.
  1. adaptive
  2. cellular
  3. humoral
  4. nonspecific
  5. specialized
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3.44) Hemoglobin is found in which cell?
  1. Basophil
  2. Lymphocyte
  3. Monocyte
  4. Platelet
  5. Red blood cell
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3.45) The presence of which antibody usually indicates a recent or active infection?
  1. IgA
  2. IgC
  3. IgE
  4. IgG
  5. IgM
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3.46) Which antibody can cross the placenta?
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgE
  4. IgG
  5. IgM
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3.47) Which of these is a plasma protein involved in coagulation?
  1. Albumin
  2. Erythropoietin
  3. Fibrinogen
  4. Gamma globulin
  5. Immunoglobulin
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3.48) Which test measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells?
  1. CBC
  2. ESR
  3. Hct
  4. Hgb
  5. MCV
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3.49) Which vein is located on the thumb side of the arm?
  1. Anterior tibial
  2. Cephalic
  3. External iliac
  4. Femoral
  5. Posterior tibial
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3.50) The GTT is a test for:
  1. allergies
  2. kidney function
  3. liver function
  4. sugar metabolism
  5. thyroid function
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Section 4: Laboratory Mathematics and Quality Assurance

4.1) A test gives the following control values:
Day 1 2 3 4
Result (U/L) 1.2 1.5 1.8 2.1
These control values demonstrate a(n):
  1. outlier
  2. random pattern
  3. random variation
  4. repeating pattern
  5. trend
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4.2) How would you prepare a 50 mL 1/10 dilution of bleach?
  1. 1 mL of bleach to 10 mL of water
  2. 5 mL of bleach to 50 mL of water
  3. 5 mL of bleach to 45 mL of water
  4. 10 mL of bleach to 100 mL of water
  5. 100 mL of bleach to 10 mL of water
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4.3) What is one part chemical to five parts water expressed as a dilution factor?
  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5
  5. 6
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4.4) A solution is made by mixing 100 mL of hydrochloric acid with 100 mL of water. What is the %v/v concentration of hydrochloric acid in this solution?
  1. 1%
  2. 10%
  3. 25%
  4. 50%
  5. 100%
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4.5) A lab assistant makes a 1/6 dilution of serum in water. The assistant then performs a glucose test on the diluted serum. The result is 4.0 mmol/L. What result should the lab assistant report to the doctor?
  1. 0.66 mmol/L
  2. 4.0 mmol/L
  3. 24.0 mmol/L
  4. 40.0 mmol/L
  5. 60.0 mmol/L
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4.6) 0.5 mol of solute is dissolved in 1 litre of solution. What is the concentration of the solution in mol/cm³?
  1. 0.0005
  2. 0.02
  3. 2
  4. 200
  5. 500
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4.7) How many grams of NaOH are in 100 mL of a 15% NaOH solution?
  1. 15 g
  2. 30 g
  3. 45 g
  4. 60 g
  5. 75 g
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4.8) A dilution factor of 1/10 means what part specimen and what part diluent?
  1. 1 part specimen, 9 parts diluent
  2. 1 part specimen, 10 parts diluent
  3. 1 part specimen, 10.5 parts diluent
  4. 1 part specimen, 11 parts diluent
  5. 10 parts specimen, 1 part diluent
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4.9) What is the molarity of a 3 L solution that contains 1.2 moles?
  1. 0.4
  2. 1.8
  3. 2.5
  4. 3.6
  5. 5.0
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4.10) Which of these units is the smallest?
  1. Centimetre
  2. Metre
  3. Micrometre
  4. Millimetre
  5. Nanometre
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4.11) What is 37°C in Fahrenheit to the nearest whole number?
  1. 5.5°F
  2. 67.3°F
  3. 37.8°F
  4. 98.6°F
  5. 120.2°F
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4.12) What is 120°F in Celsius rounded to one decimal place?
  1. 40.2°C
  2. 42.9°C
  3. 44.8°C
  4. 46.2°C
  5. 48.9°C
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4.13) What is 2.08691 rounded to three significant figures?
  1. 2.08
  2. 2.086
  3. 2.087
  4. 2.089
  5. 2.09
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4.14) What is 13.55 millimetres rounded to the nearest millimetre?
  1. 13 mm
  2. 13.5 mm
  3. 13.6 mm
  4. 14 mm
  5. 56 mm
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4.15) What is 3.5 × 10⁹ rounded to one significant figure?
  1. 3
  2. 3 × 10⁹
  3. 3.6 × 10⁹
  4. 4
  5. 4 × 10⁹
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4.16) In the equation 3² = 9, the number 2 is called the:
  1. base
  2. exponent
  3. function
  4. logarithm
  5. reciprocal
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4.17) An automated cell counter gives a result of 6,500 cells/mm³. However, the doctor's clinic requires the result in cells/L. What result should you report to the doctor?
  1. 6.5 x 10⁵ cells/L
  2. 6.5 x 10⁶ cells/L
  3. 6.5 x 10⁷ cells/L
  4. 6.5 x 10⁸ cells/L
  5. 6.5 x 10⁹ cells/L
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4.18) What is the value of x in 2ˣ = 16?
  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5
  5. 6
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4.19) 10³ equals:
  1. 30
  2. 100
  3. 300
  4. 1,000
  5. 10,000
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4.20) 100 microlitres is equal to how many millilitres?
  1. 0.01 mL
  2. 0.1 mL
  3. 1 mL
  4. 10 mL
  5. 100.000 mL
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4.21) What is 2,000 cc of blood in litres?
  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 8
  5. 10
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4.22) What is the term for the following graph shape?
  1. Binomial sequence
  2. Normal distribution
  3. Polynomial function
  4. Quadratic chart
  5. Reciprocal graph
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4.23) What does the standard deviation tell you?
  1. How many errors are in the data set
  2. How spread out the data is
  3. The average value in the data set
  4. The most common number in the data set
  5. The number the data tends to cluster around
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4.24) How many of the following quality control results are beyond 2 standard deviations from the mean?
QC results 120, 289, 365, 432, 678
Mean 377
Coefficient of variation 15%
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
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4.25) A test has a mean of 10.0 and a standard deviation of 1.4. If all control values must fall within 2 standard deviations of the mean, what is the acceptable range for the control values?
  1. 7.2–12.8
  2. 8.3–11.7
  3. 8.6–11.4
  4. 8.6–11.7
  5. 9.0–11.0
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4.26) For data distributed normally, how many values are within one standard deviation from the mean?
  1. 50%
  2. 68%
  3. 83%
  4. 95%
  5. 99.7%
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4.27) A thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) quality control chart has the following data for the normal control:
Statistic Value
Count 43
Mean 2.4 mIU/L
2 SD 1.2 mIU/L
Calculate the coefficient of variation for the control.
  1. 25%
  2. 35%
  3. 40%
  4. 50%
  5. 60%
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4.28) Ten patients have the following bilirubin results: 3.1, 3.2, 3.8, 4.1, 4.7, 5.1, 5.9, 6.0, 6.2, 6.9. Calculate the mean of these results.
  1. 4.5
  2. 4.7
  3. 4.9
  4. 5.1
  5. 5.3
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4.29) The value that appears most often in a set of data values is called the:
  1. average
  2. coefficient of variation
  3. mean
  4. median
  5. mode
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4.30) To find the median of an even number of numbers, you should arrange the set in order and:
  1. subtract the mean from the largest number
  2. subtract the smallest number from the largest number
  3. take the mean of the two middle numbers
  4. use the larger of the two middle numbers
  5. use the smaller of the two middle numbers
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4.31) How many millilitres of 5% hydrochloric acid are needed to make 500 mL of 2% hydrochloric acid?
  1. 100
  2. 200
  3. 300
  4. 400
  5. 500
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4.32) A lab technician has a litre of 85% alcohol. How much water must the technician add to the alcohol to dilute it to 70%?
  1. 214 mL
  2. 528 mL
  3. 1,214 mL
  4. 1,528 mL
  5. 2,528 mL
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4.33) What is the formula for calculating a percent w/v solution?
  1. (mass of solute / mass of solution) × 100
  2. (mass of solute / volume of solution) × 100
  3. (volume of solute / volume of solution) × 100
  4. (volume of solution / mass of solute) × 100
  5. (volume of solution / volume of solute) × 100
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4.34) How many grams of sodium chloride are needed to make 300 mL of a 2% m/v solution?
  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 20
  5. 150
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4.35) Type III water can be used for:
  1. cell and tissue cultures
  2. cleaning glassware
  3. gas chromatography
  4. liquid chromatography
  5. molecular biology
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4.36) What is the specific gravity of distilled water at 4°C?
  1. 1.000
  2. 1.001
  3. 1.100
  4. 1.101
  5. 1.111
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4.37) Water that does not contain charged particles is called ________ water.
  1. chlorinated
  2. de-ionized
  3. distilled
  4. flat
  5. heavy
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4.38) Which of these situations would cause random errors?
  1. A lab assistant who reads the volume of liquids in flasks at a different angle every time
  2. A plastic tape measure that has become slightly stretched over the years
  3. A scale that has been incorrectly calibrated and always gives a value 10 g lighter than the real weight
  4. A thermometer that always reads 2 degrees too high
  5. An uncalibrated instrument that consistently gives the same inaccurate reading for the same value being measured
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4.39) A lab technician is counting the number of colonies on an agar plate. She accidentally counts the same colony twice. What type of error is this?
  1. Environmental
  2. Instrumental
  3. Observational
  4. Systematic
  5. Theoretical
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4.40) Which of these is a pre-analytical error?
  1. A light blue top tube filled only halfway
  2. A result reported on the wrong patient
  3. Incorrect calculation of test results
  4. Incorrect interpretation of results
  5. Results sent to the wrong patient
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4.41) Which term means the extent to which measurements agree with the true value?
  1. Accuracy
  2. Agreement
  3. Precision
  4. Reliability
  5. Reproducibility
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4.42) The coefficient of variation is a measure of:
  1. accuracy
  2. central tendency
  3. precision
  4. sensitivity
  5. specificity
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4.43) Precise values:
  1. are always between 0 and 1
  2. are caused by random errors
  3. are close to the true value
  4. are the same as the true value
  5. fall within a narrow range
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4.44) A cancer screening test detects cancer in 95% of people with cancer. What can you confer about this test?
  1. The predictability is 5%
  2. The sensitivity is 5%
  3. The sensitivity is 95%
  4. The specificity is 5%
  5. The specificity is 95%
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4.45) Calculate the positive predictive value for the data below.
True positives 82
True negatives 55
False positives 10
False negatives 5
  1. 83%
  2. 85%
  3. 87%
  4. 89%
  5. 91%
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4.46) A screening test detects disease in a high number of healthy people. This test shows:
  1. high precision
  2. high predictability
  3. high sensitivity
  4. low accuracy
  5. low specificity
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4.47) A new method for diagnosing celiac disease is trialled on 1,200 patients. The method detects 26 true positives, 9 false positives, 1,145 true negatives and 20 false negatives. Calculate the diagnostic sensitivity of the test to one decimal place.
  1. 56.5%
  2. 69.4%
  3. 71.8%
  4. 82.1%
  5. 99.2%
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4.48) What is the formula for calculating diagnostic specificity?
  1. False negatives / (false negatives + true positives)
  2. False negatives / (true negatives + false positives)
  3. False positives / (false positives + true negatives)
  4. True negatives / (true negatives + false positives)
  5. True positives / (true positives + false negatives)
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4.49) A cancer screening test has the following results:
True positives 100
True negatives 15
False positives 85
False negatives 0
The test shows high:
  1. accuracy
  2. reliability
  3. reproducibility
  4. sensitivity
  5. specificity
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4.50) A test with low sensitivity is more likely to give:
  1. a positive predictive value
  2. false negatives
  3. false positives
  4. true negatives
  5. true positives
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4.51) A screening test detects 700 cases of illness in 1,000 sick people and 400 cases of illness in 1,000 healthy people. Calculate the test's sensitivity.
  1. 30%
  2. 40%
  3. 50%
  4. 60%
  5. 70%
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4.52) The following data pertains to a new diagnostic test:
True positives 30
True negatives 40
False positives 12
False negatives 10
Calculate the negative predictive value.
  1. 80%
  2. 82%
  3. 90%
  4. 92%
  5. 93%
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4.53) How often should reagent strips be tested with controls?
  1. Daily
  2. Weekly
  3. Monthly
  4. Every three months
  5. Yearly
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Section 5: Specimen Procurement, Processing and Data Collection

5.1) A phlebotomist is drawing blood from a young boy. The boy's mother is in the room and she says she doesn't like the sight of blood. She looks pale and says she feels faint. The phlebotomist should:
  1. ignore the mother as the focus should be on the child
  2. offer the mother a chair to sit in
  3. take a blood sample from the mother
  4. take the child's blood as quickly as possible to get it over with
  5. tell the mother not to worry
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5.2) If a patient refuses to have blood drawn, you should:
  1. ask the patient for a CSF sample instead
  2. ask the patient for a urine sample instead
  3. notify the patient's nurse or physician
  4. restrain the patient and draw the blood
  5. try to convince the patient to be cooperative
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5.3) A phlebotomist needs to draw an urgent blood sample from a patient who is asleep. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Cancel the test
  2. Come back later when the patient is awake
  3. Draw the sample while the patient is asleep
  4. Take a capillary sample instead
  5. Wake up the patient
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5.4) When drawing a patient's blood, which of these steps should come first?
  1. Apply the tourniquet
  2. Clean the site
  3. Identify the patient
  4. Insert the needle
  5. Palpate the vein
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5.5) A patient has a mastectomy on the right side. What special precaution is needed when drawing blood from this patient?
  1. Check the patient's white blood cell count first
  2. Do not draw blood from the right arm
  3. Make sure the patient is lying down
  4. Make sure the patient is sitting
  5. Perform a finger stick check first
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5.6) Which vein should be tried first when choosing a draw site?
  1. Basilic
  2. Cephalic
  3. Median antibrachial
  4. Median cubital
  5. Superior vena cava
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5.7) What is the purpose of a tourniquet in venipuncture?
  1. To decrease the oxygen level
  2. To make the veins more prominent
  3. To monitor blood pressure
  4. To prevent hematoma
  5. To prevent nerve damage
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5.8) Petechiae appear when a phlebotomist applies a tourniquet to a patient's arm. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Call a nurse
  2. Cancel the draw
  3. Continue with the draw
  4. Perform the draw without a tourniquet
  5. Try the other arm
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5.9) In venipuncture, why must you wait for the alcohol on the puncture site to dry before inserting the needle into the vein?
  1. To ensure all pathogens are killed
  2. To ensure the needle doesn't slip
  3. To prevent a fire hazard
  4. To prevent alcohol from entering the patient's bloodstream
  5. To prevent hemolysis of the specimen
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5.10) What might happen if an angle of 8 degrees is used when performing venipuncture?
  1. A deep hematoma may form
  2. Nothing will happen as this is the correct angle
  3. The needle may enter above the vein
  4. The needle may go completely through the vein
  5. The needle may go through the posterior wall of the vein
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5.11) Which of these actions helps to prevent hemoconcentration during venipuncture?
  1. Asking the patient to make and release a fist several times
  2. Asking the patient to release her fist upon blood flow
  3. Drawing blood from sclerosed or occluded veins
  4. Keeping the tourniquet on for longer than a minute
  5. Massaging the site before inserting the needle
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5.12) Repeated phlebotomy procedures in the same area can cause:
  1. hypertension
  2. petechiae
  3. scarring
  4. thrombosis
  5. varicose veins
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5.13) When a phlebotomist inserts a needle into the patient's arm, bright red blood spurts into the vacutainer. What does this indicate?
  1. A high hematocrit
  2. A low blood pH
  3. An arterial puncture
  4. Carbon monoxide poisoning
  5. Low hemoglobin
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5.14) Which complication could occur if a phlebotomist punctures a baby's calcaneus?
  1. Achilles tendon rupture
  2. Anemia
  3. Hyperglycaemia
  4. Osteomyelitis
  5. Petechiae
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5.15) A phlebotomist is collecting blood from the vein of a 14-month-old baby when the blood stops flowing. Which of these actions should the phlebotomist take to try to continue the draw?
  1. Ask the mother if she can breastfeed the baby
  2. Give the baby something sweet to eat
  3. Release the tourniquet
  4. Try a new tube
  5. Try to collect blood from the baby's heel instead
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5.16) When drawing blood, when should the phlebotomist remove the tourniquet?
  1. After removing the needle from the arm
  2. As soon as a suitable vein has been found
  3. Five minutes after applying the tourniquet
  4. Ten minutes after applying the tourniquet
  5. While the last tube to be drawn is filling
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5.17) Which vacutainer tube has a light yellow top?
  1. PST
  2. SPS
  3. SST
  4. Sodium citrate
  5. Sodium heparin
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5.18) Lavender top tubes contain which additive?
  1. EDTA
  2. Lithium heparin
  3. Sodium fluoride
  4. Sodium heparin
  5. Sodium oxalate
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5.19) Westergren tubes are used for which test?
  1. Differential
  2. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  3. Hematocrit
  4. Microhematocrit
  5. Reticulocyte count
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5.20) Which tube would be drawn for an antinuclear antibody test (ANA)?
  1. Green
  2. Grey
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
  5. SST
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5.21) EDTA prevents clotting by binding to:
  1. anti-hemophilia factor
  2. calcium ions
  3. fibrinogen
  4. prothrombin
  5. white blood cells
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5.22) What special action does a phlebotomist need to take before drawing a blue top tube with a butterfly needle?
  1. Ask the patient to open and close their fist several times
  2. Draw a discard tube
  3. Get a bucket of ice ready
  4. Label the tube
  5. Make sure the patient is lying down
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5.23) Which of these tests is collected in a light blue top tube?
  1. Differential
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Platelet count
  4. Prothrombin time
  5. Red blood cell count
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5.24) A phlebotomist has to collect a purple top tube, green top tube, and light blue top tube from the same patient. In which order should the phlebotomist fill the tubes?
  1. Green, light blue, purple
  2. Green, purple, light blue
  3. Light blue, green, purple
  4. Light blue, purple, green
  5. Purple, green, light blue
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5.25) A phlebotomist has finished drawing blood into a citrate tube for PT testing. However, the blood in the tube is below the minimum line. The phlebotomist should:
  1. fill another citrate tube partly full and mix the two tubes
  2. mark the tube QNS
  3. pour a little blood from another tube into the citrate tube
  4. repeat the procedure with a new citrate tube
  5. submit the tube for testing as usual
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5.26) What is the purpose of the gel in SST blood collection tubes?
  1. To indicate whether glucose has been used by any organisms in the blood
  2. To prevent glycolysis
  3. To prevent the blood from clotting
  4. To separate DNA, RNA, or proteins according to molecular size
  5. To separate blood cells from serum or plasma during centrifugation
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5.27) Blue-top coagulation tubes require a citrate-to-blood ratio of:
  1. 1:3
  2. 1:6
  3. 1:9
  4. 1:12
  5. 1:15
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5.28) Which anticoagulant is used for blood gas tests?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Potassium oxalate
  4. Sodium fluoride
  5. Trisodium citrate
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5.29) Which of these would be the best choice of equipment for drawing blood from a small hand vein?
  1. A 21-gauge needle and ETS holder
  2. A 21-gauge needle and syringe
  3. A 23-gauge butterfly and ETS holder
  4. A 27-gauge butterfly and syringe
  5. A 29-gauge needle and syringe
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5.30) After use, venipuncture needles should be:
  1. discarded into a sharps container
  2. discarded into an autoclave bag
  3. discarded into recycling
  4. discarded into the garbage
  5. reused
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5.31) A phlebotomist has just finished collecting blood samples from a patient. However, the phlebotomist realises she has forgotten to collect a tube. What should she do?
  1. Ask the patient to schedule another appointment
  2. Perform a second collection for the missing tube
  3. Redraw all the tubes
  4. Transfer some blood from a full tube to the empty tube
  5. Write "not collected" on the empty tube and ask a manager to sign it
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5.32) Five minutes after a blood draw, the patient is still bleeding from the venipuncture site. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Apply a pressure bandage to the patient
  2. Give the patient an anti-inflammatory medication
  3. Notify the patient's nurse
  4. Stop applying pressure to the venipuncture site
  5. Tell the patient it is okay to leave
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5.33) A lab technician is performing a microhematocrit. She collects a blood sample in a microhematocrit tube and inverts the tube carefully to mix the blood with the heparin. What must the she do next before putting the tube in the centrifuge?
  1. Add controlled volumes of saline to the tube
  2. Add washed sensitized cells to the tube
  3. Mix the sample with glass beads
  4. Remove gloves and wash hands
  5. Seal one end of the tube with clay
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5.34) Which of these specimens should NOT be centrifuged?
  1. Prostate specific antigen
  2. Complete blood count
  3. Glucose
  4. Prothrombin time
  5. Vitamin B12
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5.35) You are performing a rapid strep test on an eight-year-old girl. However, when you try to swab the back of her throat, she refuses to open her mouth. She says the swab scares her. What should you do?
  1. Force the swab into her mouth
  2. Scold her for behaving badly
  3. Swab her nose instead
  4. Swab the inside of her ear instead
  5. Talk to her about the test
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5.36) A member of the clergy is with a patient when you arrive to collect a routine specimen. What should you do?
  1. Ask the patient's nurse what you should do
  2. Come back after the clergy member has gone
  3. Fill out a form saying you were unable to collect the specimen
  4. Give the clergy member your phone number and tell him to call you when he has finished
  5. Interrupt and explain you need to collect a specimen from the patient
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5.37) Which area on a newborn is suitable for skin puncture?
  1. Any calloused areas of the foot
  2. The lateral, flat portion of the heel
  3. The posterior curvature of the heel
  4. The second or third finger on either hand
  5. The thumb on either hand
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5.38) What is the maximum lancet size for heel punctures on babies?
  1. 1 mm
  2. 2 mm
  3. 3 mm
  4. 4 mm
  5. 5 mm
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5.39) Which sample does the glycosylated hemoglobin test require?
  1. Cerebrospinal fluid
  2. Plasma
  3. Serum
  4. Urine
  5. Whole blood
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5.40) Stool specimens for O&P should be collected in a jar containing:
  1. SAF fixative
  2. a buffer
  3. agar
  4. saline
  5. sodium hypochlorite
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5.41) When collecting a semen sample, the patient should:
  1. collect the entire ejaculate, including the first drops
  2. keep the sample on ice during transport
  3. use a latex condom
  4. use a lubricant
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5.42) A swab must be inserted how far into the nasal cavity to reach the nasopharynx?
  1. 1–2 cm
  2. 3–4 cm
  3. 5–6 cm
  4. 7–8 cm
  5. 9–10 cm
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5.43) Which of these foods should a patient avoid eating before a fecal occult blood test?
  1. Fish
  2. Oranges
  3. Popcorn
  4. Red meat
  5. Whole wheat bread
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5.44) Throat swabs are often taken to diagnose:
  1. bleeding ulcers
  2. hepatitis
  3. herpes zoster
  4. streptococcus
  5. typhoid fever
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5.45) Pregnancy test strips detect the presence of which hormone?
  1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
  2. Estrogen
  3. Human chorionic gonadotropin
  4. Human placental lactogen
  5. Progesterone
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5.46) The sweat test is used to diagnose which disease?
  1. Cystic fibrosis
  2. Infection
  3. Muscular dystrophy
  4. Pneumonia
  5. Sarcomas
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5.47) There are two reasons why phlebotomists should wipe away the first drop of blood when performing a capillary puncture. The first reason is to remove traces of alcohol. What is the second reason?
  1. The first drop of blood contains excess tissue fluid
  2. The first drop of blood is high in clotting factors
  3. To increase blood flow to the area
  4. To keep the patient calm
  5. To remove pathogens
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5.48) Which of these is an acceptable needle gauge for an arterial puncture?
  1. 10
  2. 18
  3. 20
  4. 28
  5. 31
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5.49) Which sample does a 17-hydroxycorticosteroids test require?
  1. 24-hour urine
  2. 72-hour stool
  3. Heparinized plasma
  4. Random urine
  5. Serum
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5.50) The creatinine clearance test:
  1. is a liver function test
  2. requires a blood sample and a 24-hour urine collection
  3. requires the patient to be fasting at the onset of testing
  4. requires timed blood samples to be drawn
  5. requires urine samples only
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5.51) What sample is needed for the Hemoccult test?
  1. Blood
  2. Sputum
  3. Stool
  4. Sweat
  5. Urine
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5.52) Which urine collection technique involves collecting the urine by inserting a sterile needle into the patient's bladder through the abdominal wall?
  1. Biopsy
  2. Dipstick test
  3. Necropsy
  4. Suprapubic aspiration
  5. Urinary catheter
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5.53) What preservative is needed for total protein 24-hour urine tests?
  1. Boric acid
  2. Chlorhexidine
  3. HCl
  4. NaHCO₃
  5. No preservative
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5.54) Which of these is the most important part of blood culture collection?
  1. Adequately filling two media vials
  2. Asepsis of the collection site
  3. Ensuring the patient is fasting
  4. Selecting the collection site
  5. Timing of the second set of cultures
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5.55) Which of these tests requires chain of custody documentation?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Fetal fibronectin
  3. Free light chains test
  4. Legal paternity test
  5. Prothrombin time
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5.56) Which of the following is NOT required on a chain of custody form?
  1. The date the specimen was collected
  2. The name of the patient's doctor
  3. The name of the person who collected the specimen
  4. The time the specimen was collected
  5. The type of specimen collected
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5.57) You puncture a patient's finger for a finger stick blood test but no blood comes out. What should you do?
  1. Cancel the requisition
  2. Cool the finger using an ice pack
  3. Puncture the site again
  4. Scrape the puncture site against the test strip
  5. Squeeze the finger
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5.58) Why should finger punctures be made at right angles to fingerprint striations?
  1. To ensure the needle fully enters the skin
  2. To facilitate blood sample collection
  3. To prevent excessive bleeding
  4. To prevent scar formation
  5. To reduce pain
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5.59) Why should capillary puncture never be performed on an infant’s finger?
  1. It could cause excessive blood loss
  2. It could damage bones and nerves
  3. The blood in the finger does not represent blood in the rest of the body
  4. The fingers are needed for venipuncture
  5. There is a high risk the infant will move their finger during the puncture
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5.60) Which of these is an appropriate way for a patient to protect a semen sample between collection and testing?
  1. Keep the sample on ice
  2. Refrigerate the sample
  3. Use a hot water bottle to keep the sample warm
  4. Wrap the sample in aluminum foil
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5.61) Which of these chemicals can be used to preserve 24-hour urines for endocrine testing?
  1. Acetone
  2. Boric acid
  3. Potassium chloride
  4. Sodium bicarbonate
  5. Sodium hypochlorite
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5.62) Which of these urine constituents increases in a urine specimen left at room temperature?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Ketones
  3. Leukocytes
  4. Nitrites
  5. Urobilinogen
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5.63) Extra precautions are necessary when labelling specimens for:
  1. C&S
  2. HIV
  3. blood typing
  4. factor assays
  5. therapeutic drug monitoring
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5.64) When shipping infectious substances, where should you write the technical name of the infectious agent?
  1. On the Shipper’s Declaration
  2. On the air waybill
  3. On the outside packaging
  4. On the primary container
  5. On the secondary container
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5.65) Before you perform urinalysis on a refrigerated urine specimen, you should bring the urine to room temperature and _______ it.
  1. boil
  2. centrifuge
  3. filter
  4. freeze
  5. stir
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5.66) Which test typically requires a refrigerated stool specimen?
  1. Fecal fat
  2. Guaiac
  3. Lipid profile
  4. Occult blood
  5. Ove and parasites
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Section 6: Laboratory Safety

6.1) When trying to fix an electrical machine, your first action should be to:
  1. replace old cables
  2. replace the circuit boards
  3. replace the fuses
  4. turn off all electricity to the lab
  5. turn the machine off
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6.2) A skin cut is an example of which link in the chain of infection?
  1. Infectious agent
  2. Mode of transmission
  3. Portal of entry
  4. Reservoir
  5. Susceptible host
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6.3) In which of these situations should a lab technician remove their gloves?
  1. Before carrying specimens through a designated clean area
  2. Before loading the autoclave
  3. Before using a restroom
  4. For cleaning a chemical spill
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6.4) Which of the following is an example of regulated waste?
  1. Disposable ear speculums
  2. Empty medicine bottles
  3. Patient gowns
  4. Sterile dressings
  5. Used blood tubes
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6.5) Which of the following should be observed during the incineration of medical waste?
  1. Disinfect all articles before burning them
  2. Make sure at least three people are present
  3. Make sure complete burning takes place
  4. Make sure the temperature reaches at least 12,000°C
  5. Sanitize all articles before burning them
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6.6) What do Class C fires involve?
  1. Combustible metals
  2. Cooking oils
  3. Electrical equipment
  4. Flammable liquids
  5. Paper and wood
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6.7) CO₂ fire extinguishers are effective against which type of fire?
  1. Flammable gas
  2. Flammable liquid
  3. Magnesium
  4. Paper
  5. Wood
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6.8) Which fire extinguisher is best for electrical fires?
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. AFFF foam
  3. ABC powder
  4. Dry powder
  5. Water mist
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6.9) What is the most common type of fire extinguisher in clinical laboratories?
  1. ABC
  2. Carbon dioxide charged
  3. Class A
  4. Class B
  5. Class C
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6.10) Class A fires involve:
  1. combustible metals
  2. cooking oils
  3. electrical equipment
  4. flammable liquids
  5. paper and wood
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6.11) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: This fire extinguisher:
  1. can be used on fires involving flammable liquids or gases
  2. is highly flammable
  3. requires annual top-ups of type B fuel
  4. should be stored in a separate room from flammable chemicals
  5. uses kerosene to extinguish fires
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6.12) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: The fire extinguisher:
  1. can be used to extinguish electrical fires
  2. cannot be used on electrical equipment
  3. carries a risk of electric shock
  4. needs to be kept grounded
  5. requires charging before use
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6.13) The fire extinguisher below can be used on which of the following fires?
  1. Electrical equipment
  2. Methanol
  3. Oil bath
  4. Cardboard boxes
  5. Hydrogen
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6.14) What are the three components of the fire triangle?
  1. Oxygen, heat, and fuel
  2. Oxygen, ignition, and fuel
  3. Rescue, Alarm, 911
  4. Rescue, Alarm, Escape
  5. Rescue, Alarm, Extinguish
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6.15) What is the first step when using a fire extinguisher?
  1. Aim the fire extinguisher at the fire
  2. Call the manufacturer's phone number
  3. Pull the pin
  4. Squeeze the handle
  5. Sweep the hose from side to side at the base of the fire
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6.16) Class D fires involve:
  1. combustible metals
  2. cooking oils
  3. electrical equipment
  4. flammable liquids
  5. paper and wood
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6.17) Which rating of fire extinguisher is used in chemical fires?
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. K
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6.18) Which of these is a good practice when working with strong acids?
  1. Keep a weak acid nearby to neutralize the strong acid in case of a spill
  2. Wear eye protection
  3. Wear latex gloves
  4. Wear open-toed shoes
  5. When mixing acid and water, always add the water to the acid, not the other way around
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6.19) If a chemical produces harmful vapours, it should be used in a:
  1. autoclave
  2. biological safety cabinet
  3. fume hood
  4. public space
  5. sealed room
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6.20) You accidentally breathe in picric acid. After moving outside to fresh air, what should be your next step?
  1. Ask someone to perform CPR
  2. Ask someone to perform artificial respiration
  3. Drink several glasses of water
  4. Self-induce vomiting
  5. Take several deep breaths
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6.21) What is the term for a chemical that immediately damages human tissue on contact?
  1. Carcinogenic
  2. Combustible
  3. Corrosive
  4. Flammable
  5. Toxic
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6.22) When mixing acid and water:
  1. add the acid quickly to the water
  2. add the acid slowly to the water
  3. add the water quickly to the acid
  4. add the water slowly to the acid
  5. it makes no difference how they are mixed
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6.23) Dry ice is dangerous because it burns, suffocates and:
  1. can cause a viral Infection
  2. can cause cancer
  3. can explode
  4. catches fire when exposed to air
  5. is highly toxic
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6.24) Drabkin's solution is dangerous because it contains:
  1. acetone
  2. cyanide
  3. lead
  4. mercury
  5. sulphur
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6.25) You find an old bottle of picric acid in the laboratory. The picric acid is dry. There are crystals in the bottle. How should you dispose of it?
  1. Call a bomb disposal service
  2. Dilute it with water and pour it down the drain
  3. Dilute it with water and pour it into a hazardous waste container
  4. Pour it down the drain
  5. Send it for incineration
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6.26) Which of these is an example of personal protective equipment (PPE)?
  1. A fire extinguisher
  2. A first aid kit
  3. A hand-washing station
  4. Fire blankets
  5. Gloves
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6.27) Which type of glove has the highest resistance to permeation by gases?
  1. Butyl
  2. Neoprene
  3. Nitrile
  4. PVC
  5. Rubber
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6.28) When visiting a patient in enteric isolation, staff must wear gloves and what other item of equipment?
  1. Gown
  2. Hazard suit
  3. Helmet
  4. Lead apron
  5. Shoe covers
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6.29) The three main types of ionizing radiation are alpha, beta and:
  1. delta
  2. gamma
  3. lambda
  4. theta
  5. zeta
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6.30) Gamma radiation is usually shielded with:
  1. aluminum
  2. glass
  3. lead
  4. paper
  5. steel
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6.31) What does ABC stand for in first aid?
  1. Active body control
  2. Airway, breathing, and circulation
  3. Always be careful
  4. Arms, back, collar bone
  5. Attention, beware, check
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6.32) When administering CPR, you should give:
  1. 40 compressions followed by 1 breath
  2. 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths
  3. 20 compressions followed by 5 breaths
  4. 10 compressions followed by 10 breaths
  5. 5 compressions followed by 15 breaths
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6.33) Where should you place your hands for CPR?
  1. The centre of the chest
  2. The diaphragm
  3. The pectoral muscles
  4. The pelvis
  5. The stomach
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6.34) In first aid, what does the D of the ABCDE approach stand for?
  1. Dehydration
  2. Disability
  3. Dizziness
  4. Drug allergy
  5. Drug overdose
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6.35) A patient is experiencing hives, difficulty breathing, and sneezing. The patient is most likely:
  1. experiencing insulin overdose
  2. going into anaphylactic shock
  3. having a heart attack
  4. having a stroke
  5. hyperventilating
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6.36) In the event of an acid burn, what should your first action be?
  1. Call 911
  2. Cover the burn with gauze moistened in sterile saline
  3. Flush the area with water
  4. Go to the emergency department
  5. Neutralize the acid with sodium bicarbonate
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6.37) Which of these is most likely to occur when an individual lifts a heavy object or overworks a muscle?
  1. Fracture
  2. Laceration
  3. Neuropathy
  4. Sprain
  5. Strain
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6.38) What is the first step in caring for a wound with significant bleeding?
  1. Add bulky dressings to reinforce blood-soaked bandages
  2. Apply direct pressure with a sterile or clean dressing
  3. Apply pressure at a pressure point
  4. Ask the casualty to recite the alphabet
  5. check their blood glucose level with a glucose meter
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6.39) According to Ontario Regulation 682, positive lab findings that indicate the presence of a communicable disease must be reported to the medical officer of health:
  1. immediately
  2. within 12 hours
  3. within 24 hours
  4. within one month
  5. at the supervisor’s discretion
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6.40) In the chain of infection, which link comes after the portal of exit and before the portal of entry?
  1. Infectious agent
  2. Mode of transmission
  3. Portal of transition
  4. Reservoir
  5. Susceptible host
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6.41) Which mode of transmission involves the transfer of infectious agents from one person to another during physical contact with blood or other body fluids?
  1. Aerosol
  2. Direct contact
  3. Droplets
  4. Indirect contact
  5. Vectors
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6.42) Which section of a safety data sheet gives the flammability of a chemical?
  1. Accidental release measures
  2. Handling and storage
  3. Identification
  4. Physical and chemical properties
  5. Transport information
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6.43) Which of these items of information is found on a safety data sheet?
  1. Expiry date
  2. Health hazards
  3. Price
  4. Production date
  5. Recommended reading list
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6.44) How many sections are in a standard GHS safety data sheet?
  1. 4
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 12
  5. 16
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6.45) Which of these is NOT found on a safety data sheet?
  1. Physical characteristics
  2. Fire potential
  3. Health hazards
  4. Safe handling measures
  5. Noise level
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6.46) Who is responsible for preparing safety data sheets?
  1. The customer
  2. The end-user
  3. The government
  4. The laboratory manager
  5. The manufacturer
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6.47) What does this pictogram mean?
  1. Flammable
  2. Oxidizing
  3. Radioactive
  4. Self-heating
  5. Self-reactive
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6.48) What does this pictogram mean?
  1. Biohazard
  2. Carcinogenic
  3. Corrosive
  4. Radioactive
  5. Toxic
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6.49) On the NFPA hazard diamond below, what do the letters SA mean?
  1. Can shock and/or cause acid damage
  2. Contains selenium and/or argon
  3. Safety assessed
  4. Simple asphyxiant
  5. Substance abuse
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6.50) Where should bulk quantities of acetone be kept?
  1. Biological safety cabinet
  2. Flammable storage cabinet
  3. Freezer
  4. Fume hood
  5. Refrigerator
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6.51) What is the correct place to store a stock solution of ethanol?
  1. Biological safety cabinet
  2. Flammable safety cabinet
  3. Freezer
  4. Fume hood
  5. Refrigerator
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6.52) Always keep picric acid:
  1. dry
  2. frozen
  3. refrigerated
  4. ventilated
  5. wet
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6.53) How should ethers be stored?
  1. In airtight bottles
  2. In the light
  3. In the refrigerator
  4. Next to oxidizers
  5. Underwater
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6.54) In which of these situations is a workplace label NOT required?
  1. A hazardous product is made at the workplace and used in that workplace
  2. A hazardous product is poured into a container and it is used immediately
  3. A hazardous product is transferred into another container
  4. A supplier label becomes lost or illegible
  5. A supplier label does not meet the Hazardous Products Regulations
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6.55) Which of these items of information is NOT required on a supplier label of a hazardous product?
  1. A hazard statement describing the nature of the hazard posed by the product
  2. A hazard symbol
  3. The contact details of the Canadian manufacturer or the Canadian importer
  4. The name of the product
  5. The website of the Canadian manufacturer or the Canadian importer
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6.56) Under WHMIS 2015, supplier labels must:
  1. be in English and French
  2. contain a photo of the hazardous product
  3. follow a set format
  4. have a hatched border
  5. have a reference to the supplier's social media pages
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6.57) Cold sterilization uses _________ to sterilize medical instruments.
  1. chemicals
  2. cold air
  3. ice
  4. liquid nitrogen
  5. pressure
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6.58) Which concentration of bleach is used to decontaminate benchtops?
  1. 10%
  2. 20%
  3. 30%
  4. 40%
  5. 50%
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6.59) Which of these dilutions is the most effective disinfectant?
  1. 1% ethyl alcohol
  2. 10% ethyl alcohol
  3. 40% ethyl alcohol
  4. 70% ethyl alcohol
  5. 100% ethyl alcohol
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6.60) Which of these microbial agents does not respond to the general rules about microbial inactivation and decontamination?
  1. Bacillus anthracis
  2. Coccidioides immitis
  3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  4. Prions
  5. Smallpox
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6.61) How many Risk Groups are microorganisms classified into?
  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5
  5. 6
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6.62) Class 1 hazardous materials are:
  1. corrosive
  2. explosive
  3. infectious
  4. poisonous
  5. radioactive
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6.63) The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals has two signal words for hazardous chemicals: "Danger" and:
  1. Attention
  2. Caution
  3. Hazardous
  4. Notice
  5. Warning
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Section 7: Laboratory Equipment

7.1) You should start timing the autoclave when the desired temperature for the autoclave is reached and:
  1. steam enters the inner sterilizing chamber
  2. the autoclave door opens
  3. the pressure reaches 15 lbs per square inch
  4. the sterilization indicator changes colour
  5. the warning light starts flashing
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7.2) Where should sterilization indicators be placed in an autoclave?
  1. Close to the air exhaust valve
  2. In the center of each article
  3. On the bottom shelf of the autoclave
  4. On the outside of each pack
  5. Outside the autoclave
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7.3) The proper time for sterilizing an article in the autoclave:
  1. is approximately 5 to 10 minutes
  2. is approximately 10 to 15 minutes
  3. is approximately 15 to 20 minutes
  4. depends on the type of indicator being used
  5. depends on what is being autoclaved
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7.4) What type of water does an autoclave use?
  1. Carbonated water
  2. Distilled water
  3. Mineral water
  4. Saltwater
  5. Tap water
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7.5) Wrapped articles must be allowed to dry before removing them from the autoclave. This is because packs that are wet will:
  1. cause an inaccurate result on the autoclave tape
  2. cause inaccurate results on the sterilization indicator
  3. draw microorganisms into the pack
  4. rust metal instruments
  5. tear the wrapper
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7.6) Why is it important to remove all the air from an autoclave before sterilization?
  1. Air causes cold spots in the autoclave
  2. Air increases the risk of explosion
  3. Air prevents the chemical reaction between steam and the glassware
  4. Any water in the air will dilute the sterilizing agents
  5. Steam can break the glassware
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7.7) Which method of sterilization uses steam under pressure?
  1. Dry heat autoclaving
  2. Dry oven
  3. Filtration
  4. Microwaving
  5. Moist heat autoclaving
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7.8) Which of the following methods results in sterilization?
  1. Autoclaving
  2. Chemical disinfectants
  3. Freezing
  4. Refrigeration
  5. Soap and water
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7.9) What is the temperature of a laboratory refrigerator?
  1. −4°C
  2. 0°C
  3. 3°C
  4. 20°C
  5. 37°C
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7.10) Which pH buffer solution is typically used first when calibrating a pH meter?
  1. pH 1
  2. pH 4
  3. pH 7
  4. pH 10
  5. pH 14
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7.11) What is the universal solvent?
  1. 0.85% sodium chloride
  2. 10% ethanol
  3. 8.5% NaCl
  4. Absolute alcohol
  5. Water
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7.12) The main use of a buffer is to:
  1. accentuate changes in pH
  2. keep a solution neutral
  3. make a solution more acidic
  4. make a solution more basic
  5. minimize changes in pH
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7.13) Which of these statements best describes preventive maintenance?
  1. Ensuring proper disposal of waste
  2. Fixing things before they break
  3. Identifying unexpected failures
  4. Repairing equipment after it fails
  5. Turning off machines when they are not in use
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7.14) Stray light can be measured in spectrophotometers with:
  1. a cut-off filter
  2. a mercury-vapour lamp
  3. a potassium dichromate solution
  4. deionized water
  5. holmium oxide glass
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7.15) Which instrument is used to measure urine hydrogen ion concentration?
  1. Coulter counter
  2. Microscope
  3. Refractometer
  4. Spectrophotometer
  5. pH meter
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7.16) What is the universal solvent?
  1. 0.85% sodium chloride
  2. 10% ethanol
  3. 8.5% sodium chloride
  4. Pure ethanol
  5. Water
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7.17) If a compound microscope is ____________, the sample will remain in focus when you zoom in and out.
  1. convergent
  2. divergent
  3. focused
  4. parfocal
  5. unifocal
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7.18) Which microscope is most used in clinical laboratories?
  1. Dark-field
  2. Electron
  3. Florescent
  4. Light
  5. Phase-contrast
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7.19) When focusing a microscope, which objective should you begin with?
  1. 10x
  2. 40x
  3. 100x
  4. 1000x
  5. High power
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7.20) You notice dirt in the field of view while using a microscope. The dirt moves when you rotate the eyepiece. What action should you take?
  1. Clean the eyepiece
  2. Clean the objective
  3. Open the iris
  4. Rotate the diopter adjustment rings
  5. Tighten the tension adjustment
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7.21) Pipettes marked TC are:
  1. allowed to drain freely
  2. marked with a double ring at the mouthpiece
  3. more common than TD pipettes
  4. rinsed out after delivery
  5. used for toxic, corrosive liquids
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7.22) Which of these items of glassware is made to deliver specific volumes?
  1. Beaker
  2. Erlenmeyer flask
  3. Round-bottom flask
  4. Volumetric flask
  5. Volumetric pipette
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7.23) Which glassware is used to measure 24-hour urine volumes?
  1. Beaker
  2. Erlenmeyer flask
  3. Graduated cylinder
  4. Graduated pipette
  5. Volumetric flask
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7.24) You have been tasked with decontaminating the centrifuge. The lab manual says to use a 10% bleach solution to decontaminate the centrifuge. However, no bleach is available. What would be the most suitable alternative?
  1. 70% ethanol
  2. Antibacterial soap and water
  3. Hydrogen sulfide
  4. Povidone-iodine
  5. Sodium bicarbonate
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7.25) Which of the following is part of preventative maintenance for a centrifuge?
  1. Cleaning under the centrifuge
  2. Ensuring the centrifuge is balanced
  3. Inspecting the power cords for damage
  4. Keeping the centrifuge in an easy-to-reach location
  5. Moving the centrifuge to a new location
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7.26) What is the most important rule when using a centrifuge?
  1. All buckets must be full before turning on the centrifuge
  2. Always balance the tubes placed inside
  3. Make sure to set the rheostat at 3000 rpm for the top speed
  4. Make sure to set the timer
  5. Never remove the rubber cushions in the cups
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7.27) What kind of centrifuge counters heat generated during high speeds?
  1. Angle head
  2. Cytospin
  3. Microhematocrit
  4. Refridgerated
  5. Ultracentrifuge
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7.28) Before turning on a centrifuge, make sure:
  1. all liquid specimen tubes are uncovered
  2. the centrifuge is balanced
  3. the centrifuge is on a slanted surface
  4. the cover is open
  5. you are wearing open-toed shoes
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Section 8: Histology and Cytology

8.1) How much of formalin is formaldehyde?
  1. 3.7–4.0%
  2. 10%
  3. 37–40%
  4. 77–80%
  5. 100%
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8.2) Which of these is a fixative?
  1. Cytospray
  2. Giemsa
  3. Hematoxylin
  4. Methylene blue
  5. Wright's stain
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8.3) Buffered commercial formalin is approximately ____ formaldehyde gas by weight/volume.
  1. 4%
  2. 10%
  3. 40%
  4. 70%
  5. 100%
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8.4) Which of these is the slowest method of decalcification?
  1. EDTA
  2. Formic acid
  3. Hydrochloric acid
  4. Nitric acid
  5. Perenyi’s fluid
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8.5) Which of these is a disadvantage of xylene as a clearing agent?
  1. Expensive
  2. Immiscible with paraffin wax
  3. Removes aniline dyes
  4. Slow
  5. Toxic
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8.6) What is the purpose of tissue infiltration?
  1. To give structural support to the tissue
  2. To keep the cells alive
  3. To rehydrate the tissue
  4. To remove bacteria from the tissue
  5. To remove water from the tissue
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8.7) There are white patches on slides after the deparaffinization step. Which of these could be the cause?
  1. The dye was overoxidized
  2. The dye was too acidic
  3. The dye was too alkaline
  4. The slides were in xylene for an insufficient amount of time
  5. The slides were too dry before deparaffinization
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8.8) Which of these is a decalcification agent?
  1. Ammonia
  2. EDTA
  3. Formalin
  4. Toluene
  5. Xylene
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8.9) What is the most commonly used wax for infiltration?
  1. Bayberry
  2. Ceresin
  3. Microcrystalline
  4. Paraffin
  5. Spermaceti
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8.10) A histologist is cutting tissue into sections using a microtome. However, the tissue sections keep sticking to the block on the return stroke. Which of the following actions would correct the problem?
  1. Cool the block with ice
  2. Decalcify the block
  3. Increase the clearance angle
  4. Place the sections in the water bath
  5. Tighten the knife in the holder
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8.11) Approximately how thick is a histological section?
  1. 5–10 µm
  2. 50–100 µm
  3. 0.5–1 mm
  4. 5–10 mm
  5. 50–100 mm
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8.12) What is the most widely used medium for infiltration and embedding?
  1. Formic acid
  2. Liquid nitrogen
  3. Paraffin wax
  4. Permount
  5. Xylene
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8.13) Tissue flotation baths are set at what temperature?
  1. 30–40°C
  2. 40–50°C
  3. 50–60°C
  4. 60–70°C
  5. 70–80°C
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8.14) A lab technician cuts paraffin sections and places them in a water bath. However, the sections do not flatten properly and remain wrinkled. What should the lab technician do?
  1. Change the water in the water bath
  2. Check the water bath for air bubbles
  3. Cut the sections smaller
  4. Increase the temperature of the water bath
  5. Place the sections in a vacuum integration bath
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8.15) Which two stains are routinely used in Pap stains?
  1. Hematoxylin and eosin
  2. Methenamine silver and mucicarmine
  3. Methylene blue and oil red
  4. Periodic acid-Schiff-diastase and azur
  5. Perl's Prussian blue and mucicarmine
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8.16) What colour is hematoxylin?
  1. Blue-purple
  2. Green
  3. Orange
  4. Pink-purple
  5. Red
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8.17) What is the decolourizer in H&E staining?
  1. Acid-alcohol
  2. Eosin
  3. Hematoxylin
  4. Orange G
  5. Peroxide
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8.18) The Pap stain stains which structure blue, purple or black?
  1. Cytoplasm
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Keratin
  4. Mitochondria
  5. Nuclei
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8.19) What colour is eosin?
  1. Blue
  2. Green
  3. Orange
  4. Pink
  5. Yellow
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8.20) Which of these is a common ripening agent for hematoxylin?
  1. Hematin
  2. Hydrochloric acid
  3. Iron
  4. Sodium iodate
  5. Tungsten
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8.21) The Pap stain is an important tool in the detection of which disease?
  1. Cervical cancer
  2. Cushing's syndrome
  3. Granulomatosis
  4. Muscular dystrophy
  5. Pernicious anemia
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8.22) In regressive staining, tissue sections are ___________ and then differentiated with dilute acid until the optimal endpoint is reached.
  1. dehydrated
  2. flattened
  3. hydrated
  4. overstained
  5. sectioned
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8.23) A section is prepared with H&E staining. Under the microscope, the nuclei appear too pale. Which of these could be the cause?
  1. Insufficient dehydration
  2. The pH of the eosin solution was above 5.0
  3. The section was not dried properly before beginning deparaffinization
  4. Understaining with eosin
  5. Understaining with hematoxylin
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8.24) Cytological smears are usually fixed with:
  1. 10% alcohol
  2. 2% formalin
  3. 20% formalin
  4. 95% alcohol
  5. toluene
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8.25) What can be added to synovial fluid to reduce its viscosity?
  1. 0.05% hyaluronidase
  2. 1% ammonium hydroxide
  3. 10x phosphate-buffered saline
  4. 5% acetic acid
  5. sodium chloride
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Section 9: Clinical Microbiology

9.1) Why are bacterial smears heat-fixed before staining?
  1. To make the cell walls visible under the microscope
  2. To make the smear easier to cut into sections
  3. To prevent the cells from washing off the slide during staining
  4. To provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow
  5. To remove alcohol from the slide
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9.2) Which Gram stain reagent acts as a mordant to bind the stain to the bacteria?
  1. Acetone
  2. Crystal violet
  3. Ethanol
  4. Iodine
  5. Safranin
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9.3) What is the correct order of reagents used for Gram staining?
  1. Crystal violet, iodine, acetone-alcohol, safranin
  2. Crystal violet, safranin, acetone-alcohol, iodine
  3. Iodine, crystal violet, acetone-alcohol, safranin
  4. Safranin, acetone-alcohol, crystal violet, iodine
  5. Safranin, iodine, crystal violet, acetone-alcohol
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9.4) Which microbes require oxygen levels that are lower than in the atmosphere?
  1. Aerotolerant aerobes
  2. Aerotolerant anaerobes
  3. Facultative aerobes
  4. Facultative anaerobes
  5. Microaerophlies
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9.5) What is the purpose of susceptibility testing?
  1. To determine if a patient has an allergy to a drug
  2. To determine the effectiveness of drug therapy
  3. To identify which antibiotic will kill a pathogen
  4. To identify which organism is in a specimen
  5. To measure how fast a pathogen can be destroyed
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9.6) What two gases are typically used to remove oxygen in anaerobic gas chambers?
  1. Argon and methane
  2. Carbon dioxide and argon
  3. Carbon dioxide and methane
  4. Helium and argon
  5. Hydrogen and nitrogen
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9.7) What colour does the methylene blue strip turn when an anaerobic environment has been achieved in an anaerobic jar?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. White
  5. Yellow
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9.8) What term describes microorganisms that do not produce disease?
  1. Apathogens
  2. Aseptic organisms
  3. Nonpathogens
  4. Normal flora
  5. Pathogens
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9.9) What is the term for an organism that only grows when specific nutrients are included in its medium?
  1. Anaerobe
  2. Captious
  3. Fastidious
  4. Obligate
  5. Pathogen
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9.10) Which of these would slow the growth of pathogenic bacteria?
  1. A moist environment
  2. A temperature of 37°C
  3. An acidic pH
  4. Darkness
  5. Nutrients
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9.11) Which of these tests is used to differentiate between staphylococci and streptococci?
  1. Catalase test
  2. Citrate test
  3. Coagulase test
  4. Oxidase test
  5. Urase test
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9.12) What term describes bacteria that grow best at cold temperatures?
  1. Basophilic
  2. Cytophilic
  3. Keratinophilic
  4. Psychrophilic
  5. Thermophilic
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9.13) Yeast is a type of:
  1. bacteria
  2. fungus
  3. mould
  4. protozoa
  5. virus
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9.14) Which agar plate can determine hemolysis?
  1. Blood
  2. Chocolate
  3. MacConkey
  4. Nutrient
  5. Sabouraud
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9.15) Which agar contains lactose and cystine but has a low level of electrolytes?
  1. CLED
  2. Hektoen enteric
  3. Phenylethyl Alcohol
  4. Salmonella-Shigella
  5. Thayer Martin
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9.16) What type of culture media promotes the growth of one type of organism while slowing the growth of others?
  1. Differential
  2. Enriched
  3. Natural
  4. Selective
  5. Synthetic
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9.17) What organisms grow on MacConkey agar?
  1. Acid-fast
  2. Gram-negative
  3. Gram-positive
  4. Lactose positive
  5. Non-acid fast
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9.18) Which culture medium would be most appropriate to isolate Haemophilus influenza?
  1. Blood
  2. Chocolate
  3. MacConkey
  4. Neomycin
  5. Nutrient
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9.19) What is the purpose of bile salts in agar?
  1. As a general-purpose nutrient
  2. To differentiate pathogenic enteric bacilli
  3. To enable bacteria to produce hydrogen sulfide
  4. To inhibit the growth of gram-positive bacteria
  5. To provide an energy source for bacteria able to ferment bile
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9.20) What variant of the blood agar plate contains red blood cells that have been lysed by slowly heating them to 80°C?
  1. Chocolate
  2. Hektoen Enteric
  3. MacConkey
  4. Phenylethyl Alcohol
  5. Thayer Martin
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9.21) Which agar is used to isolate gram-positive bacteria, especially Staphylococcus species and Streptococcus species?
  1. Chocolate
  2. Hektoen enteric
  3. MacConkey
  4. Phenylethyl alcohol
  5. Thayer Martin
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9.22) Where should agar plates be stored before use?
  1. In a cupboard
  2. In a dry oven
  3. In the freezer
  4. In the fridge
  5. Next to a window
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9.23) MacConkey agar differentiates bacteria based on their:
  1. ability to ferment lactose
  2. ability to hydrolyze starch
  3. ability to utilise the safranin dye
  4. cell wall structure
  5. hemolytic activity
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9.24) Thayer-Martin agar is used to culture and isolate which bacteria?
  1. E. coli
  2. Klebsiella
  3. Neisseria
  4. Staphylococcus
  5. Streptococcus
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9.25) CLED agar is used to isolate bacteria from which type of specimen?
  1. Blood
  2. Rectal swab
  3. Sputum
  4. Urine
  5. Vaginal swab
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9.26) Triple sugar iron agar contains which three sugars?
  1. Glucose, fructose, and galactose
  2. Glucose, fructose, and maltose
  3. Glucose, galactose, and maltose
  4. Glucose, sucrose, and galactose
  5. Glucose, sucrose, and lactose
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9.27) What type of agar is Thayer-Martin media?
  1. Blood
  2. Chocolate
  3. Luria Bertani
  4. MacConkey
  5. Neomycin
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9.28) After Gram staining, what colour are gram-negative organisms?
  1. Dark blue
  2. Green
  3. Light blue
  4. Purple or brown
  5. Red or pink
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9.29) A lab technician is performing a Gram stain. After flooding the slide with crystal violet and letting the slide stand for approximately one minute, the technician should rinse the slide with:
  1. acetone
  2. ethanol
  3. iodine
  4. safranin
  5. water
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9.30) The cell walls of gram-positive bacteria have what property that enables them to resist decolourization during Gram staining?
  1. A high mycolic acid content
  2. A layer of antigenic proteins
  3. A lipid bilayer
  4. A thick layer of peptidoglycan
  5. Multiple endoflagella
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9.31) What is the primary stain in acid-fast staining?
  1. Carbol fuchsin
  2. Eosin
  3. Hematoxylin
  4. Malachite green
  5. Methylene blue
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9.32) Identify the false statement about plating bacteria.
  1. The Petri lid is placed upright on the bench to prevent contamination
  2. The loop is sterilized before inoculation
  3. The loop should be flamed between streaks
  4. The media is brought to room temperature before use
  5. The media selected depends on the type of specimen
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9.33) What is the term for a microorganism that can live in both aerobic and anaerobic environments?
  1. Apomidary
  2. Facultative anaerobe
  3. Multi-respiratory
  4. Obligatory
  5. Saprophytic
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9.34) Obligate aerobes:
  1. are killed by oxygen
  2. grow best in the absence of oxygen
  3. grow best in the presence of oxygen but will also grow without it
  4. grow equally well with or without oxygen
  5. require oxygen to grow
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9.35) What is the term for a microorganism that grows best in the presence of low amounts of oxygen?
  1. Facultative aerobe
  2. Facultative anaerobe
  3. Microaerophile
  4. Reduced aerobe
  5. Secondary aerobe
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9.36) Which of these chemicals is used to preserve urine samples for microbiology?
  1. Ammonia
  2. Boric acid
  3. Calcium hydroxide
  4. Potassium hydroxide
  5. Sodium hydroxide
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9.37) What is the purpose of activated charcoal in transport media?
  1. To absorb toxic substances
  2. To kill non-pathogens
  3. To maintain a neutral pH
  4. To maintain anaerobic conditions
  5. To prevent the overgrowth of extraneous organisms
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Section 10: Clinical Chemistry

10.1) A urine sample is positive for hemoglobin and negative for glucose, leukocytes, and bacteria. The urine contains a normal level of urea. Which of these terms applies to the urine?
  1. Hematuria
  2. Hemoglobinuria
  3. Hemosiderinuria
  4. Urolithiasis
  5. Uropygia
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10.2) High levels of which gas in the blood cause respiratory acidosis?
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Methane
  4. Nitrogen
  5. Oxygen
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10.3) Which of these test results indicates diabetes?
  1. A random blood glucose test of 4.5 mmol/L
  2. Blood glucose level of 5.8 mmol/L two hours into a glucose tolerance test
  3. Fasting blood glucose level of 7.8 mmol/L
  4. Hemoglobin 1Ac level of 4.8%
  5. Hemoglobin 1Ac level of 5.5%
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10.4) The sweat test measures the amount of _________ in sweat.
  1. blood
  2. chloride
  3. copper
  4. lead
  5. phosphatase
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10.5) What does a hemoglobin A1c test measure?
  1. The amount of hemoglobin in the patient's blood
  2. The concentration of red blood cells in the patient's blood
  3. The patient's average blood glucose levels over the last three months
  4. The patient's blood glucose level at the time the sample drawn
  5. Whether the patient has abnormal hemoglobin molecules
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10.6) Which reagent tablet tests for the presence of glucose in urine?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. SSA
  5. TCA
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10.7) When used for detecting urinary tract infections, urine dipsticks test for:
  1. nitrates
  2. nitrites
  3. phosphates
  4. sugars
  5. urea
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10.8) What is the minimum number of blood samples needed for the one-step glucose tolerance test?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
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10.9) You are performing a glucose tolerance test that requires a blood sample at baseline and then four blood samples thereafter, at a rate of one sample every 30 minutes. If the patient drinks the glucose at 10:00 am, then at what time should you take the final blood sample?
  1. 11:00 am
  2. 10:30 am
  3. 11:30 am
  4. 12:00 pm
  5. 12:30 pm
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10.10) A patient arrives for an oral glucose tolerance test. She says she ate a few biscuits before coming to the test. What should you do?
  1. Arrange for the test to be rescheduled for another day
  2. Calculate how much sugar she has eaten, remove the same amount of sugar from the glucose drink, and then start the test
  3. Have her walk around to use up the sugar from the biscuits
  4. Start the test as the biscuits will not matter
  5. Wait an hour to ensure all the sugar is out of her bloodstream
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10.11) A patient begins a routine glucose tolerance test. After 30 minutes, the patient's blood sugar is 20.8 mmol/L. What should you do?
  1. Do nothing and continue with the test
  2. Give the patient something sugary to eat
  3. Make a note and continue with the test
  4. Start the test again
  5. Tell the attending nurse immediately
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10.12) During the glucose tolerance test, the patient should:
  1. sit
  2. walk
  3. run
  4. alternate between walking for 5 minutes and resting for 5 minutes
  5. alternate between walking for 10 minutes and resting for 5 minutes
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10.13) You are performing a glucose tolerance test. You collect the fasting specimen at 8:10 am. You give the patient the glucose drink at 8:13 am. He finishes the drink at 8:18 am. When should you collect the 1 hour specimen?
  1. 9:10 am
  2. 9:13 am
  3. 9:15 am
  4. 9:18 am
  5. 9:20 am
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10.14) A 2-hour postprandial glucose test:
  1. is collected 2 hours after a meal
  2. is collected 2 hours after fasting
  3. is used to diagnose diabetes during pregnancy
  4. requires a urine sample
  5. requires the patient to drink a liquid containing glucose
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10.15) Why are urine samples refrigerated?
  1. To agglutinate the red blood cells
  2. To increase the levels of ammonia
  3. To prevent bacterial growth
  4. To prevent urine from turning acidic
  5. To separate the liquid from any solid components present
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10.16) When preparing a urine specimen for microscopic analysis, which of these steps comes first?
  1. Add one drop of stain to the tube
  2. Centrifuge the urine sample
  3. Place a coverslip over the sample
  4. Remove the supernatant
  5. Transfer one drop of the sediment to a microscope slide
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10.17) Urine microscopic examination is performed on:
  1. diluted urine
  2. heated urine
  3. refrigerated urine
  4. the sediment suspension of centrifuged urine
  5. the supernatant of a centrifuged urine
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10.18) What is the normal range for the pH of urine?
  1. 0.6–4.0
  2. 2.6–6.0
  3. 4.6–8.0
  4. 6.6–10.0
  5. 8.6–12.0
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10.19) Which of these serum electrolyte results is abnormal?
  1. Calcium: 2.3 mmol/L
  2. Chloride: 101 mmol/L
  3. Magnesium: 1.01 mmol/L
  4. Potassium: 6.5 mmol/L
  5. Sodium: 140 mmol/L
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10.20) Which of these is a normal blood creatinine level for a man?
  1. 88 µmol/L
  2. 177 µmol/L
  3. 265 µmol/L
  4. 354 µmol/L
  5. 442 µmol/L
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10.21) What is the normal range for total CO₂ levels in blood?
  1. 2–9 mmol/L
  2. 12–19 mmol/L
  3. 22–29 mmol/L
  4. 32–39 mmol/L
  5. 42–49 mmol/L
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10.22) Which hemoglobin A1c value is the threshold for diagnosing diabetes?
  1. >4.5%
  2. >5.5%
  3. >6.5%
  4. >7.5%
  5. >8.5%
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10.23) The results of which patient are consistent with fluid overload?
Patient Gender Creatinine BUN
1 Male 131 µmol/L 11.8 mmol/L
2 Female 32 µmol/L 0.5 mmol/L
3 Female 95 µmol/L 3.4 mmol/L
4 Male 70 µmol/L 7.1 mmol/L
  1. Patient 1
  2. Patient 2
  3. Patient 3
  4. Patient 4
  5. The results of all patients are normal
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10.24) What is the normal range for blood sodium levels?
  1. 56–65 mmol/L
  2. 76–85 mmol/L
  3. 96–105 mmol/L
  4. 116–125 mmol/L
  5. 136–145 mmol/L
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10.25) Elevated serum acid phosphatase levels may indicate which of these diseases?
  1. Gout
  2. Heart disease
  3. Kidney disease
  4. Liver disease
  5. Prostate cancer
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10.26) Which test monitors the treatment of colorectal cancer?
  1. Blood urea nitrogen test
  2. Carcinoembryonic antigen test
  3. Circulating tumor cells test
  4. Fluorescence in situ hybridization
  5. Lactate dehydrogenase test
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10.27) uPA is a marker for which type of cancer?
  1. Bladder
  2. Breast
  3. Colorectal
  4. Ovarian
  5. Thyroid
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10.28) Which of these biochemistry results is critical?
  1. ALT of 12 U/L in a pregnant woman during her third trimester
  2. Creatinine of 707 µmol/L in a 13-year-old
  3. Fasting glucose of 4.9 mmol/L in type 2 diabetic patient
  4. Potassium of 4.2 mmol/L in a pre-dialysis patient
  5. Total bilirubin of 15.4 µmol/L in a 1-day-old newborn
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10.29) The anion gap is used to identify errors in the measurement of:
  1. electrolytes
  2. platelets
  3. red blood cells
  4. urea
  5. white blood cells
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10.30) Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the:
  1. body's ability to clear glucose from the bloodstream
  2. glomerular filtration rate
  3. glomerular secretion of creatinine
  4. renal glomerular and tubular mass
  5. tubular secretion of creatinine
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10.31) The Friedewald equation estimates the level of:
  1. HDL cholesterol
  2. LDL cholesterol
  3. lipoproteins
  4. total cholesterol
  5. triglycerides
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10.32) A patient's cortisol levels are higher in the morning than in the evening. This is:
  1. indicative of Addison's disease
  2. indicative of Cushing syndrome
  3. indicative of diabetes
  4. indicative of hypopituitarism
  5. normal
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10.33) Which of these specimens is NOT suitable for the urease enzymatic method of measuring urea?
  1. Ammonium heparin plasma
  2. K2-EDTA plasma
  3. Lithium heparin plasma
  4. Serum
  5. Urine
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10.34) What does a high value on the anion gap test indicate?
  1. Acidosis
  2. Alkalosis
  3. Anemia
  4. Malaria
  5. Polycythemia
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10.35) The following blood results are from a 55-year-old male suffering from headaches and fatigue:
Test Result
Glucose 4.5 mmol/L
HDL cholesterol 1.9 mmol/L
LDL cholesterol 2.1 mmol/L
Sodium 105 mmol/L
Creatinine 83 µmol/L
The blood test results suggest which disease?
  1. Cushing's syndrome
  2. Hypercholesterolemia
  3. Hyponatremia
  4. Kidney disease
  5. Type II diabetes
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10.36) Which of these is a liver function test?
  1. AST test
  2. Creatine kinase test
  3. Creatinine test
  4. T4 test
  5. Troponin test
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10.37) Creatinine clearance tests check the health of which organ?
  1. Bladder
  2. Heart
  3. Kidney
  4. Liver
  5. Stomach
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10.38) High levels of troponin indicate damage to which organ of the body?
  1. Heart
  2. Kidneys
  3. Liver
  4. Lungs
  5. Stomach
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10.39) Glomerular filtration rate measures the health of which organ?
  1. Liver
  2. Kidneys
  3. Gallbladder
  4. Bladder
  5. Intestine
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10.40) The parathyroid hormone test investigates abnormal levels of which mineral?
  1. Calcium
  2. Iron
  3. Magnesium
  4. Potassium
  5. Sodium
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10.41) High doses of which supplement can cause blood folate levels to appear falsely high?
  1. Biotin
  2. Calcium
  3. Cobalamin
  4. Thiamine
  5. Vitamin D
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Section 11: Clinical Hematology

11.1) Blood for a white blood cell count would generally be collected in which colour vacutainer?
  1. Black
  2. Blue
  3. Grey
  4. Lavender
  5. Red
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11.2) What is leukopoiesis?
  1. A high platelet count
  2. The destruction of red blood cells
  3. The destruction of white blood cells
  4. The synthesis of red blood cells
  5. The synthesis of white blood cells
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11.3) A fasting plasma specimen is allowed to stand undisturbed in a refrigerator. After 24 hours, the specimen is visually inspected. A white creamy layer has formed on the top of the specimen. What is this creamy layer formed of?
  1. Bacteria
  2. Chylomicrons
  3. High-density lipoproteins
  4. White blood cells
  5. β-lipoproteins
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11.4) Which test counts the number of immature red blood cells in a blood sample?
  1. Differential
  2. Osmotic fragility test
  3. Red blood cell count
  4. Reticulocyte count
  5. Stab cell count
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11.5) What does the international normalized ratio (INR) measure?
  1. How long blood takes to form a clot
  2. How long erythrocytes take to separate from plasma
  3. The average blood glucose level over the past 3 months
  4. The concentration of C-reactive protein in a blood sample
  5. The ratio of oxygen to carbon dioxide in the blood
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11.6) Which of the following specimens would be unacceptable for testing?
  1. A blood specimen collected for coagulation testing in a citrate tube
  2. A blood specimen in an EDTA tube that is three-quarters full
  3. A centrifuged blood specimen for bilirubin testing
  4. A clotted blood specimen for HbA1c testing
  5. A sputum specimen containing 52 leukocytes and 5 epithelial cells per LPF
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11.7) Which hematology test determines the percentage of each type of leukocyte in a blood sample?
  1. CBC
  2. ESR
  3. Hematocrit
  4. Hemoglobin determination
  5. WBC differential
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11.8) Which of these tests detects occult blood in stool samples?
  1. Blood typing
  2. Fecal fat test
  3. Guaiac test
  4. Hemoglobin A1c
  5. Rapid urease test
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11.9) Which of these statements is true?
  1. Most laboratories use the Wintrobe method
  2. The Westergren and Wintrobe methods are two commonly used methods for measuring hematocrit
  3. The Westergren tube has a smaller diameter than the Wintrobe tube
  4. The Westergren tube is longer than the Wintrobe tube
  5. The Wintrobe method is more accurate
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11.10) For a test requiring whole blood, the blood sample must be collected in a vacutainer containing a(n):
  1. anticoagulant
  2. antiglycolytic agent
  3. antimicrobial agent
  4. clot activator
  5. serum separating gel
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11.11) Which of these tests can detect inflammation?
  1. ESR
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. RBC count
  5. RDW
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11.12) Factor assays assess problems with:
  1. clotting
  2. platelets
  3. red blood cells
  4. serum
  5. white blood cells
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11.13) Why is it important to mix a blood sample before performing a cell count?
  1. To ensure all blood components are evenly distributed
  2. To mix the anticoagulant with the blood
  3. To oxygenate the sample
  4. To prevent clots
  5. To prevent platelets from clumping together
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11.14) Which anticoagulant is used for red blood cell counts?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Sodium citrate
  4. Sodium fluoride
  5. Sodium oxalate
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11.15) The Coulter principle is based on the detection of:
  1. changes in cell electrical currents
  2. colour absorption changes
  3. diffusion
  4. high-frequency sound waves
  5. lightwave scattering
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11.16) Which of these is needed to prepare defibrinated blood?
  1. Filter paper
  2. Glass beads
  3. Syringe filter
  4. UV light
  5. Vacuum pump
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11.17) Hemoglobin values are commonly expressed in what unit?
  1. %
  2. g/dL
  3. mm/hour
  4. mol/L
  5. number per high power field
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11.18) A 1/5 dilution is made for a manual white blood cell count. The technician counts 100 WBCs in ten squares of the hemocytometer. What is the white blood cell concentration?
  1. 4×10⁵ cells/uL
  2. 5×10⁵ cells/uL
  3. 6×10⁵ cells/uL
  4. 8×10⁵ cells/uL
  5. 10×10⁵ cells/uL
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11.19) Which of these is included in a complete blood count?
  1. Blood glucose levels
  2. Cholesterol levels
  3. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  4. Hematocrit
  5. pH
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11.20) What is Wright's stain used primarily for?
  1. Blood
  2. Fat
  3. Nervous tissue
  4. Elastic fibers
  5. Decalcified bone matrix
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11.21) What is the hematocrit?
  1. The average mass of hemoglobin per red blood cell
  2. The average volume of red blood cells
  3. The rate at which red blood cells descend in a tube
  4. The time it takes for blood to clot
  5. The volume percentage of red blood cells in blood
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11.22) Which platelet function test measures the time it takes for platelets to form a clot and plug a hole in a tube?
  1. Closure time
  2. Flow cytometry
  3. Lumiaggregometry
  4. Platelet aggregometry
  5. Viscoelastometry
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11.23) What does the term "left shift" mean in hematology?
  1. A decrease in the average size of red blood cells
  2. A genetic disorder affecting the structure of hemoglobin
  3. An increase in the number of immature neutrophils in the blood
  4. The activation of complement on the left-hand side of the body
  5. The presence of glomerular-type red blood cells in the blood
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11.24) What is a buffy coat made of?
  1. Granulocytes and fibrin
  2. Platelets and plasma proteins
  3. Red blood cells and granulocytes
  4. Reticulocytes and granulocytes
  5. White blood cells and platelets
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11.25) Which of these could cause a thick blood smear?
  1. Holding the spreader at a very high angle
  2. Spreading the blood too quickly
  3. Using a drop of blood that is too small
  4. Using blood with clots in it
  5. Using transfused blood
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11.26) What is the term for a leukocyte count of 18.4 × 10⁹/L?
  1. Leukocytosis
  2. Leukodystrophy
  3. Leukopenia
  4. Leukopoiesis
  5. Leukorrhea
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11.27) The prothrombin time test is often used for patients taking which medication?
  1. Atorvastatin
  2. Levothyroxine
  3. Metformin
  4. Sertraline
  5. Warfarin
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11.28) The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test requires what type of blood sample?
  1. Arterial
  2. Coagulated
  3. Decalcified
  4. Defibrinated
  5. Frozen
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11.29) What is the normal range for a PTT test?
  1. 5–10 seconds
  2. 15–25 seconds
  3. 25–35 seconds
  4. 40–55 seconds
  5. 1–2 minutes
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11.30) Which test evaluates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?
  1. Bleeding time
  2. Closure time
  3. Partial thromboplastin time
  4. Prothrombin time
  5. Thrombin time
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11.31) On a blood cell histogram, what does the x-axis represent?
  1. Cell colour
  2. Cell shape
  3. Cell size
  4. Number of cells
  5. Time
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11.32) Calculate the mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of the following results.
Test Result
RBC 5.0 × 10¹²/L
WBC 8.5 × 10⁹/L
PLT 320 × 10⁹/L
Hct 40%
Hgb 14.5 g/dL
  1. 10 fL
  2. 20 fL
  3. 30 fL
  4. 50 fL
  5. 80 fL
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11.33) Which red blood cell index is a measure of the variability in the size of red blood cells?
  1. CBC
  2. MCH
  3. MCV
  4. RBC
  5. RDW
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11.34) What two parameters are needed to calculate the mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)?
  1. HCT and Hgb
  2. Hgb and MCV
  3. RBC and HCT
  4. RBC and Hgb
  5. RBC and WBC
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11.35) A patient has the following hematology results:
Test Result
RBC 4.21×10¹²/L
Hemoglobin 133 g/L
Hematocrit 0.397
Use the results to calculate the mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC).
  1. 10.6 g/dL
  2. 10.9 g/dL
  3. 25.1 g/dL
  4. 31.6 g/dL
  5. 33.5 g/dL
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11.36) What is the normal colour of serum?
  1. Bright red
  2. Brown
  3. Dark reddish-purple
  4. Pink
  5. Straw-yellow
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11.37) Which of these hematology results is critical?
  1. Hemoglobin: 5 g/dL
  2. INR: 2.9 seconds
  3. Neutrophils: 7×10⁹/L
  4. PT: 11 seconds
  5. Platelets: 320×10⁹/L
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11.38) Which specimen is used for coagulation testing?
  1. Plasma
  2. Serum
  3. Sweat
  4. Urine
  5. Whole blood
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11.39) Which of these blood tests is outside the normal range?
  1. PLT: 257 × 10⁹/L
  2. PLT: 321 × 10⁹/L
  3. RBC: 7.2 × 10¹²/L
  4. WBC: 5.4 × 10⁹/L
  5. WBC: 8.1 × 10⁹/L
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Section 12: Transfusion Medicine

12.1) At which temperature do warm antibodies react with red blood cells?
  1. 15°C
  2. 21°C
  3. 37°C
  4. 55°C
  5. 100°C
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12.2) What colour vacutainer tube is used to collect blood for blood banking?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Grey
  4. Pink
  5. Yellow
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12.3) 1,000 cc of blood is equivalent to how many millilitres?
  1. 220 mL
  2. 450 mL
  3. 750 mL
  4. 850 mL
  5. 1,000 mL
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12.4) Immunology tests are based on the reaction of:
  1. acids and bases
  2. antigens and antibodies
  3. lysing agents and red blood cells
  4. proteins and salicylsalicylic acid
  5. protons and electrons
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12.5) Irradiated blood components are used to prevent:
  1. graft-vs-host disease
  2. posttransfusion purpura
  3. pulmonary edema
  4. sickle cell anemia
  5. urticaria
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12.6) A 70 kg non-bleeding man has a hematocrit of 31%. How many units of red blood cells are needed to raise his hematocrit to 40%?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
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12.7) A patient with type A blood can receive:
  1. type A and type O blood
  2. type A blood only
  3. type A, type O, and type AB blood
  4. type B blood only
  5. type O blood only
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12.8) The antiglobulin test is also known as the _________ test.
  1. Coombs
  2. Fernsby
  3. Gastrell
  4. Loughty
  5. Sallow
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12.9) Which of these blood products needs to be irradiated before being transfused into a patient?
  1. Cryoprecipitate
  2. Fractionated plasma products
  3. Fresh frozen plasma
  4. Frozen washed red cells
  5. Granulocytes
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12.10) Why is donated blood kept refrigerated?
  1. Because blood must be transfused cold
  2. To prevent blood components from breaking down
  3. To prevent coagulation
  4. To prevent the blood from producing alloantibodies
  5. To slow bacterial growth
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12.11) One unit of blood is equivalent to how many millilitres?
  1. 450
  2. 550
  3. 800
  4. 1,000
  5. 1,200
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12.12) Whole blood is stored between:
  1. −12°C and −18°C
  2. −6°C and 3°C
  3. 2°C and 6°C
  4. 8°C and 16°C
  5. 36°C and 38°C
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12.13) What temperature is cryoprecipitate stored at?
  1. –18°C or below
  2. –2°C to –16°C
  3. 2–6°C
  4. 21°C
  5. 37°C
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12.14) In antibody screens, what is the best pH for the incubation phase?
  1. 6.8–7.2
  2. 7.2–7.5
  3. 7.5–7.8
  4. 7.8–8.2
  5. 8.2–8.6
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12.15) What type of transfusion reaction is caused by the destruction of incompatible red blood cells?
  1. Anaphylactic
  2. Febrile non-hemolytic
  3. Hemolytic
  4. Septic
  5. Simple allergic
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12.16) What is the most serious transfusion reaction?
  1. Acute immune hemolytic reaction
  2. Allergic reaction
  3. Delayed hemolytic reaction
  4. Febrile reaction
  5. Graft-versus-host disease
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12.17) People whose cells have the D antigen are known as:
  1. D carriers
  2. IgD-positive
  3. RHAG carriers
  4. Rh-positive
  5. anti-d
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12.18) What is the most common blood type in Canada?
  1. AB–
  2. B–
  3. B–
  4. O+
  5. O–
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12.19) A B− patient requires a blood transfusion but no B− blood is available. From which of these donors could the patient safely receive blood?
  1. A+
  2. AB+
  3. A−
  4. B+
  5. O−
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12.20) A person with B and D antigens on their red blood cells is called:
  1. A negative
  2. A positive
  3. B negative
  4. B positive
  5. O negative
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Section 13: Electrocardiograms

13.1) Tachycardia is a heart rate of:
  1. <40 bpm
  2. 40–60 bpm
  3. 60–80 bpm
  4. 80–100 bpm
  5. >100 bpm
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13.2) Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing an ECG?
  1. To check for problems with the flow of electricity through the heart
  2. To detect arrhythmias
  3. To evaluate heart conditions
  4. To evaluate the rate and rhythm of breathing
  5. To see how well the heart is contracting and pumping
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13.3) When setting up an electrocardiogram, which electrodes are used for lead III?
  1. LA and LL
  2. LA and RA
  3. LA and RL
  4. RA and LL
  5. RA and RL
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13.4) In electrocardiography, aVR, aVL, and aVF are called the:
  1. alternating voltage leads
  2. amplified voltage leads
  3. augmented limb leads
  4. depolarization-repolarization leads
  5. standard chest leads
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13.5) What is a Holter monitor?
  1. A device that monitors the patient's brain activity during an ECG
  2. A device that monitors the patient's breathing during an ECG
  3. A portable ECG that measures a patient's heart activity over 24 hours or longer
  4. A special ECG for measuring a patient's heart activity during an exercise stress test
  5. A specialized 20-lead ECG designed for observing abnormal heartbeats that only occur intermittently
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13.6) An alternating current artifact during an ECG can be identified by:
  1. a fuzzy, irregular baseline
  2. a wandering baseline
  3. an interrupted baseline
  4. large wavy lines
  5. small spiked lines
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13.7) What causes muscle artifacts on ECGs?
  1. A broken cable
  2. Body creams on the skin
  3. Electrical interference
  4. Electrodes that are too loose
  5. Patient movement
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13.8) In the IEC (International Electrotechnical Commission) system of ECG lead colour coding, what colour is the right arm electrode?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. White
  5. Yellow
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13.9) When preparing a patient for an electrocardiogram, where is the V3 electrode placed?
  1. Between the right shoulder and right wrist
  2. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
  3. Fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
  4. Fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum
  5. Midway between V2 and V4
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13.10) In what lead is the QT interval best measured?
  1. Lead I
  2. Lead II
  3. Lead III
  4. aVL
  5. aVR
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13.11) The special lead positions below help to diagnose which arrhythmia?
  1. Atrial flutter
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)
  4. Ventricular fibrillation
  5. Ventricular tachycardia
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13.12) Lead IV of the electrocardiogram is also called:
  1. AVE
  2. AVF
  3. AVL
  4. AVM
  5. AVR
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13.13) In setting up an ECG, where on the body is the LA electrode placed?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
  5. e
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13.14) Which ECG electrode is placed near the patient's right ankle?
  1. LA
  2. LL
  3. RA
  4. RL
  5. V1
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13.15) One centimetre on ECG graph paper represents how many millivolts?
  1. 0.1
  2. 0.5
  3. 1
  4. 5
  5. 10
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13.16) Which three ECG electrodes form the Einthoven triangle?
  1. RA, LA and LL
  2. RA, LA and RL
  3. RA, LL and RL
  4. V1, V2 and V3
  5. V4, V5 and V6
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13.17) Which of these is a mistake when attaching ECG leads to a patient?
  1. Attaching the LA lead to the patient's left arm
  2. Attaching the LL lead to the patient's left leg
  3. Attaching the RL lead to the patient's right arm
  4. Attaching the V1 lead to the 4th intercostal space, right sternal edge
  5. Attaching the V3 lead midway between the V2 and V4 leads
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13.18) Which part of an ECG strip represents ventricular repolarization?
  1. P wave
  2. PR interval
  3. QRS complex
  4. S wave
  5. T wave
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13.19) To calculate the heart rate from an ECG rhythm strip, you can count the number of QRS complexes on the six-second strip and multiply by:
  1. 6
  2. 10
  3. 16
  4. 24
  5. 60
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13.20) What part of the ECG tracing represents the time from the start of the atrial activity to the start of ventricular activity?
  1. J point
  2. PR interval
  3. QRS complex
  4. QT interval
  5. S wave
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13.21) The figure below is an ECG representation of a heartbeat: Which arrow is pointing to the S wave?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
  5. e
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13.22) What is the heart rate in the ECG strip below?
  1. 50 bpm
  2. 75 bpm
  3. 100 bpm
  4. 150 bpm
  5. 300 bpm
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