X

Report a problem



CSMLS MLA Certification Exam: Practice Test 1

Number of questions: 178

This is a preview. Unlock all the questions and answers for just $19.99.

Buy now

About the CSMLS MLA exam

The CSMLS MLA Certification Exam is an examination for laboratory assistants in Canada. The exam is set by the CSMLS (Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science).

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the CSMLS MLA exam.

This page contains 178 practice questions divided into the eight sections of the exam: 1. Safe Work Practices, 2. Data and Specimen Collection and Handling, 3. Pre-analytical Procedures, 4. Reagent Preparation, 5. Communication and Interaction, 6. Quality Management, 7. Professional Practice, and 8. Critical Thinking.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Check out all the practice tests in this series: Practice Test 1, Practice Test 2, Practice Test 3, Practice Test 4, and Practice Test 5.

Sections

  1. Safe Work Practices
  2. Data and Specimen Collection and Handling
  3. Pre-analytical Procedures
  4. Reagent Preparation
  5. Communication and Interaction
  6. Quality Management
  7. Professional Practice
  8. Critical Thinking

Section 1: Safe Work Practices

1.1) The TLV-C is the concentration of a substance that:
  1. a worker can be exposed to for one hour without adverse effect
  2. a worker can be exposed to over a working lifetime without adverse effects
  3. a worker can be exposed to up to 4 times per day
  4. should never be exceeded
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) When trying to fix an electrical machine, your first action should be to:
  1. replace old cables
  2. replace the fuses
  3. turn off all electricity to the lab
  4. turn the machine off
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) How should you pick up an item of hot glassware?
  1. By pouring cold water on it to cool it down
  2. With a rag or paper towels
  3. With tongs
  4. With your hands
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) Which of the following should be observed during the incineration of medical waste?
  1. Disinfect all articles before burning them
  2. Make sure complete burning takes place
  3. Make sure the temperature reaches at least 12,000°C
  4. Sanitize all articles before burning them
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) Used needles should be discarded in:
  1. a biohazard sharps container
  2. a glass disposal bucket
  3. a glass recycling bin
  4. the regular garbage
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) Class B fires occur with:
  1. electrical equipment
  2. flammable liquids
  3. ordinary combustibles
  4. reactive metals
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) Mercury:
  1. forms a toxic vapour at room temperature
  2. forms an explosive precipitate on standing
  3. may be discarded down the sink with an abundance of running tap water following it
  4. may be discarded in a general waste bin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) Which of these is a good practice when working with strong acids?
  1. Wear eye protection
  2. Wear latex gloves
  3. Wear open-toed shoes
  4. When mixing acid and water, always add the water to the acid, not the other way around
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) What is the term for chemicals that burn or destroy tissue?
  1. Acyclic
  2. Caustic
  3. Galvanic
  4. Stereogenic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) When mixing acid and water:
  1. add the acid quickly to the water
  2. add the acid slowly to the water
  3. add the water quickly to the acid
  4. add the water slowly to the acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) If a chemical produces harmful vapours, it should be used in a:
  1. autoclave
  2. biological safety cabinet
  3. fume hood
  4. sealed room
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) What is the term for chemicals that cause birth defects in embryos and fetuses?
  1. Carcinogens
  2. Corrosives
  3. Phenyls
  4. Teratogens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) In which of these situations should safety goggles be worn?
  1. During blood collections
  2. During reagent and specimen preparation
  3. While inspecting reagent supplies
  4. While transporting sealed waste containers
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) What does this pictogram mean?
  1. Biohazard
  2. Carcinogenic
  3. Corrosive
  4. Toxic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) Always keep picric acid:
  1. dry
  2. refrigerated
  3. ventilated
  4. wet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) Which of these factors is NOT considered when storing chemicals?
  1. Light sensitivity
  2. Heat sensitivity
  3. Explosive properties
  4. Solubility
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) Which of these chemicals would be the best choice to neutralize a weak acid spill in the laboratory?
  1. Acetic acid
  2. Boric acid
  3. Sodium bicarbonate
  4. Sodium hydroxide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) Which concentration of bleach is used to decontaminate benchtops?
  1. 10%
  2. 20%
  3. 30%
  4. 50%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) Where should sterilization indicators be placed in an autoclave?
  1. Close to the air exhaust valve
  2. In the center of each article
  3. On the bottom shelf of the autoclave
  4. On the outside of each pack
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) What type of filter do biological safety cabinets use to remove airborne particles, such as bacteria and viruses?
  1. Electrostatic
  2. Fiberglass
  3. HEPA
  4. UV light
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) On fume hoods where sashes open vertically, you should work with the hood sash in the _____________ position.
  1. highest possible
  2. lowest possible
  3. middle
  4. most comfortable
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) Class 7 materials in the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act are:
  1. corrosive
  2. flammable or combustible
  3. poisonous or infectious
  4. radioactive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) Infectious substances are part of which class in the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act?
  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 6
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Data and Specimen Collection and Handling

2.1) A phlebotomist needs to draw an urgent blood sample from a patient who is asleep. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Cancel the test
  2. Come back later when the patient is awake
  3. Draw the sample while the patient is asleep
  4. Wake up the patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) When drawing blood from an obese patient, which location should be the first place you look for a vein?
  1. The antecubital fossa
  2. The back of the knee
  3. The feet
  4. The neck
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) What is the best way to judge the patency of a vein?
  1. Feel it to determine the strength of the pulse
  2. Palpate above and below where you first feel it
  3. Press and release it several times to determine resilience
  4. Roll your finger from side to side while pressing against it
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) In the image below, which vein is the median cubital?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) In venipuncture, why must you wait for the alcohol on the puncture site to dry before inserting the needle into the vein?
  1. To ensure all pathogens are killed
  2. To ensure the needle doesn't slip
  3. To prevent alcohol from entering the patient's bloodstream
  4. To prevent hemolysis of the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) What is the purpose of a tourniquet in venipuncture?
  1. To decrease the oxygen level
  2. To make the veins more prominent
  3. To monitor blood pressure
  4. To prevent hematoma
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) After applying a tourniquet, small red spots appear on the patient's arm. These spots are a sign that:
  1. the patient has diabetes
  2. the patient is taking an anticoagulant
  3. the site may bleed excessively
  4. the tourniquet is too tight
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) When a blood pressure cuff is used for a venipuncture instead of a tourniquet, the pressure must be:
  1. between the patient's diastolic and systolic blood pressure
  2. equal to the patient's systolic blood pressure
  3. just above the patient's systolic blood pressure
  4. just below the patient's diastolic blood pressure
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) Which of these actions helps to prevent hemoconcentration during venipuncture?
  1. Asking the patient to make and release a fist several times
  2. Asking the patient to release her fist upon blood flow
  3. Keeping the tourniquet on for longer than a minute
  4. Massaging the site before inserting the needle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) What are cross-match tubes used for?
  1. Blood compatibility testing
  2. Coagulation studies
  3. Glucose tests
  4. Trace element studies
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) Which anticoagulant is used for blood gas tests?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Potassium oxalate
  4. Trisodium citrate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) Grey-top vacutainers contain which anticoagulant?
  1. Heparin
  2. Potassium oxalate
  3. SPS
  4. Sodium polyanethole sulfonate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) What additive do light blue top tubes contain?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Sodium citrate
  4. Sodium fluoride
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) What are lavender top tubes used for?
  1. Blood cultures
  2. Erythrocyte sedimentation rates
  3. Glucose determinations
  4. Hematology tests
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) If a blood sample is taken in an EDTA tube, which of these test results would be affected?
  1. Calcium
  2. Cholesterol
  3. Glucose
  4. Urea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) Sodium fluoride preserves:
  1. cellulite
  2. cellulose
  3. glucose
  4. glycerin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) What vacutainer tube is used for reticulocyte counts?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) Which of these vacutainer additives provides a physical barrier to prevent glycolysis?
  1. EDTA
  2. Silica
  3. Sodium fluoride
  4. Thixotropic gel
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) Underfilling which tube will most likely result in a hemolyzed specimen?
  1. EDTA tube
  2. Grey top
  3. Light-blue top
  4. SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) Silica in vacutainer tubes:
  1. accelerates clotting
  2. inhibits thrombin
  3. preserves pH
  4. prevents glycolysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) Which part of a needle enters the skin first?
  1. Bevel
  2. Hub
  3. Lumen
  4. Shaft
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) Which part of a needle attaches to the syringe?
  1. Bevel
  2. Hub
  3. Lumen
  4. Shaft
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) After use, venipuncture needles should be:
  1. discarded into a sharps container
  2. discarded into an autoclave bag
  3. discarded into the garbage
  4. reused
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) Why are gauze pads better than cotton balls for holding pressure on the puncture site after venipuncture?
  1. Cotton balls can stick to the puncture site
  2. Cotton balls contain latex which is dangerous for people with latex allergies
  3. Cotton balls have a higher risk of causing a compression nerve injury
  4. Gauze pads are more sterile
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) A phlebotomist has just finished collecting blood samples from a patient. However, the phlebotomist realises she has forgotten to collect a tube. What should she do?
  1. Ask the patient to schedule another appointment
  2. Perform a second collection for the missing tube
  3. Redraw all the tubes
  4. Transfer some blood from a full tube to the empty tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) Agglutination is the:
  1. breakdown of gluten
  2. clumping together of blood cells
  3. decrease in red cell pigment
  4. swelling of a vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) Motor neurons are also called __________ neurons.
  1. afferent
  2. association
  3. efferent
  4. nervous
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) Glycolysis is the breakdown of:
  1. glucose
  2. glycogen
  3. glucagon
  4. glycerol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) What is the term for the production of lymphocytes?
  1. Lymphadenitis
  2. Lymphedema
  3. Lymphocytopenia
  4. Lymphopoiesis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) Which plane separates the body into upper and lower parts?
  1. Frontal
  2. Oblique
  3. Sagittal
  4. Transverse
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) Which prefix means 'break down', 'destruction', or 'dissolving'?
  1. Andr-
  2. Dys-
  3. Hydr-
  4. Lys-
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) What does GTT stand for?
  1. Genetic test
  2. Glucose tolerance test
  3. Guanine-thymine test
  4. Guaranteed time and temperature
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) BT and CT stand for:
  1. bile test and culture test
  2. bleeding time and clotting time
  3. blood test and clotting test
  4. blood tube and clot tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) In the context of healthcare, what does CBC stand for?
  1. Center for blood care
  2. Center for blood control
  3. Complete blood count
  4. Complete blood culture
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) What is the medical term for swelling caused by fluid trapped in the body's tissues?
  1. Edema
  2. Hemoconcentration
  3. Icterus
  4. Syncope
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) The three major groups of plasma proteins are:
  1. albumin, fibrinogen, globulin
  2. albumin, globulin, hemoglobin
  3. fibrin, globulin, albumin
  4. insulin, glucagon, hemoglobin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) When a blood vessel is damaged, what is the first process that occurs?
  1. Coagulation
  2. Hemolysis
  3. Platelet plug formation
  4. Vasoconstriction
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) Which type of jaundice is caused by the excessive breakdown of red blood cells?
  1. Hepatocellular
  2. Neonatal
  3. Post-hepatic
  4. Pre-hepatic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) Which disease is associated with low levels of cortisol and aldosterone?
  1. Addison's disease
  2. Cushing's syndrome
  3. Graves' disease
  4. Guillain-Barre syndrome
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) Formed elements are:
  1. blood plasma
  2. blood serum
  3. the clotting factors in blood
  4. white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) Graves' disease is characterized by increased secretion of which hormone?
  1. Cortisol
  2. Melatonin
  3. Serotonin
  4. Thyroxine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.42) The digestive tube from the mouth to the anus is called the:
  1. alimentary tract
  2. esophagus
  3. large intestine
  4. small intestine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.43) From the left atrium, blood next flows into the:
  1. aorta
  2. left lung
  3. left ventricle
  4. right atrium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.44) What is the top layer of skin called?
  1. Dermis
  2. Epidermis
  3. Hypodermis
  4. Subcutis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.45) Meningitis is an infection of which body system?
  1. Digestive
  2. Endocrine
  3. Nervous
  4. Urinary
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.46) Hypotension and arteriosclerosis are diseases of which body system?
  1. Cardiovascular
  2. Endocrine
  3. Genitourinary
  4. Integumentary
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.47) Which organ balances sodium and potassium in the body?
  1. Bladder
  2. Kidney
  3. Lungs
  4. Stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.48) In the image below, which organ is the line pointing to?
  1. Bladder
  2. Liver
  3. Pancreas
  4. Stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.49) The main task of red blood cells is to:
  1. ensure hemostasis
  2. provide immunity
  3. stop bleeding by forming a clot over injuries
  4. transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.50) Platelets:
  1. are also known as antithrombins
  2. are enzymes
  3. convert prothrombin to thrombin
  4. form a plug in the hole of damaged blood vessels
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.51) A reticulocyte is:
  1. a mature red blood cell
  2. an immature erythrocyte
  3. found only in the bone marrow
  4. part of the reticuloendothelial system
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.52) When blood is anticoagulated and centrifuged, the resulting straw-colored liquid layer is:
  1. heparin
  2. plasma
  3. serum
  4. whole blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.53) Lipase breaks down:
  1. enzymes
  2. fats
  3. proteins
  4. red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.54) A specimen must be transported at body temperature plus or minus 5°F. Which of these temperatures is within that range?
  1. 25°F
  2. 50°F
  3. 75°F
  4. 100°F
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.55) When giving specimens for culture and sensitivity, the patient should:
  1. be off antibiotics for several days before collection
  2. come to the lab first thing in the morning
  3. fast for 12 to 14 hours
  4. have all x-rays done before collection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.56) Which of these tests can detect heterophile antibodies?
  1. ABO typing
  2. Indirect antiglobulin test
  3. Mononucleosis test
  4. Rh and antibody screen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.57) Which of these is needed for a malaria test?
  1. Capillary tube
  2. Clay sealant
  3. Glass slide
  4. Microhematocrit tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.58) Hepatitis A:
  1. can be cured with antibiotics
  2. has no vaccine to prevent it
  3. is the most common type of hepatitis
  4. primarily infects the liver
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.59) A buffy coat forms when:
  1. an SST is left to rest for 24 hours
  2. whole anticoagulated blood is centrifuged
  3. whole blood is left to rest for 24 hours
  4. whole coagulated blood is centrifuged
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.60) A lab technician is performing a microhematocrit. She collects a blood sample in a microhematocrit tube and inverts the tube carefully to mix the blood with the heparin. What must the she do next before putting the tube in the centrifuge?
  1. Add controlled volumes of saline to the tube
  2. Add washed sensitized cells to the tube
  3. Remove gloves and wash hands
  4. Seal one end of the tube with clay
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.61) A patient refuses to have his blood drawn. The phlebotomist threatens the patient with the needle, saying she will draw the patient's blood whether he gives consent or or not. For threatening the patient, the phlebotomist could be charged with:
  1. assault
  2. battery
  3. fraud
  4. invasion of privacy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.62) Which vein is located on the thumb side of the arm?
  1. Cephalic
  2. External iliac
  3. Femoral
  4. Posterior tibial
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.63) What is "the order of draw"?
  1. An order given by a superior to draw blood from a patient
  2. The order blood tubes are filled
  3. The order blood vials are stored
  4. The order you select patients to draw blood from
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.64) There are two reasons why phlebotomists should wipe away the first drop of blood when performing a capillary puncture. The first reason is to remove traces of alcohol. What is the second reason?
  1. The first drop of blood contains excess tissue fluid
  2. The first drop of blood is high in clotting factors
  3. To increase blood flow to the area
  4. To remove pathogens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.65) What is the main reason a capillary puncture site is warmed beforehand?
  1. To delay clotting
  2. To increase blood flow
  3. To minimize contamination
  4. To reduce hemoconcentration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.66) Which sample does a 17-hydroxycorticosteroids test require?
  1. 24-hour urine
  2. 72-hour stool
  3. Heparinized plasma
  4. Serum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.67) The creatinine clearance test:
  1. is a liver function test
  2. requires a blood sample and a 24-hour urine collection
  3. requires the patient to be fasting at the onset of testing
  4. requires timed blood samples to be drawn
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.68) Urine, breath, and _______ are used for ketone testing.
  1. blood
  2. semen
  3. stool
  4. sweat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.69) PKU tests are performed routinely on:
  1. HIV patients
  2. cancer patients
  3. new employees
  4. newborn infants
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.70) Which of these tests is the most likely to require chain-of-custody documentation?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Cross-match
  3. Drug screen
  4. TDM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.71) Which reagent tablet tests for the presence of glucose in urine?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. TCA
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.72) A patient tests positive for bilirubin on a urine strip. Which test can rule out a false positive result?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. SSA
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.73) Midstream urine samples are most often used for:
  1. culture and susceptibility
  2. mononucleosis testing
  3. pregnancy testing
  4. routine urinalysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.74) What preservative is needed for a sodium 24-hour urine test?
  1. Chlorhexidine
  2. HCl
  3. NaHCO₃
  4. No preservative
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.75) Which type of urine specimen requires the patient to urinate a small amount into the toilet, stop urinating, and then start urinating again into a sterile cup?
  1. 24-hour
  2. Clean-catch
  3. Random
  4. Timed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.76) Urine samples for culture should be collected in:
  1. containers cleaned with disinfectant
  2. containers containing an anticoagulant
  3. narrow-mouthed containers
  4. sterile containers
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.77) What is the initial screening test for Cushing syndrome?
  1. C-reactive protein test
  2. Comprehensive metabolic panel
  3. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  4. Urinary free cortisol test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.78) Which of these chemicals is used to preserve urine samples for microbiology?
  1. Ammonia
  2. Boric acid
  3. Calcium hydroxide
  4. Potassium hydroxide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.79) Which of these statements is true about 24-hour urine collections?
  1. If the container contains a preservative, then the preservative must be thrown away
  2. If the patient leaves their house, they should take the container with them
  3. Night-time specimens are discarded
  4. The patient should keep the container in a warm place
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.80) What is the glycosylated hemoglobin test also known as?
  1. Fasting plasma glucose test
  2. Glucose tolerance test
  3. HbA1c test
  4. Hemoglobin electrophoresis test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.81) It is 7:15 pm and you must draw a blood culture from a patient who is receiving a course of antibiotics. His next doses of antibiotics are due at 10 pm and 6 am. When is the best time to draw the blood culture?
  1. At 2 am
  2. At midnight
  3. Just after his next dose
  4. Just before his next dose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.82) Which of these tests requires chain of custody documentation?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Fetal fibronectin
  3. Free light chains test
  4. Legal paternity test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.83) What is the purpose of a custody seal on a sample container?
  1. To help identify the sample if the container is misplaced
  2. To prevent air from entering the container
  3. To show whether the container has been tampered with
  4. To show who currently has custody of the container
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.84) What is the minimum number of blood samples needed for the one-step glucose tolerance test?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.85) If a patient vomits halfway through an oral glucose tolerance test, what should you do?
  1. Stop the test because the test is now invalid
  2. Restart the test with a second dose of glucose
  3. Ask the patient if they would like to continue the test
  4. Allow the patient to rest for a few minutes before continuing with the test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.86) Which of these specimens needs to be kept at 35–37°C?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Feces
  3. Throat swab
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.87) Extra precautions are necessary when labelling specimens for:
  1. C&S
  2. blood typing
  3. factor assays
  4. therapeutic drug monitoring
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.88) When shipping infectious organisms, in which shape must the marking UN3373 appear on the box?
  1. Circle
  2. Diamond
  3. Hexagon
  4. Triangle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.89) An elevated level of white blood cells in urine is called:
  1. hematuria
  2. pyelonephritis
  3. pyuria
  4. uremia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.90) Before you perform urinalysis on a refrigerated urine specimen, you should bring the urine to room temperature and _______ it.
  1. boil
  2. centrifuge
  3. filter
  4. stir
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.91) Which of these tests does NOT require a 24-hour urine specimen?
  1. Creatinine clearance
  2. Ketones
  3. Ketosteroids
  4. Quantitative drug analysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.92) Elevated serum acid phosphatase levels may indicate which of these diseases?
  1. Gout
  2. Kidney disease
  3. Liver disease
  4. Prostate cancer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Pre-analytical Procedures

3.1) Which vacutainer tube is used for trace metal analysis?
  1. Dark blue
  2. Green
  3. Orange
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) The main use of a buffer is to:
  1. accentuate changes in pH
  2. make a solution more acidic
  3. make a solution more basic
  4. minimize changes in pH
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) Why are bacterial smears heat-fixed before staining?
  1. To make the cell walls permeable so the stain can penetrate
  2. To melt the bacteria so they release their toxins
  3. To prevent cells from being washed off during staining
  4. To provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Fixatives work best at what pH?
  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 9
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) After fixation, bone tissue samples must be:
  1. decalcified
  2. frozen
  3. left at room temperature for at least 24 hours
  4. refrigerated
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) Which of these factors would increase the tissue processing time for a histology specimen?
  1. Dense tissue
  2. Few pieces of tissue in the tissue cassette
  3. Porous tissue
  4. Small specimen size
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Tissue flotation baths are set at what temperature?
  1. 30–40°C
  2. 40–50°C
  3. 50–60°C
  4. 60–70°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) Microtome blades should generally be angled at around:
  1. 5 degrees
  2. 15 degrees
  3. 25 degrees
  4. 35 degrees
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) Why are bacterial smears heat-fixed before staining?
  1. To make the cell walls visible under the microscope
  2. To prevent the cells from washing off the slide during staining
  3. To provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow
  4. To remove alcohol from the slide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) Which of these stains is supravital?
  1. New methylene blue
  2. Romanowsky stain
  3. Wright's stain
  4. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) New methylene blue reagent is used to stain:
  1. Heinz bodies
  2. eosinophils
  3. platelets
  4. reticulocytes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) Before staining, paraffin sections must be:
  1. dewaxed
  2. left underwater for at least an hour
  3. refrigerated
  4. submerged in a chlorine solution
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) Giemsa's solution is a mixture of:
  1. eosin, methylene blue, and azure B
  2. eosin, safranin, and hematoxylin
  3. phloxine, methylene blue, and hematoxylin
  4. safranin, azure B, and hematoxylin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) In the hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) staining method, the eosin stains:
  1. connective tissue blue
  2. cytoplasms pink
  3. microorganisms blue
  4. nuclei pink
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) Which stain can differentiate collagen fibres from other fibres?
  1. Hematoxylin and eosin stain
  2. Masson's trichrome stain
  3. Reticular stain
  4. Sudan stain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) In regressive staining, tissue sections are ___________ and then differentiated with dilute acid until the optimal endpoint is reached.
  1. dehydrated
  2. hydrated
  3. overstained
  4. sectioned
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) Which of these dyes is acidic?
  1. Basic fuchsin
  2. Crystal violet
  3. Eosin
  4. Safranin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) A lab technician stains a blood film using Wright's stain. However, under the microscope, the red blood cells appear excessively red and the nuclei are poorly stained. What could be the cause?
  1. Inadequate washing
  2. Prolonged staining
  3. The pH of the buffer was too high
  4. The stain/buffer mixture was too acidic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) Cytological smears are usually fixed with:
  1. 10% alcohol
  2. 2% formalin
  3. 20% formalin
  4. 95% alcohol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) Where should agar plates be stored before use?
  1. In a cupboard
  2. In a dry oven
  3. In the freezer
  4. In the fridge
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) Mueller-Hinton agar isolates which type of bacteria?
  1. Mycobacterium
  2. Neisseria
  3. Salmonella
  4. Staphylococcus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) What colour are gram-positive organisms after a Gram stain?
  1. Orange
  2. Purple
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Agar plates are placed upside down in the incubator to prevent:
  1. contamination from other agar plates
  2. moisture from accumulating on the agar surface
  3. pathogens from overgrowing
  4. the medium from drying out
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) The image below shows a streaked agar plate: Which quadrant would you expect to contain the fewest colonies?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) Which anticoagulant is used for red blood cell counts?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Sodium citrate
  4. Sodium oxalate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) What does the international normalized ratio (INR) measure?
  1. How long blood takes to form a clot
  2. How long erythrocytes take to separate from plasma
  3. The average blood glucose level over the past 3 months
  4. The ratio of oxygen to carbon dioxide in the blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) Which kind of centrifuge is used to spin capillary tubes?
  1. Angle head
  2. Cytospin
  3. Microhematocrit
  4. Refrigerated
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) When preparing blood smears, the spreader slide should be at what angle?
  1. 15 degrees
  2. 30 degrees
  3. 45 degrees
  4. 60 degrees
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) What is the name for the lung secretion that is tested for malignant cells?
  1. Saliva
  2. Simulacrum
  3. Spittle
  4. Sputum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Reagent Preparation

4.1) Which of these is a 1/8 dilution of urine?
  1. 1 part urine and 7 parts water
  2. 1 part urine and 8 parts water
  3. 1 part water and 7 parts urine
  4. 1 part water and 8 parts urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) To prepare 500 mL of buffer, the lab manual says to mix 2 parts of the concentrated buffer with 6 parts of distilled water. What quantities of buffer and water would be used?
  1. 125 mL of buffer and 375 mL of water
  2. 150 mL of buffer and 350 mL of water
  3. 175 mL of buffer and 325 mL of water
  4. 200 mL of buffer and 300 mL of water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) 100 mL of 20% hydrochloric acid can make how many mL of 4% hydrochloric acid?
  1. 50 mL
  2. 80 mL
  3. 100 mL
  4. 500 mL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) Which of these is a strong acid?
  1. Carbonic acid
  2. Nitrous acid
  3. Pyruvic acid
  4. Sulfuric acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) What is the recommended method for drying glassware after cleaning it?
  1. By blowing on it
  2. By leaving it to air dry
  3. By rinsing it with acetone
  4. By wiping it with a paper towel
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) The inside of the autoclave should be washed every day with:
  1. a disinfectant
  2. a mild detergent
  3. an antiseptic
  4. saltwater
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) Autoclaves work on which principle?
  1. Cold sterilization
  2. Free-flowing steam
  3. Hot water
  4. Moist heat sterilization
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) Superheating steam in an autoclave:
  1. diminishes its sterilizing capacity
  2. helps to dry out the equipment
  3. increases its sterilizing power
  4. will make the centrifuge spin faster
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) What is the most common sterilization method in clinical laboratories?
  1. Autoclaving
  2. Boiling
  3. Chemical sterilization
  4. Dry heat oven
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 5: Communication and Interaction

5.1) You have to draw blood from an elderly patient. You think his name is John Smith but you are not sure. Which of these is the best question to confirm the patient's name?
  1. "Are you John Smith?"
  2. "Can you confirm that you are John Smith please?"
  3. "I'm a phlebotomist and I'm here to draw your blood. First, though, I have to confirm your name. Can you confirm that your name is John Smith?"
  4. "What is your name?"
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) Your laboratory employs people from many different backgrounds and cultures. Which teamwork skill would be most relevant for increasing team cohesiveness?
  1. Accept criticism
  2. Be dependable
  3. Be tolerant
  4. Compromise
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) If you heard from an employee of a laboratory that "it's a tradition here for us to stand up and defend the laboratory when someone criticizes it," you could assume that the laboratory employees have strong _______________________ norms.
  1. ethical and social responsibility
  2. improvement and change
  3. organizational and personal pride
  4. support and helpfulness
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) When dealing with blind patients, you should:
  1. narrate your actions
  2. provide written materials
  3. use an interpreter
  4. use simple language
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 6: Quality Management

6.1) A technique that has demonstrated its superiority over other techniques over time is known as the:
  1. Pareto principle
  2. benchmark
  3. best practice
  4. case model
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) If a control has a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 1, then 95% of the values obtained should fall within what range?
  1. 1–9
  2. 2–8
  3. 3–7
  4. 4–6
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) Which statistic is a measure of the amount of variation or dispersion of a set of values?
  1. Mean
  2. Median
  3. Mode
  4. Standard deviation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) What is the reliability coefficient of a perfectly reliable test?
  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 5
  4. 100
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) What is the main goal of quality management systems in laboratories?
  1. To automate laboratory work and eliminate human error
  2. To continuously improve the laboratory processes
  3. To reduce the cost of laboratory equipment
  4. To reduce the need for skilled technologists
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) ____________ develops creative solutions by focusing on the problem, coming up with many unbounded solutions, and then pushing the ideas as far as possible.
  1. Benchmarking
  2. Brainstorming
  3. PMI (plus/minus/interesting)
  4. Pareto charts
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) Which problem-solving methodology consists of the phases Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control?
  1. Lean
  2. Pareto charts
  3. Shewhart cycle
  4. Six Sigma
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.8) The acronym PDCA means:
  1. plan, decide, check, assess
  2. plan, do, check, act
  3. prepare, decide, check, act
  4. prepare, decipher, challenge, assess
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 7: Professional Practice

7.1) What are standards of practice?
  1. A definition of competent behaviour for professionals
  2. Measures to ensure work is accurate
  3. Rules for how organizations must treat their employees
  4. Rules for students on work placements
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) What does "primum non nocere" mean?
  1. First, do good
  2. First, do no harm
  3. Follow the patient's requests
  4. The patient always comes first
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) Which principle of the Canada Health Act is not patient-focused but rather the means of achieving the end to which the other four principles are directed?
  1. Accessibility
  2. Comprehensiveness
  3. Portability
  4. Public administration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) A lawyer asks a lab technician for copies of his client's test results. What should the lab technician do?
  1. Allow the lawyer to see the results on the computer
  2. Give the results to the lawyer immediately
  3. Have the lawyer sign a Medical Release Form and then release the results
  4. Tell the lawyer to contact the physician who ordered the tests
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) "Do not cause pain or suffering" applies to which basic ethical principle?
  1. Beneficence
  2. Justice
  3. Nonmaleficence
  4. Respect for autonomy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) Which principle of the Canada Health Act ensures that citizens have healthcare even if they are in another province?
  1. Accessibility
  2. Portability
  3. Public administration
  4. Universality
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) Which principle of PIPEDA states that everyone has a right to ask organizations for a copy of their personal information?
  1. Accountability
  2. Individual Access
  3. Openness
  4. Safeguards
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 8: Critical Thinking

8.1) A patient is extremely anxious about having her blood drawn. She tells you that she is afraid of needles. You do not have much experience drawing blood. What should you do?
  1. Ask an experienced phlebotomist to perform the draw for you
  2. Explain to her that you will use a small needle that barely hurts
  3. Tell her that it's not a big deal and that she shouldn't be afraid
  4. Use an ice pack to numb the site before drawing the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.2) There are two patients in a room and one of the patients has a latex allergy. A phlebotomist needs to collect a specimen from the other patient. How should the phlebotomist proceed?
  1. Ask the allergic patient to wear a mask
  2. Do not take anything that contains latex into the room
  3. Proceed as usual
  4. Pull the curtain between beds and proceed as usual
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.3) A phlebotomist is asked to collect a blood specimen from an inpatient but the patient is not wearing an ID band. What is the best thing to do?
  1. Ask a nurse for help identifying the patient
  2. Identify the patient by asking them to confirm their name
  3. Identify the patient by the name card on the door
  4. Refuse to draw the specimen and cancel the request
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.4) A patient has an IV in his left wrist and a cast on his right arm. Which site should be used to obtain a blood sample?
  1. A vein in the left hand
  2. An earlobe
  3. The left median cubital vein
  4. The right median cubital vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.5) A phlebotomist is performing a venipuncture. The needle is in place but no blood is entering the tube. What is the first thing the phlebotomist should do?
  1. Change to pediatric tubes
  2. Discontinue the draw and cancel the requisition
  3. Switch to a winged blood collection set
  4. Try adjusting the needle slightly
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.6) A patient begins a routine glucose tolerance test. After 30 minutes, the patient's blood sugar is 20.8 mmol/L. What should you do?
  1. Do nothing and continue with the test
  2. Make a note and continue with the test
  3. Start the test again
  4. Tell the attending nurse immediately
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Access options

Get online access or buy a physical book.

Option 1: Online access

Unlock the answers to 178 questions for just $19.99

You'll get immediate access after payment.

Step 1

Enter the email address where you want us to send your order to.



Step 2

Select one of the payment buttons below.

Option 2: Physical book

Get the questions as a book

The questions and answers are available as a book at Amazon.com