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CSMLS MLA Certification Exam: Practice Test 5

Number of questions: 176

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About the CSMLS MLA exam

The CSMLS MLA Certification Exam is an examination for laboratory assistants in Canada. The exam is set by the CSMLS (Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science).

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the CSMLS MLA exam.

This page contains 176 practice questions divided into the eight sections of the exam: 1. Safe Work Practices, 2. Data and Specimen Collection and Handling, 3. Pre-analytical Procedures, 4. Reagent Preparation, 5. Communication and Interaction, 6. Quality Management, 7. Professional Practice, and 8. Critical Thinking.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Check out all the practice tests in this series: Practice Test 1, Practice Test 2, Practice Test 3, Practice Test 4, and Practice Test 5.

Sections

  1. Safe Work Practices
  2. Data and Specimen Collection and Handling
  3. Pre-analytical Procedures
  4. Reagent Preparation
  5. Communication and Interaction
  6. Quality Management
  7. Professional Practice
  8. Critical Thinking

Section 1: Safe Work Practices

1.1) In the context of laboratories, what does SDS stand for?
  1. Safe delivery standards
  2. Safety data sheet
  3. Same-day surgery
  4. Secure data storage
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) LD50 is the:
  1. dose a worker can be exposed to for 50 hours a month without adverse effect
  2. dose a worker can be exposed to for 50 minutes a week without adverse effect
  3. dose that kills all test animals in 50 minutes or less
  4. dose that kills half of test animals
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) A toxic chemical that affects the body by being absorbed into the blood is called a blood:
  1. agent
  2. antagonist
  3. attacker
  4. panel
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) Which of these should you NOT wear in a lab?
  1. Closed-toe shoes
  2. Contact lenses
  3. Glasses
  4. Hairpin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) Which of these is the most flammable?
  1. Acids
  2. Organic solvents
  3. Strong oxidizers
  4. Strong reducers
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) Which of these is an example of passive fire protection?
  1. Fire alarms
  2. Fire extinguishers
  3. Fire-resistant walls
  4. Sprinklers
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) Combustible substances:
  1. are flammable
  2. give off radiation
  3. ignite below 37.8 degrees C
  4. must be stored in a safety can or cabinet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) A substance with the potential to produce cancer in humans or animals is called a:
  1. carcinogen
  2. caustic substance
  3. nosocomial substance
  4. pathogenic substance
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) What is the single most important method of preventing infection?
  1. Proper handwashing
  2. Sneezing into your arm
  3. Thorough cleaning of equipment
  4. Wearing a lab coat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) The six links in the chain of infection are infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and:
  1. behaviour
  2. hospital-acquired infection
  3. reagent
  4. susceptible host
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) How should ethers be stored?
  1. In airtight bottles
  2. In the light
  3. In the refrigerator
  4. Underwater
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Under WHMIS 2015, supplier labels must:
  1. be in English and French
  2. contain a photo of the hazardous product
  3. have a hatched border
  4. have a reference to the supplier's social media pages
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Which of these dilutions is the most effective disinfectant?
  1. 1% ethyl alcohol
  2. 10% ethyl alcohol
  3. 40% ethyl alcohol
  4. 70% ethyl alcohol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) You should start timing the autoclave when the desired temperature for the autoclave is reached and:
  1. steam enters the inner sterilizing chamber
  2. the pressure reaches 15 lbs per square inch
  3. the sterilization indicator changes colour
  4. the warning light starts flashing
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) What pressure and temperature do autoclaves use?
  1. 12 psi at 115°C
  2. 12 psi at 120°C
  3. 15 psi at 112°C
  4. 15 psi at 121°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) Why must all air be removed from an autoclave before switching it on?
  1. Air causes cold spots in the autoclave
  2. Air increases the risk of explosion
  3. Any water in the air will dilute the sterilizing agents
  4. Steam can break the glassware
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) Which item of lab equipment sterilizes using pressurized steam?
  1. Autoclave
  2. Dry heat sterilizer
  3. Fume hood
  4. Oven
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) What problem can happen if a dry heat oven is opened during sterilization?
  1. Glassware may break
  2. Glassware may get wet
  3. Sterilization may not be complete
  4. The oven may get damaged
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Data and Specimen Collection and Handling

2.1) Which vein should be tried first when choosing a draw site?
  1. Basilic
  2. Cephalic
  3. Median antibrachial
  4. Median cubital
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) Petechiae appear when a phlebotomist applies a tourniquet to a patient's arm. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Call a nurse
  2. Cancel the draw
  3. Continue with the draw
  4. Try the other arm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) What can happen if a phlebotomist releases the tourniquet after removing the needle from the arm?
  1. Angina
  2. Bleeding
  3. Cyanosis
  4. Edema
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) When a phlebotomist inserts a needle into the patient's arm, bright red blood spurts into the vacutainer. What does this indicate?
  1. A high hematocrit
  2. A low blood pH
  3. An arterial puncture
  4. Carbon monoxide poisoning
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) During venipuncture, what is the longest time a tourniquet should remain on the patient's arm?
  1. 1 minute
  2. 3 minutes
  3. 5 minutes
  4. 7 minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) Which of these vacutainer tubes does NOT contain an anticoagulant?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) EDTA prevents clotting by binding to:
  1. anti-hemophilia factor
  2. calcium ions
  3. fibrinogen
  4. prothrombin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) What is the glycolytic inhibitor in grey-top tubes?
  1. Heparin
  2. Silicon
  3. Sodium citrate
  4. Sodium fluoride
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) What colour Vacutainer tube is used for erythrocyte sedimentation rates?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) A phlebotomist needs to draw blood into a grey-top tube, a gold-top tube and a lavender-top tube. What is the correct order to fill the tubes?
  1. Gold, grey, lavender
  2. Gold, lavender, grey
  3. Grey, gold, lavender
  4. Grey, lavender, gold
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) You have collected blood in a tube containing an additive. What should you do next?
  1. Empty the tube into the sink
  2. Invert the tube several times
  3. Leave the tube in the fridge for 2-3 hours
  4. Shake the tube vigorously
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) Lavender top tubes contain which additive?
  1. EDTA
  2. Lithium heparin
  3. Sodium fluoride
  4. Sodium heparin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) Yellow-topped tubes contain which additive?
  1. Acid citrate dextrose
  2. Sodium benzoate
  3. Sodium nitrite
  4. Sulphur dioxide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) What causes evacuated tubes to fill with blood automatically?
  1. Arterial blood pressure
  2. Gravity
  3. Pressure from the tourniquet
  4. Vacuum in the tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) What is the purpose of the gel in SST blood collection tubes?
  1. To indicate whether glucose has been used by any organisms in the blood
  2. To prevent the blood from clotting
  3. To separate DNA, RNA, or proteins according to molecular size
  4. To separate blood cells from serum or plasma during centrifugation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) Which part of a syringe has volume markings such as mL?
  1. Barrel
  2. Flange
  3. Needle
  4. Plunger
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) Multisample needles are typically available in which gauges?
  1. 18–20
  2. 20–22
  3. 22–24
  4. 24–26
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) A phlebotomist draws blood from a patient and then wraps the tube in aluminum foil. What analyte is being tested?
  1. Albumin
  2. Bilirubin
  3. PTT
  4. Urobilinogen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) What does the specific gravity of urine measure?
  1. The concentration of particles
  2. The level of nitrates
  3. The pH of urine
  4. The weight of the urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) The heel bone is called the:
  1. calcaneus
  2. lamina
  3. malleolus
  4. xiphoid process
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) What is the medical term for the shoulder blade?
  1. Clavicle
  2. Patella
  3. Scapula
  4. Sternum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) Which prefix means 'fast'?
  1. brady-
  2. hyper-
  3. supra-
  4. tachy-
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) Enzymes end with which suffix?
  1. -ase
  2. -cyte
  3. -osis
  4. -phage
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) What is a CCMSU?
  1. A blood test to diagnose cancer of the red blood cells
  2. A method of collecting urine samples
  3. A type of heart attack
  4. A type of x-ray
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) ETS stands for ________ ________ system.
  1. electrical tube
  2. evacuated tube
  3. extravascular testing
  4. extravascular tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) What is phlebitis?
  1. A type of blood cancer
  2. A viral infection that affects lymph nodes
  3. Clotting in an artery
  4. Inflammation of a vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) Which term means a low white blood cell count?
  1. Leukocytosis
  2. Leukodystrophy
  3. Leukopenia
  4. Leukoplakia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) Urticaria is another name for:
  1. hives
  2. malignancy of the basal cells
  3. scales
  4. severe itching
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) Which term means enlargement of the thyroid gland?
  1. Euthyroid
  2. Goiter
  3. Hypergonadism
  4. Hypophyseal enlargement
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) What is the term for a high level of glucose in the blood?
  1. Hyperglycemia
  2. Hypodermic
  3. Hypogastric
  4. Hypoglycemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) What is the medical term for a high lymphocyte count?
  1. Lymphocytopenia
  2. Lymphocytosis
  3. Lymphoid
  4. Lymphopoiesis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) What is the medical term for low levels of oxygen in the blood?
  1. Hematemesis
  2. Hemorrhage
  3. Hypoxemia
  4. Paroxysmal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) Icterus is another word for:
  1. heart attack
  2. jaundice
  3. seizure
  4. stroke
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) The excision of a tissue sample for examination under a microscope is called a(n):
  1. abscess
  2. biopsy
  3. curettage
  4. laceration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) What is the basic structural and functional unit of the human body?
  1. The cell
  2. The organ
  3. The system
  4. Tissue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) Which of these is a type of connective tissue?
  1. Areolar
  2. Cuboidal
  3. Squamous
  4. Transitional
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) Myoglobin is a protein that binds to:
  1. DNA
  2. cancer cells
  3. cholesterol
  4. oxygen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) Degenerative diseases are:
  1. acute
  2. chronic
  3. latent
  4. short
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) Beriberi is a deficiency of which vitamin?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B1
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin D1
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) Kernicterus is caused by an abnormal accumulation of bilirubin in which organ?
  1. Brain
  2. Heart
  3. Liver
  4. Lung
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) Most cases of tetany are caused by a deficiency of which mineral?
  1. Calcium
  2. Phosphorous
  3. Potassium
  4. Sodium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.42) Which type of jaundice is due to liver damage?
  1. Hepatocellular
  2. Neonatal
  3. Post-hepatic
  4. Pre-hepatic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.43) Around ________ of an adult's body weight is blood.
  1. 2%
  2. 8%
  3. 16%
  4. 22%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.44) How much blood does an average adult weighing between 150 to 160 pounds have in their body?
  1. 1 litre
  2. 3 litres
  3. 6 litres
  4. 9 litres
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.45) What causes colloid osmotic pressure in blood?
  1. Proteins in the blood
  2. Proteins in the interstitial fluid
  3. Sodium and chloride ions in the blood
  4. The water component of the blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.46) Which fibrous connective tissue connects muscle to bone?
  1. Cartilage
  2. Ligament
  3. Muscle fibre
  4. Tendon
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.47) Which hormone lowers blood glucose levels?
  1. FSH
  2. Glucagon
  3. Insulin
  4. Progesterone
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.48) Which of these hormones is produced by the pituitary gland?
  1. Insulin
  2. T4
  3. TRH
  4. TSH
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.49) After leaving the stomach, food next enters the:
  1. esophagus
  2. large intestine
  3. rectum
  4. small intestine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.50) Neurons that transmit nerve impulses toward the central nervous system are called ____________ neurons.
  1. bipolar
  2. intermediary
  3. motor
  4. sensory
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.51) Which is the largest artery in the body?
  1. Aorta
  2. Iliac artery
  3. Pulmonary artery
  4. Superior vena cava
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.52) On which part of the body is the basilic vein?
  1. Arm
  2. Hand
  3. Leg
  4. Neck
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.53) Which element is found in protein but not in carbohydrates and fats?
  1. Carbon
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Oxygen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.54) Which organ system detects changes to the internal and external environments of the body and directs a response?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Endocrine
  3. Nervous
  4. Respiratory
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.55) Which organ shrinks after puberty?
  1. Lymph node
  2. Spleen
  3. Thoracic duct
  4. Thymus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.56) What is the main detoxification organ?
  1. Kidneys
  2. Liver
  3. Pancreas
  4. Spleen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.57) Which organ filters blood and removes worn-out red blood cells from the bloodstream?
  1. Lymph node
  2. Spleen
  3. Thoracic duct
  4. Thymus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.58) Which organ conjugates bilirubin?
  1. Kidneys
  2. Liver
  3. Pancreas
  4. Spleen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.59) Which organ regulates the level of carbon dioxide in the body?
  1. Heart
  2. Kidneys
  3. Liver
  4. Lungs
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.60) What is anemia?
  1. A condition where the bone marrow makes too many red blood cells
  2. A low level of healthy red blood cells or hemoglobin
  3. A low level of reticulocytes
  4. An impairment of the body's ability to make blood clots
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.61) Adipose tissue stores:
  1. fat
  2. mucous
  3. protein
  4. water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.62) What colour is hemoglobin?
  1. Blue
  2. Red
  3. White
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.63) What does an antiglycolytic agent do?
  1. Enhance coagulation
  2. Inhibit thrombin formation
  3. Prevent a specimen from clotting
  4. Prevent the breakdown of glucose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.64) EDTA is a:
  1. anticoagulant
  2. clot activator
  3. glucose preservative
  4. plasma separator
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.65) Mixing blood with glass beads in an airtight container is a procedure to produce __________ blood.
  1. acidic
  2. defibrinated
  3. hypoglycemic
  4. serosanguinous
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.66) Which of these specimens would most likely be rejected for testing?
  1. A hemolyzed potassium specimen
  2. A nonfasting glucose specimen
  3. A serum-separator tube that is only half-filled
  4. An icteric bilirubin specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.67) Which of the following can cause hemolysis in a blood sample?
  1. Collecting the sample in a serum separator tube
  2. Shaking the sample vigorously
  3. Using a large needle
  4. Withdrawing the needle before removing the tourniquet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.68) Which of the following is an example of a pre-analytical phase quality indicator?
  1. Number of improperly labelled samples
  2. Number of laboratory reporting errors
  3. Percentage of results delivered late
  4. Turnaround time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.69) Which area on a newborn is suitable for skin puncture?
  1. Any calloused areas of the foot
  2. The lateral, flat portion of the heel
  3. The posterior curvature of the heel
  4. The second or third finger on either hand
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.70) Which sample does the glycosylated hemoglobin test require?
  1. Plasma
  2. Serum
  3. Urine
  4. Whole blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.71) Throat swabs are often taken to diagnose:
  1. bleeding ulcers
  2. herpes zoster
  3. streptococcus
  4. typhoid fever
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.72) What is the best time to collect a sputum specimen?
  1. An hour before the patient has dinner
  2. In the middle of the day
  3. Just after the patient wakes up
  4. Just before the patient goes to bed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.73) Which is the preferred site to obtain capillary blood from adults?
  1. Ear
  2. Fingertip
  3. Heel
  4. Toe
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.74) You are taking an arterial puncture. What is the first area of the patient’s body you should examine for a suitable site?
  1. The antecubital area of both arms
  2. The brachial artery
  3. The femoral artery
  4. The thumb side of the wrist
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.75) Which of these is an acceptable needle gauge for an arterial puncture?
  1. 10
  2. 18
  3. 20
  4. 28
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.76) When performing a radial artery puncture, the needle should enter the skin:
  1. 1 cm distal to the index finger
  2. 1 cm lateral to the index finger
  3. at the exact point where the pulse is felt
  4. proximal to where the pulse is felt
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.77) An ABG test measures the amount of:
  1. bacteria and yeast in a urine sample
  2. occult blood in a stool sample
  3. oxygen and carbon dioxide in arterial blood
  4. red and white blood cells in venous blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.78) The troponin test is used to help diagnose which condition?
  1. Brain damage
  2. Diabetes
  3. Heart attack
  4. Kidney failure
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.79) The alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test requires which type of sample?
  1. Blood
  2. Cerebrospinal fluid
  3. Feces
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.80) Which urine collection technique involves collecting the urine by inserting a sterile needle into the patient's bladder through the abdominal wall?
  1. Biopsy
  2. Necropsy
  3. Suprapubic aspiration
  4. Urinary catheter
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.81) Which of these is an acceptable preservative for the phosphorus 24-hour urine test?
  1. Chlorhexidine
  2. Hydrochloric acid
  3. Sodium bicarbonate
  4. Sodium hydroxide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.82) Which of these is the most important part of blood culture collection?
  1. Adequately filling two media vials
  2. Asepsis of the collection site
  3. Selecting the collection site
  4. Timing of the second set of cultures
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.83) A xylose tolerance test is usually performed for:
  1. lipid disorders
  2. liver disorders
  3. malabsorption syndromes
  4. muscular wasting disorders
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.84) You are performing a glucose tolerance test that requires a blood sample at baseline and then four blood samples thereafter, at a rate of one sample every 30 minutes. If the patient drinks the glucose at 10:00 am, then at what time should you take the final blood sample?
  1. 11:00 am
  2. 10:30 am
  3. 11:30 am
  4. 12:00 pm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.85) According to WHO guidelines for the oral glucose tolerance test, the patient should drink the dose of glucose within:
  1. 5 minutes
  2. 10 minutes
  3. 20 minutes
  4. 30 minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.86) How much glucose is given to a non-pregnant patient for an oral glucose tolerance test?
  1. 5 g
  2. 25 g
  3. 75 g
  4. 150 g
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.87) A 2-hour postprandial glucose test:
  1. is collected 2 hours after a meal
  2. is collected 2 hours after fasting
  3. is used to diagnose diabetes during pregnancy
  4. requires a urine sample
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.88) A fasting patient has cloudy white serum. What condition does the patient have?
  1. Hemolysis
  2. Hyperbilirubinemia
  3. Hyperthyroidism
  4. Hypertriglyceridemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.89) A blood sample of insufficient quantity would be considered:
  1. QA
  2. QC
  3. QLA
  4. QNS
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.90) Which of these urine constituents increases in a urine specimen left at room temperature?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Leukocytes
  3. Nitrites
  4. Urobilinogen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.91) Which of these chemicals can be used to preserve 24-hour urines for endocrine testing?
  1. Boric acid
  2. Potassium chloride
  3. Sodium bicarbonate
  4. Sodium hypochlorite
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.92) Where are urine reagent strips stored?
  1. In a cool, dry place
  2. In a jar, exposed to air
  3. In an incubator (37°C)
  4. In the refrigerator
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.93) Where is blood generally stored?
  1. At room temperature
  2. In a water bath
  3. In the freezer
  4. In the refrigerator
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.94) What is the packaging material code for aluminum?
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.95) The Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act would apply to which of the following?
  1. A shipment of 3 L of formaldehyde
  2. Blood samples transported to a laboratory for testing
  3. Category A and B microorganisms
  4. Risk Group 1 microorganisms
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.96) In Type P650 packaging, the primary and secondary receptacles must be:
  1. dustproof
  2. heatproof
  3. leakproof
  4. sunproof
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.97) The glycosylated hemoglobin test is used to diagnose which disease?
  1. Diabetes
  2. Hemoglobin C disease
  3. Inflammation
  4. Renal disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Pre-analytical Procedures

3.1) Which pipette has a bulged-out portion in the middle?
  1. Mohr
  2. Pasture
  3. Serological
  4. Volumetric
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) Which of these fixatives is alcohol-based?
  1. B-5 fixative
  2. Carnoy’s fixative
  3. Formalin
  4. Helly’s fixative
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) What is tissue fixation?
  1. Dehydrating tissue
  2. Heating tissue in an autoclave
  3. Preserving tissue in a life-like manner
  4. Removing calcium ions from tissue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Which of these is a disadvantage of xylene as a clearing agent?
  1. Expensive
  2. Removes aniline dyes
  3. Slow
  4. Toxic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) What is used to dehydrate tissue samples?
  1. Alcohol solutions
  2. Hot air
  3. Sunlight
  4. Xylene
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) Diamond blades are needed to cut:
  1. bone
  2. intestinal tissue
  3. muscle tissue
  4. skin tissue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Plastic sections used in transmission electron microscopy are typically cut how thick?
  1. 60–100 nm
  2. 60–100 μm
  3. 6–10 μm
  4. 6–10 mm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) Wax sections are typically cut how thick during microtomy?
  1. 4–10 nm
  2. 40–100 nm
  3. 4–10 µm
  4. 4–10 mm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) Identify the false statement about the preparation of reticulocyte smears.
  1. Reticulocyte smears are used to determine the number of white blood cells present in a sample
  2. The dyes used can be new methylene blue or brilliant cresyl blue
  3. The stain and the cells must be left to react for 15 minutes before making the smear
  4. The staining technique is called supravital staining
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) Which of these stains is a trichrome stain?
  1. Gomori
  2. Papanicolaou
  3. Romanowsky
  4. Verhoeff-van Gieson
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Which solution in Masson's trichrome stain is sometimes referred to as the fibre stain?
  1. Ferric chloride in hydrochloric acid
  2. Hematoxylin in 95% ethanol
  3. Solution B
  4. Solution C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) Lillie's trichrome uses which dye for the plasma stain?
  1. Biebrich scarlet
  2. Congo red
  3. Eosin
  4. Xylidine ponceau
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) The Grocott-Gomori stain is used widely as a screen for:
  1. HIV
  2. fungi
  3. influenza
  4. salmonella
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) The HvG stain is a combination of Van Gieson's stain and which dye?
  1. Crystal violet
  2. Giemsa
  3. Hematoxylin
  4. Safranin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) Mucicarmine is used primarily to stain:
  1. elastic fibres
  2. epithelial mucin
  3. fat
  4. nervous tissue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) What cell structure turns blue in H&E staining?
  1. Cytoplasm
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Nuclei
  4. Reticulum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) What is the term for an organism that only grows when specific nutrients are included in its medium?
  1. Anaerobe
  2. Captious
  3. Fastidious
  4. Obligate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) In a patient with HIV, which of these samples would have the highest concentration of the virus?
  1. Feces
  2. Serum
  3. Sweat
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) Bile esculin agar is used mainly to differentiate which two organisms?
  1. Campylobacter and Helicobacter
  2. Enterococcus and Streptococcus
  3. Legionella and Bordetella
  4. Shigella and Klebsiella
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) CLED agar lacks electrolytes to prevent the swarming of which species?
  1. Proteus
  2. Shigella
  3. Vibrio
  4. Yersinia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) The cell walls of gram-positive bacteria have what property that enables them to resist decolourization during Gram staining?
  1. A high mycolic acid content
  2. A lipid bilayer
  3. A thick layer of peptidoglycan
  4. Multiple endoflagella
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) Which acid-fast staining method is known as the hot method?
  1. Auramine-Rhodamine
  2. Fluorochrome
  3. Kinyoun
  4. Ziehl-Neelsen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Where should you label a Petri plate?
  1. On the bottom of the plate
  2. On the inside of the lid
  3. On the side of the lid
  4. On the top of the lid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) Which of these agar plates has been streaked correctly?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) An acid buffer can be made by mixing a:
  1. strong acid with a strong base
  2. weak acid with a strong base
  3. weak acid with a weak base
  4. weak acid with its salt
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Section 4: Reagent Preparation

4.1) A lab technician makes a solution by mixing 1 litre of water with 9 g of salt. What is the salt concentration of the solution?
  1. 0.9 g/L
  2. 8 g/L
  3. 8.9 g/L
  4. 9 g/L
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) You dilute a sample four times using a dilution factor of 20 each time. What is the final dilution?
  1. 1/20
  2. 1/80
  3. 1/8,000
  4. 1/160,000
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) How much water needs to be added to 100 mL of pure bleach to make 10% bleach?
  1. 700 mL
  2. 800 mL
  3. 900 mL
  4. 1,000 mL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) A lab technician has an 8% solution of hypochlorite and needs to make 700 mL of a 4% solution of hypochlorite. What volume of solute and solvent does the technician need to use?
  1. 300 mL of the 8% solution in 400 mL of solvent
  2. 350 mL of the 8% solution in 350 mL of solvent
  3. 400 mL of the 8% solution in 300 mL of solvent
  4. 450 mL of the 8% solution in 250 mL of solvent
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) A lab technician has a litre of 85% alcohol. How much water must the technician add to the alcohol to dilute it to 70%?
  1. 214 mL
  2. 528 mL
  3. 1,214 mL
  4. 1,528 mL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) Where is methanol stored?
  1. In a fume hood
  2. In a flammables storage cabinet
  3. In a refrigerator
  4. On the bench top
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) Autoclaving uses what method of sterilization?
  1. Chemical
  2. Dry heat
  3. Moist heat
  4. Radiation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) How is a 10% solution of stock formalin made?
  1. 1 part stock formalin with 10 parts water
  2. 1 part stock formalin with 9 parts water
  3. 9 parts stock formalin with 1 part water
  4. 10 parts stock formalin with 1 part water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) The wire in the reference electrode of pH meters is typically made of:
  1. mercury/mercurous chloride
  2. nickel/nickel chloride
  3. silver/silver chloride
  4. zinc/zinc chloride
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Section 5: Communication and Interaction

5.1) A young woman comes to get her blood drawn. She looks nervous. She says this is her first venipuncture. You should:
  1. carefully explain the procedure to her
  2. give her a stick to bite down on
  3. ignore her nervousness
  4. tell her she is too old to be scared
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) A lab assistant is chronically late and has poor work performance. These issues should initially be addressed by the:
  1. hospital director
  2. human resource department
  3. manager
  4. union
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) Which of these is essential for a true team?
  1. Collective accountability
  2. Homogeneous membership
  3. Isolation from outsiders
  4. Large size
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) Which of the following is an element of verbal communication?
  1. Body language
  2. Eye contact
  3. Facial expression
  4. Intonation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) For which type of patient would an interpreter be useful?
  1. Blind
  2. Intellectually disabled
  3. Non-English speaking
  4. Pediatric
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) A patient needs to collect urine in a container for urinalysis. However, the patient is nervous and says he is having trouble producing the urine specimen. What should you do?
  1. Cancel the test
  2. Offer the patient a drink of water and ask him to try again
  3. Take a blood sample instead and make a note on the requisition form
  4. Tell the patient he is not trying hard enough
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 6: Quality Management

6.1) If a data set has a mean of 7.2 and a standard deviation of 1.2, what range of values falls within two standard deviations of the mean?
  1. 4.8–9.6
  2. 6.0–8.4
  3. 7.2–9.6
  4. 8.6–10.2
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) The value that appears most often in a set of data values is called the:
  1. average
  2. coefficient of variation
  3. mean
  4. mode
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) External quality assessment schemes are also known as:
  1. compliance
  2. proficiency testing
  3. quality assurance
  4. quality management systems
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) The focus of quality assurance is best described as:
  1. continuous quality improvement
  2. doing more with less
  3. improving a system
  4. preventing mistakes and defects
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) Which term means the extent to which measurements agree with the true value?
  1. Accuracy
  2. Precision
  3. Reliability
  4. Reproducibility
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) The quality control chart of an instrument shows ten consecutive data points on one side of the mean. What should you do?
  1. Accept the run
  2. Reject the run and follow the method's troubleshooting procedures
  3. Repeat the control sera on the next run
  4. Report the results with a disclaimer that they may be erroneous
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 7: Professional Practice

7.1) If a patient refuses to have blood drawn:
  1. ask the patient for a urine sample instead
  2. notify the patient's nurse or physician
  3. restrain the patient and draw the blood
  4. try to convince the patient to be cooperative
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) Which of these laws primarily concerns data privacy?
  1. Canada Health Act
  2. HCCA
  3. PIPEDA
  4. RHPA
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) What is the term for mechanisms and processes protecting health information from unauthorized access?
  1. Accountability
  2. Confidentiality
  3. Isolation
  4. Security
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) Informed consent is based on which ethical principle?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Fidelity
  4. Veracity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) You are a phlebotomist drawing blood from a woman for a pregnancy test. After the woman has left the room, a colleague approaches you and asks what test was ordered. He explains he wants to know because he is the woman's ex-boyfriend. You should:
  1. call the police
  2. inform him you are unable to tell him anything
  3. lie and tell him the test was a complete blood count
  4. reassure him that he has nothing to worry about
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) A framework that ensures an organization has implemented effective measures to protect data and information is known as a:
  1. PIA
  2. PIPEDA
  3. TRA
  4. information security program
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) PIPEDA is known as consent-based legislation. This means:
  1. healthcare professionals must get consent before performing tests or treatment on patients
  2. organizations must get consent before collecting or using a person's personal information
  3. organizations that collect and use information must consent to do so
  4. provinces can choose whether to enforce the legislation or not
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.8) Which principle of PIPEDA states that organizations must hire or designate someone to manage personal information?
  1. Accountability
  2. Accuracy
  3. Challenging compliance
  4. Limiting use, disclosure, and retention
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.9) Which principle of the Canada Health Act requires provinces to provide all services deemed medically necessary?
  1. Comprehensiveness
  2. Portability
  3. Public administration
  4. Universality
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.10) CSMLS certification is the entry-level requirement for medical laboratory technologists in all of the regulated provinces except:
  1. Alberta
  2. New Brunswick
  3. Nova Scotia
  4. Quebec
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Section 8: Critical Thinking

8.1) Which of these specimens has the lowest priority?
  1. Postop
  2. Preop
  3. Routine
  4. Timed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.2) Which of these specimens should be collected first?
  1. Pre-op CBC
  2. Routine CBC
  3. Routine glucose
  4. Urgent CBC
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.3) Which of these is a skill needed for critical thinking?
  1. Communication
  2. Interpersonal skills
  3. Logical reasoning
  4. Teamwork
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.4) What is the purpose of utilization management?
  1. To improve the quality of patient care
  2. To increase patient safety
  3. To reduce the number of adverse events
  4. To use resources more effectively
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.5) Which of these actions is NOT performed when performing quality control of a glucometer?
  1. Apply a drop of blood to the test strip
  2. Compare the result displayed by the glucometer with the expected value
  3. Insert a test strip into the glucometer
  4. Remove the test strip from the glucometer
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