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CSMLS MLA Certification Exam: Practice Test 3

Number of questions: 175

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About the CSMLS MLA exam

The CSMLS MLA Certification Exam is an examination for laboratory assistants in Canada. The exam is set by the CSMLS (Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science).

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the CSMLS MLA exam.

This page contains 175 practice questions divided into the eight sections of the exam: 1. Safe Work Practices, 2. Data and Specimen Collection and Handling, 3. Pre-analytical Procedures, 4. Reagent Preparation, 5. Communication and Interaction, 6. Quality Management, 7. Professional Practice, and 8. Critical Thinking.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Check out all the practice tests in this series: Practice Test 1, Practice Test 2, Practice Test 3, Practice Test 4, and Practice Test 5.

Sections

  1. Safe Work Practices
  2. Data and Specimen Collection and Handling
  3. Pre-analytical Procedures
  4. Reagent Preparation
  5. Communication and Interaction
  6. Quality Management
  7. Professional Practice
  8. Critical Thinking

Section 1: Safe Work Practices

1.1) In which of these situations should a lab technician remove their gloves?
  1. Before carrying specimens through a designated clean area
  2. Before loading the autoclave
  3. Before using a restroom
  4. For cleaning a chemical spill
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) Which of these is a good laboratory safety rule?
  1. Leave the instrument on when performing repairs
  2. Use one hand to carry testing samples, not two
  3. Wait until the end of the shift to clean up any spills
  4. Wear safety goggles when working with strong chemicals
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) Insidious hazards are hazards that:
  1. are easily overlooked
  2. happen quickly
  3. involve chemicals
  4. involve fumes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) Which of these liquids is flammable?
  1. Bleach
  2. Ethanol
  3. Nitric acid
  4. Saline
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) Which rating of fire extinguisher is used in chemical fires?
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: This fire extinguisher:
  1. can be used on fires involving flammable liquids or gases
  2. requires annual top-ups of type B fuel
  3. should be stored in a separate room from flammable chemicals
  4. uses kerosene to extinguish fires
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) Refer to the image below: Another name for this type of fire extinguisher is a _________ fire extinguisher.
  1. ABC
  2. AFFF foam
  3. carbon dioxide
  4. class F
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) What are the three components of the fire triangle?
  1. Oxygen, heat, and fuel
  2. Oxygen, ignition, and fuel
  3. Rescue, Alarm, Escape
  4. Rescue, Alarm, Extinguish
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) Dry ice is dangerous because it burns, suffocates and:
  1. can cause a viral Infection
  2. can cause cancer
  3. can explode
  4. catches fire when exposed to air
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) Which of these is an example of personal protective equipment (PPE)?
  1. A fire extinguisher
  2. A first aid kit
  3. A hand-washing station
  4. Gloves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) Nitrile gloves:
  1. are a good substitute for latex gloves
  2. are cheaper than latex gloves
  3. are less resistant to punctures than latex gloves
  4. are unsuitable for routine laboratory work
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Universal precautions are guidelines for handling:
  1. carcinogens
  2. chemicals
  3. flammable liquids
  4. patient bodily fluids
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) What is post-exposure prophylaxis?
  1. An auto-immune disease
  2. The inability to breathe after exposure to an allergen
  3. The protocol for cleaning a laboratory after the release of a dangerous pathogen
  4. Treatment after exposure to a pathogen to prevent infection from occurring
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) What does this pictogram mean?
  1. Flammable
  2. Oxidizing
  3. Self-heating
  4. Self-reactive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) The destruction of all microorganisms, including spores, is called:
  1. disinfection
  2. eradication
  3. sanitation
  4. sterilization
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) A disinfectant may become ineffective if:
  1. it is kept in a dark place
  2. it is left at room temperature
  3. it is not diluted properly
  4. the container is kept tightly sealed during storage
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) Which method of sterilization uses steam under pressure?
  1. Dry heat autoclaving
  2. Filtration
  3. Microwaving
  4. Moist heat autoclaving
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) Ethanol can NOT kill:
  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  2. Salmonella typhosa
  3. fungi
  4. spores
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) You have been tasked with decontaminating the centrifuge. The lab manual says to use a 10% bleach solution to decontaminate the centrifuge. However, no bleach is available. What would be the most suitable alternative?
  1. 70% ethanol
  2. Antibacterial soap and water
  3. Povidone-iodine
  4. Sodium bicarbonate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) Class 1 hazardous materials are:
  1. explosive
  2. infectious
  3. poisonous
  4. radioactive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) What worldwide system gives recommendations on how to label hazardous chemicals?
  1. GHS
  2. HCS
  3. HPR
  4. HazCom
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Data and Specimen Collection and Handling

2.1) When should a "stat" glucose test be performed?
  1. 2 hours after the last meal
  2. Immediately
  3. Within 1 hour
  4. Within 4 hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) When drawing a patient's blood, which of these steps should come first?
  1. Apply the tourniquet
  2. Clean the site
  3. Identify the patient
  4. Insert the needle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) A patient has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in his left arm and an IV in his right arm. From where should you draw a blood sample?
  1. Above the AV fistula
  2. Above the IV
  3. Below the AV fistula
  4. Below the IV
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) Why must a phlebotomist clean the patient's skin before performing a venipuncture?
  1. To allow blood flow to the area
  2. To cause the veins to be more prominent
  3. To decrease circulation in the arteries
  4. To remove microorganisms from the puncture site
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) For venipuncture, the tourniquet should be applied ________________ the needle insertion point.
  1. 1-2 inches above
  2. 1-2 inches below
  3. 3-4 inches above
  4. 3-4 inches below
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) What can happen if a phlebotomist uses an angle of 35 degrees when performing venipuncture?
  1. Nothing will happen as this is the correct angle
  2. The needle may go completely through the vein
  3. The needle may miss the vein completely
  4. The needle will enter above the vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) Which of these statements about venipuncture is true?
  1. After collecting the blood, remove the needle first, then the tourniquet
  2. Do not leave the tourniquet on for more than 1 minute
  3. Enter the vein at a 50-degree angle
  4. The bevel of the needle should be pointing down when the needle enters the vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) Repeated phlebotomy procedures in the same area can cause:
  1. petechiae
  2. scarring
  3. thrombosis
  4. varicose veins
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) A physician requests a vitamin A test and a complete blood count. Which vacutainer tubes should the phlebotomist use to collect the blood samples for these tests?
  1. Gold and lavender
  2. Grey and gold
  3. Grey and lavender
  4. Grey and light blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) A phlebotomist has to collect a purple top tube, green top tube, and light blue top tube from the same patient. In which order should the phlebotomist fill the tubes?
  1. Green, light blue, purple
  2. Green, purple, light blue
  3. Light blue, green, purple
  4. Purple, green, light blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) What anticoagulant is in a green top vacutainer?
  1. Citrate
  2. EDTA
  3. Fluoride
  4. Heparin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) A phlebotomist needs to collect blood samples from a patient for a blood glucose test and a hemoglobin test. What colour tubes should the phlebotomist use?
  1. Grey and green
  2. Grey and lavender
  3. Grey and red
  4. Red and green
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) Which anticoagulant tube is needed to collect a sample for an HbA1c test?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Sodium citrate
  4. Sodium fluoride
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) What colour tube is used for stat chemistry tests?
  1. Green
  2. Light blue
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) For which tube is the blood-to-additive ratio most critical?
  1. Green top
  2. Lavender top
  3. Light blue top
  4. Red top
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) Which of these tubes contains an anticoagulant that works by binding calcium?
  1. Green top
  2. Light blue top
  3. PST
  4. Red top
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) Serum specimens are collected in which vacutainer tube?
  1. Green
  2. Light blue
  3. PST
  4. SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) A phlebotomist has to draw a patient's blood into a blood culture bottle and four tubes: red, green, light blue, and purple. Which should the phlebotomist fill first?
  1. Blood culture bottle
  2. Light blue top tube
  3. Purple top tube
  4. Red top tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) Blood for a white blood cell count would generally be collected in which colour vacutainer?
  1. Black
  2. Blue
  3. Grey
  4. Lavender
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) Which of these tubes contains EDTA?
  1. Gray
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Light green
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) EDTA prevents blood clots by binding:
  1. calcium
  2. chloride
  3. plasma
  4. red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) Which of these additives provides a physical barrier to prevent glycolysis?
  1. EDTA
  2. Silica
  3. Sodium fluoride
  4. Thixotropic gel
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) Which vacutainer tube has a light yellow top?
  1. PST
  2. SPS
  3. SST
  4. Sodium heparin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) Venipuncture needles are colour-coded according to their:
  1. expiration date
  2. gauge
  3. length
  4. manufacturer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) Which of these is needed to collect blood by syringe?
  1. Multisample needle
  2. Transfer device
  3. Tube holder
  4. Winged infusion set
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) Which of these needles has the largest diameter?
  1. 18-gauge
  2. 19-gauge
  3. 20-gauge
  4. 21-gauge
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) When should you label a blood collection tube?
  1. As soon as you receive the test order
  2. Just before the patient arrives
  3. Before you collect the specimen
  4. After you collect the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) Which term means a location towards the front of the body?
  1. Anterior
  2. Distal
  3. Lateral
  4. Posterior
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) Which term means away from the origin?
  1. Anterior
  2. Distal
  3. Lateral
  4. Posterior
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) Which plane separates the body into left and right?
  1. Medial
  2. Oblique
  3. Sagittal
  4. Transverse
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) What does the prefix olig/o- mean?
  1. Before
  2. Few
  3. Many
  4. Under
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) What does the F stand for in FBS test?
  1. Fasting
  2. Fatal
  3. Final
  4. First
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) What is edema?
  1. A bruise on the head
  2. A collection of blood outside blood vessels
  3. Swelling caused by fluid retention
  4. The final product of the blood coagulation step in hemostasis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) Hyperkalemia means high levels of which chemical element?
  1. Calcium
  2. Mercury
  3. Potassium
  4. Sodium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) What is the major cation found in extracellular fluid?
  1. Magnesium
  2. Potassium
  3. Sodium
  4. Zinc
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) From smallest to largest, the levels of organization of the body are:
  1. chemical, microscopic, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism
  2. chemical, organelle, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism
  3. organism, chemical, tissue, cellular, organ, system, organelle
  4. organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, organelle, chemical
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) Which of these is a primary lymphoid organ?
  1. Bone marrow
  2. Lymph node
  3. Peyer's patch
  4. Spleen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) Which gland secretes cortisol?
  1. Adrenal cortex
  2. Adrenal medulla
  3. Pituitary gland
  4. Testes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) Which element is the basis of organic chemistry?
  1. Carbon
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Oxygen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) Factor I is also known as:
  1. fibrinogen
  2. proaccelerin
  3. prothrombin
  4. tissue thromboplastin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) Multiple sclerosis occurs when:
  1. axons do not reach the threshold level
  2. dendrites cannot receive impulses
  3. myelin sheaths are destroyed
  4. the cellular sheaths are destroyed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.42) What autoimmune disorder results in hypothyroidism?
  1. Celiac disease
  2. Hashimoto's disease
  3. Multiple sclerosis
  4. Myasthenia gravis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.43) Jaundice is caused by a buildup of ___________ in the blood.
  1. bilirubin
  2. hemoglobin
  3. potassium
  4. uric acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.44) How long does it take for blood to circulate the body?
  1. 1 minute
  2. 1 hour
  3. 1 day
  4. 1 week
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.45) During exercise, blood flow within a muscle is increased by:
  1. homogenization
  2. hyalinization
  3. precipitation
  4. vasodilatation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.46) Cortisol levels are generally highest at what time of day?
  1. 8 am
  2. 12 pm
  3. 4 pm
  4. 8 pm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.47) The thyroid gland secretes triiodothyronine (T3) and which other hormone?
  1. Corticosteroid
  2. Thymosin
  3. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
  4. Thyroxine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.48) What are the end products of protein digestion?
  1. Amino acids
  2. Fatty acids
  3. Monosaccharides
  4. Triglycerides
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.49) Which monosaccharide is the main end product of carbohydrate digestion?
  1. Glucose
  2. Lactose
  3. Maltose
  4. Sucrose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.50) Nerve cells are also called:
  1. axons
  2. glial cells
  3. neuroglial cells
  4. neurons
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.51) What is the function of the respiratory system?
  1. To make enzymes
  2. To regulate the endocrine system
  3. To regulate the heartbeat
  4. To supply oxygen to tissue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.52) What are the smallest blood vessels in the body?
  1. Arteries
  2. Capillaries
  3. Lymph vessels
  4. Veins
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.53) Which of these is a vein in the arm?
  1. Femoral
  2. Jugular
  3. Median cubital
  4. Radial
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.54) In DNA, which base pairs with adenine?
  1. Cytosine
  2. Guanine
  3. Thymine
  4. Uracil
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.55) Which type of anemia is due to excessive red blood cell destruction?
  1. Aplastic anemia
  2. Hemolytic anemia
  3. Iron-deficiency anemia
  4. Pernicious anemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.56) Which of these diseases is a glycogen storage disease?
  1. Gilbert's syndrome
  2. Graves' disease
  3. Legionnaires' disease
  4. Von Gierke disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.57) Which blood cells protect the body from pathogens and foreign cells?
  1. Erythrocytes
  2. Hemoglobin
  3. Leukocytes
  4. Platelets
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.58) Red blood cells are primarily composed of:
  1. albumin
  2. alpha- and beta- globulins
  3. hemoglobin
  4. mitochondria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.59) Neutrophils:
  1. are part of the adaptive immune system
  2. are part of the innate immune system
  3. contain hemoglobin
  4. have no nucleus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.60) The liquid that separates out when blood coagulates is:
  1. fibrinogen
  2. lymph
  3. plasma
  4. serum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.61) Serum and plasma both contain:
  1. clotting factors
  2. plasma proteins
  3. platelets
  4. red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.62) Plasma is obtained by:
  1. centrifuging a clotted tube
  2. using a red stoppered tube
  3. using a tube containing an anticoagulant
  4. using a tube that does not contain an anticoagulant
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.63) Which antibody is the most abundant in the body?
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.64) In which of these situations is a workplace label NOT required?
  1. A hazardous product is made at the workplace and used in that workplace
  2. A hazardous product is poured into a container and it is used immediately
  3. A hazardous product is transferred into another container
  4. A supplier label becomes lost or illegible
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.65) Which parasite is passed in the feces as a noninfective rhabditiform larva?
  1. Dipylidium caninum
  2. Hymenolepis nana
  3. Schistosoma mansoni
  4. Strongyloides stercoralis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.66) For a test requiring whole blood, the blood sample must be collected in a vacutainer containing a(n):
  1. anticoagulant
  2. antiglycolytic agent
  3. clot activator
  4. serum separating gel
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.67) Blood specimens for which test are placed in circles on special filter paper?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Complete blood counts
  3. Malaria
  4. Phenylketonuria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.68) What is a deficiency of red blood cells called?
  1. Anemia
  2. Erythremia
  3. Hemophilia
  4. Leukemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.69) Anticoagulant therapy is monitored by performing a:
  1. ESR
  2. FBS
  3. Hgb
  4. PT
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.70) Physiological saline is prepared by mixing:
  1. distilled water and hypochlorite
  2. distilled water and seawater
  3. distilled water and sodium chloride
  4. tap water and hypochlorite
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.71) What colour vacutainer tube is used to collect blood for blood banking?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Grey
  4. Pink
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.72) What is the maximum lancet size for heel punctures on babies?
  1. 1 mm
  2. 2 mm
  3. 3 mm
  4. 4 mm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.73) The sweat test measures the amount of _________ in sweat.
  1. chloride
  2. copper
  3. lead
  4. phosphatase
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.74) What area should you swab to obtain a throat culture?
  1. Larynx
  2. Oral mucosa
  3. Pharynx
  4. Trachea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.75) Which of these statements about capillary punctures is true?
  1. It is better to clean the skin with iodine than with alcohol
  2. The first drop of blood is the best to use
  3. The puncture must hit bone for it to be deep enough
  4. The puncture should be made at right angles to the fingerprint striations
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.76) Which test requires avoiding foods high in serotonin such as avocados, bananas, and pineapple?
  1. 5-H1AA urine test
  2. 72- hour fecal fat test
  3. Lipid profile
  4. Stool culture and sensitivity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.77) When used for detecting urinary tract infections, urine dipsticks test for:
  1. nitrates
  2. nitrites
  3. phosphates
  4. sugars
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.78) Which tablet is used to detect proteins in urine?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. SSA
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.79) Urine dipstick tests are a type of ____________ examination.
  1. chemical
  2. microscopic
  3. physical
  4. visual
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.80) Lactose tolerance testing:
  1. can diagnose a patient’s inability to digest milk sugar
  2. requires a urine sample
  3. requires blood samples to be taken over 24 hours
  4. requires the patient to drink a liquid containing glucose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.81) During the glucose tolerance test, the patient should:
  1. sit
  2. walk
  3. run
  4. alternate between walking for 5 minutes and resting for 5 minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.82) You puncture a patient's finger for a finger stick blood test but no blood comes out. What should you do?
  1. Cool the finger using an ice pack
  2. Puncture the site again
  3. Scrape the puncture site against the test strip
  4. Squeeze the finger
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.83) Which of these media is used to transport and preserve stool specimens?
  1. Blood agar
  2. Cary-Blair media
  3. Lowenstein-Jensen agar
  4. MacConkey agar
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.84) Which of these is an appropriate way for a patient to protect a semen sample between collection and testing?
  1. Keep the sample on ice
  2. Refrigerate the sample
  3. Use a hot water bottle to keep the sample warm
  4. Wrap the sample in aluminum foil
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.85) Which category of hazardous goods does the following label apply to?
  1. Corrosive
  2. Miscellaneous
  3. Oxidizing
  4. Toxic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.86) What do the letters TCA on a urine drug test stand for?
  1. Target channel adapter
  2. Trichloroacetic acid
  3. Trichloroethane
  4. Tricyclic antidepressant
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.87) What does the PKU test detect?
  1. A genetic defect in metabolism
  2. A sex-linked anemia
  3. A viral disease
  4. Severe kidney disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.88) Creatinine clearance tests check the health of which organ?
  1. Heart
  2. Kidney
  3. Liver
  4. Stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Pre-analytical Procedures

3.1) Which colour vacutainer tube contains sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)?
  1. Green
  2. Pink
  3. Purple
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) Which of these vacutainer tubes does NOT contain additives?
  1. Pink
  2. Red (glass)
  3. Red (plastic)
  4. SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) What additive prevents glycolysis in blood samples?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Potassium oxalate
  4. Sodium fluoride
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) What item of lab equipment is a suction device used to draw up liquids?
  1. Beaker
  2. Erlenmeyer cylinder
  3. Graduated cylinder
  4. Safety bulb
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) Which durable material is used to make heat-resistant glassware?
  1. Borosilicate
  2. Polyethylene
  3. Polystyrene
  4. Soda-lime
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) What does the term 'gross examination of tissue' mean?
  1. Cutting tissue into very thin sections
  2. Examination of dead or decaying tissue
  3. Examination of tissue with a microscope
  4. Examination of tissue with the naked eye
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Which of these is a fixative?
  1. Cytospray
  2. Giemsa
  3. Hematoxylin
  4. Wright's stain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) What is the term for formaldehyde dissolved in water?
  1. Acetone
  2. Cytospray
  3. Ethyl acetate
  4. Formalin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) Which ethanol strength is used last when dehydrating tissues?
  1. 70%
  2. 80%
  3. 90%
  4. 100%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) Which of these is a Romanowsky stain?
  1. Gram stain
  2. Jefferson stain
  3. Leishman stain
  4. Sudan stain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Van Gieson's stain is a mixture of picric acid and:
  1. acid fuchsin
  2. methylene blue
  3. thionine
  4. toluidine blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) Which of these is a common ripening agent for hematoxylin?
  1. Hydrochloric acid
  2. Iron
  3. Sodium iodate
  4. Tungsten
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) The Pap stain stains which structure blue, purple or black?
  1. Cytoplasm
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Nuclei
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) Hematoxylin ripens into:
  1. hematein
  2. hematone
  3. hematurg
  4. hemoglobin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) What colour is eosin?
  1. Blue
  2. Green
  3. Pink
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) Which two stains are routinely used in Pap stains?
  1. Hematoxylin and eosin
  2. Methenamine silver and mucicarmine
  3. Periodic acid-Schiff-diastase and azur
  4. Perl's Prussian blue and mucicarmine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) What is the ratio of eosin to methylene blue in eosin methylene blue?
  1. 1:1
  2. 1:2
  3. 3:1
  4. 6:1
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) In which stage of histology are mordants used?
  1. Decalcification
  2. Fixation
  3. Sectioning
  4. Staining
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) What is the decolourizing agent in the Ziehl Neelsen stain?
  1. Absolute alcohol
  2. Acetone
  3. Acid alcohol
  4. Xylol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) Which of these would slow the growth of pathogenic bacteria?
  1. A moist environment
  2. An acidic pH
  3. Darkness
  4. Nutrients
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) Why are specimens for anaerobic culture placed in anaerobic jars?
  1. To maximize spore formation
  2. To minimize exposure of the specimen to oxygen
  3. To minimize the exposure of the specimen to UV light
  4. To stop the specimen from escaping
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) MacConkey agar differentiates bacteria based on their:
  1. ability to ferment lactose
  2. ability to hydrolyze starch
  3. ability to utilise the safranin dye
  4. hemolytic activity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Löwenstein-Jensen media is used to isolate which type of bacteria?
  1. Escherichia
  2. Haemophilus
  3. Listeria
  4. Mycobacteria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) What are the three common types of acid-fast staining?
  1. Calcofluor, fast green, and Gram-Twort
  2. Periodic acid-Schiff, alcian, and Bismarck
  3. Trichrome, sulfate, and Wade-Fite
  4. Ziehl-Neelsen, Kinyoun, and auramine-rhodamine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) When performing a quadrant streak plate, what would happen if you forget to sterilize your loop in between each quadrant streak?
  1. A lack of individual colonies
  2. Growth in only the first quadrant
  3. Growth in quadrants 3 and 4 but no growth in quadrants 1 and 2
  4. No growth in any quadrant
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) For how many minutes should a microhematocrit be centrifuged?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 5
  4. 15
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) When preparing a blood smear, which of these could cause the blood smear to be too thin?
  1. A small drop size
  2. Holding the spreader at a high angle
  3. Spreading the blood too slowly
  4. Using transfused blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) Which specimen is used for coagulation testing?
  1. Plasma
  2. Serum
  3. Urine
  4. Whole blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) What is the purpose of activated charcoal in transport media?
  1. To absorb toxic substances
  2. To kill non-pathogens
  3. To maintain a neutral pH
  4. To prevent the overgrowth of extraneous organisms
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Section 4: Reagent Preparation

4.1) What is the dilution factor 1/5 expressed as a dilution ratio?
  1. 1:4
  2. 1:5
  3. 1:6
  4. 5:1
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) How many millilitres of 5% hydrochloric acid are needed to make 500 mL of 2% hydrochloric acid?
  1. 100
  2. 200
  3. 300
  4. 400
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) How would you prepare 400 mL of a 1% v/v acetic acid solution?
  1. 1 mL of glacial acetic acid in 399 mL of water
  2. 2 mL of glacial acetic acid in 398 mL of water
  3. 3 mL of glacial acetic acid in 397 mL of water
  4. 4 mL of glacial acetic acid in 396 mL of water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) Which of these statements about reactive chemicals is false?
  1. Always add water to acid
  2. Oxidizers are stored separately from reducers
  3. Reactive chemicals include picric acid and sodium azide
  4. Some reactive chemicals may react with water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) What is the best way to clean glassware containing water-insoluble solutions?
  1. Rinse 2-3 times with ethanol then rinse 3-4 times with deionized water
  2. Rinse 3-4 times with deionized water
  3. Rinse with copious amounts of tap water then rinse 3-4 times with deionized water
  4. Wash with hot soapy water, rinse thoroughly with tap water, and then rinse 3-4 times with deionized water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) Wrapped articles must be allowed to dry before removing them from the autoclave. This is because packs that are wet will:
  1. cause inaccurate results on the sterilization indicator
  2. draw microorganisms into the pack
  3. rust metal instruments
  4. tear the wrapper
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) Which of these can NOT be autoclaved?
  1. Gloves
  2. Microbial growth media
  3. Organic solvents
  4. Stainless steel
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) At what temperature do hot air ovens sterilize glassware in 60 minutes?
  1. 100°C
  2. 121°C
  3. 140°C
  4. 160°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) Which of these reagents contains mercuric chloride?
  1. Bouin's fluid
  2. Crystal violet
  3. Picric acid
  4. Zenker's fluid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) Which of these is a decalcification agent?
  1. Ammonia
  2. EDTA
  3. Toluene
  4. Xylene
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) The two electrodes of a pH meter are called the ___________________ electrodes.
  1. capacitive and potentiated
  2. dry and wet
  3. glass and reference
  4. sealed and ground
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Section 5: Communication and Interaction

5.1) A phlebotomist is drawing blood from a young boy. The boy's mother is in the room and she says she doesn't like the sight of blood. She looks pale and says she feels faint. The phlebotomist should:
  1. ignore the mother as the focus should be on the child
  2. offer the mother a chair to sit in
  3. take the child's blood as quickly as possible to get it over with
  4. tell the mother not to worry
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) What should you do if a patient faints during a venipuncture?
  1. Continue the procedure until all blood is collected
  2. Leave the needle in the vein and call the physician
  3. Remove the needle and attend to the patient
  4. Yell loudly at the patient to keep him conscious
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) The tendency of teams to lose their critical evaluative capabilities during decision-making is a phenomenon called:
  1. decision congruence
  2. group consensus
  3. groupthink
  4. the slippage effect
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) Which of these is a formal way to end an email?
  1. Bye for now
  2. See you soon
  3. Thanks
  4. Yours sincerely
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) When communicating with someone from a different culture, it is important to:
  1. make assumptions about their beliefs and values
  2. speak louder and slower to ensure understanding
  3. be respectful of their cultural differences
  4. avoid using humor, as it may be misinterpreted
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 6: Quality Management

6.1) QNS stands for:
  1. quality not satisfied
  2. quality not sufficient
  3. quantity not satisfied
  4. quantity not sufficient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) Which of these is a quantitative result?
  1. A moderate amount of crystals seen
  2. A moderate number of bacteria present
  3. Specific gravity = 1.010
  4. Urine is brown
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) The middle value in a sorted data set is called the:
  1. average
  2. coefficient of variation
  3. mean
  4. median
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) Precision indicates the:
  1. closeness of a result to the first standard deviation
  2. closeness of a result to the median value
  3. closeness of a result to the true value
  4. repeatability or reproducibility of a procedure
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) The ABC analysis categorizes inventory items by their:
  1. expiry date
  2. importance
  3. location
  4. size
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) PPE, biosafety cabinets, and fire extinguishers are examples of which risk response strategy?
  1. Accept
  2. Avoid
  3. Mitigate
  4. Transfer
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Section 7: Professional Practice

7.1) A priest is with the patient when you arrive to collect a stat specimen. What should you do?
  1. Draw blood from a different patient and then check back
  2. Excuse yourself and ask for permission to draw the specimen
  3. Go back to the lab and draw the specimen on the next sweep
  4. Wait outside the room for a few minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) What is a regulated profession?
  1. A profession that has no legal requirement or restriction on practice
  2. A profession that requires a specific professional qualification
  3. A profession that requires work experience
  4. A profession where workers work regular, 9-5 hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) Which of these actions helps ensure patient confidentiality?
  1. Discarding old records by throwing them into the trash
  2. Giving out patient information to journalists
  3. Sending confidential material via e-mail
  4. Verifying a patient's identity before giving confidential data
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) The obligation of a person or organization to not disclose health information unless authorized by law or the patient is known as:
  1. accountability
  2. confidentiality
  3. privacy
  4. security
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) Beneficence is the duty to:
  1. do good
  2. do no harm
  3. follow the law
  4. fully inform the patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) What is the autonomy pillar of medical ethics?
  1. The duty to do good
  2. The duty to not harm the patient
  3. The respect for the patient’s right to self-determination
  4. The treatment of all people equally and equitably
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) What is Canada's federal data privacy law for private-sector organizations?
  1. HIPPA
  2. PHIPA
  3. PIPEDA
  4. WHMIS
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.8) Which principle of the Canada Health Act states that all residents must have access to the same level of health care, regardless of their ability to pay?
  1. Accessibility
  2. Portability
  3. Public administration
  4. Universality
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.9) What is the national certifying body for medical laboratory assistants in Canada?
  1. CMLTO
  2. CSMLS
  3. MLAT
  4. OSMT
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Section 8: Critical Thinking

8.1) Which of these specimens has the highest priority?
  1. Fasting
  2. Post-op
  3. Stat
  4. Urgent
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.2) A phlebotomist has made two unsuccessful attempts while trying to collect a blood specimen from a patient. What should the phlebotomist do next?
  1. Ask another phlebotomist to collect it
  2. Ask the patient's nurse to do the draw
  3. Collect it by arterial puncture
  4. Try to draw it one more time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.3) Which of these is an example of critical thinking?
  1. Implementing the first solution identified to a problem
  2. Investigating a patient's abnormal blood test results
  3. Listening to what a patient tells you
  4. Reading the instruction manual of an autoclave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.4) Which of these is NOT involved in critical thinking?
  1. Evaluating your own biases
  2. Questioning
  3. Snap judgments
  4. Value judgments
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.5) Critical thinking can be defined as:
  1. accepting what people tell you is the truth
  2. analyzing and evaluating information to make decisions
  3. gathering as much information as possible
  4. making gradual improvements in understanding a topic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.6) A lab assistant is wrapping an instrument for autoclaving but discovers the wrapper has a hole. What should the lab assistant do?
  1. Get a new wrapper
  2. Ignore the hole and continue wrapping the instrument
  3. Repair the hole with adhesive tape
  4. Throw the instrument away
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