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Sections

1. Standards of Practice
2. Medical Terminology
3. Basic Biology, Anatomy and Physiology
4. Laboratory Mathematics and Quality Assurance
5. Specimen Procurement, Processing and Data Collection
6. Laboratory Safety
7. Laboratory Equipment
8. Histology and Cytology
9. Clinical Microbiology
10. Clinical Chemistry
11. Clinical Hematology
12. Transfusion Medicine
13. Electrocardiograms

Section 1: Standards of Practice

1.1) What is a regulated profession?

1. A profession that has no legal requirement or restriction on practice
2. A profession that requires a specific professional qualification
3. A profession that requires regular drug testing
4. A profession that requires work experience
5. A profession where workers work regular, 9-5 hours

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) A nurse misidentifies a patient and gives the patient the wrong medication. As a result, the patient is seriously injured. What type of crime has the nurse committed?

1. Assault
2. Battery
3. Defamation
4. Misdemeanour
5. Negligence

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) The legal obligation to provide a standard of reasonable care and to avoid careless actions is called:

1. autonomy
2. duty of care
3. nonmaleficence
4. res ipsa loquitur
5. the Good Samaritan law

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) What is meant by a chain of custody?

1. Chains used to restrain a prisoner during a forced medical procedure
2. The hierarchy of caregivers who have custody of a child
3. The management hierarchy in a hospital
4. The nurses and doctors responsible for taking care of a patient
5. The process of documenting the handling of evidence

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) A courier delivers a chain-of-custody sample to a technician at a laboratory. Who needs to sign and date the chain-of-custody form?

1. Only the courier
2. Only the laboratory manager
3. Only the laboratory technician
4. The courier and the laboratory technician
5. The laboratory manager and the laboratory technician

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) Ontario's Occupational Health and Safety Act (OHSA) is administered and enforced by:

1. Health Canada
2. Ontario Health
3. the Minister of Labour of Canada
4. the Ministry of Labour, Training and Skills Development
5. the Ontario Public Health Association

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) What is medical negligence?

1. A situation where an injured patient has no evidence of how the injury occurred
2. An agreement for a doctor to provide treatment
3. The failure to provide a patient with a reasonable standard of care
4. The legal obligation to provide a patient with a standard of reasonable care
5. The submission of insurance claims for services never provided

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) A nurse does not change a surgery patient’s bandages for several days, which results in a serious infection. This is an example of:

1. comparative negligence
2. contingent liability
3. contributory negligence
4. gross negligence
5. vicarious liability

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) The Canadian Standards Association Model Code sets principles for:

1. chain of custody documentation
2. the collection and handling of patient specimens
3. the protection of personal information
4. the transportation of dangerous goods
5. the use and storage of workplace hazardous materials

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) PIPEDA is known as consent-based legislation. This means:

1. healthcare professionals must get consent before performing tests or treatment on patients
2. organizations affected by the legislation must consent to its enforcement
3. organizations must get consent before collecting or using a person's personal information
4. organizations that collect and use information must consent to do so
5. provinces can choose whether to enforce the legislation or not

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) Which principle of PIPEDA states that organizations must hire or designate someone to manage personal information?

1. Accountability
2. Accuracy
3. Challenging compliance
4. Identifying purposes
5. Limiting use, disclosure, and retention

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Which of these is a controlled act according to the Regulated Health Professions Act (1991)?

1. Asking the patient for their name, address and telephone number
2. Mixing an acid with a base
3. Putting a finger into a patient's internal ear canal
4. Shaking the patient's hand
5. Washing your hands

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) What does Section 11 of Ontario Regulation 107/96 Controlled Acts concern?

1. Administering substances by injection
2. Inappropriate workplace behaviours
3. The privacy of patient information
4. The taking of blood samples
5. The transportation of dangerous chemicals

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) The CMLTO is the provincial _____________ for medical laboratory technologists in Ontario.

1. certification body
2. legislative act
3. regulatory body
4. trade union
5. trade-specific act

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) What Ontario Act establishes rules for the collection, use and disclosure of personal health information?

1. CHIMA
2. CPPA
3. Data Protection Act
4. PHIPA
5. PIPEDA

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) Which of these acts ensures all eligible residents of Canada have reasonable access to insured health services on a prepaid basis, without direct charges at the point of service?

1. Canada Emergency Response Benefit Act
2. Canada Health Act
3. Established Programs Financing Act
4. Financial Administration Act
5. Patent Act

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) Which principle of the Canada Health Act ensures that citizens have healthcare even if they are in another province?

1. Accessibility
2. Comprehensiveness
3. Portability
4. Public administration
5. Universality

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) What provides the professionalism expectations for medical laboratory technologists in Canada?

1. The AIMS Scope of Practice
2. The ASCLS Scope of Practice
3. The CSMLS Standards of Practice
4. The HCPC Standards of Proficiency
5. The PHPC Scope of Practice

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) In Canada, a medical laboratory assistant is a skill level B occupation. What is a skill level B occupation?

1. A labour job that usually gives on-the-job training
2. A professional job that usually calls for a degree from a university
3. A skilled job that requires an advanced university degree
4. A technical job or skilled trade that usually calls for a college diploma or training as an apprentice
5. An intermediate job that usually calls for high school and/or job-specific training

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) Canada's health care system is best described as:

1. a centralized, privately-funded system
2. a privately funded health care system
3. a set of ten provincial and three territorial health insurance plans
4. one that delivers all types of health care services to all Canadian residents
5. one that delivers health care services to specific groups in Canada

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Medical Terminology

2.1) What term means 'without infection'?

1. Antibiotic
2. Aseptic
3. Septic
4. Spore
5. Stasis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) What does the word macroscopic mean?

1. Around the same size as a macrophage
2. Can only be seen with a microscope
3. Large enough to be seen with the naked eye
4. Relatively large compared to most bacteria
5. Too small to be seen with the naked eye

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) A solution that causes cells to shrink is called:

1. hypertonic
2. hypotonic
3. isotonic
4. microtonic
5. polytonic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) What is the term for a resting metabolic state early in the morning after a minimum of 12 hours of fasting?

1. Basal state
2. Ergot state
3. Hyperinsulinemic state
4. Klein state
5. Nadir state

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) Which term means "before meals"?

1. Antenatal
2. Postpartum
3. Postprandial
4. Prenatal
5. Preprandial

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) Adipose tissue is more commonly known as:

1. bone
2. cartilage
3. fat
4. nervous tissue
5. skin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) What is the name of the threads of protein that form the basis of clots?

1. Fibrin
2. Fibrinogen
3. Globulin
4. Hemoglobin
5. Thrombin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) What is the term for an immature red blood cell?

1. Erythroblast
2. Megakaryoblast
3. Monoblast
4. Segmented
5. Thrombocyte

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) What is thiamine?

1. A DNA base
2. A respiratory stimulant
3. A vitamin
4. An amino acid
5. An antibiotic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) What is mitosis?

1. A bone disorder
2. A process of cell division
3. An absorption problem
4. An infectious disease
5. The deviation from the statistical mean

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) Agglutination is the:

1. breakdown of gluten
2. clumping together of blood cells
3. decrease in red cell pigment
4. increase of red cell size
5. swelling of a vein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) TSH stands for thyroid __________ hormone.

1. special
2. specific
3. stimulating
4. sublimating
5. sufficiency

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) Which term means a low white blood cell count?

1. Leukocytosis
2. Leukodystrophy
3. Leukopenia
4. Leukoplakia
5. Leukopoiesis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) Icterus is another word for:

1. heart attack
2. jaundice
3. seizure
4. stomach pain
5. stroke

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) What is the term for a high level of glucose in the blood?

1. Hematoma
2. Hyperglycemia
3. Hypodermic
4. Hypogastric
5. Hypoglycemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) Which term means enlargement of the thyroid gland?

1. Euthyroid
2. Goiter
3. Hypergonadism
4. Hypophyseal enlargement
5. Tetany

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) What is an embolism?

1. A blockage in a blood vessel
2. A bruise
3. A heart attack
4. An inflamed area of the esophagus
5. Swelling in a vein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) What is phlebitis?

1. A collapsed capillary
2. A type of blood cancer
3. A viral infection that affects lymph nodes
4. Clotting in an artery
5. Inflammation of a vein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) An abnormal clot that forms on a rough surface in an intact vessel is called:

1. a platelet plug
2. a thrombus
3. a tumour
4. an embolism
5. inflammation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) The excision of a tissue sample for examination under a microscope is called a(n):

1. abscess
2. arthroscopy
3. biopsy
4. curettage
5. laceration

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) What does the term oliguria mean?

1. A high urine volume
2. A low urine volume
3. The absence of urine
4. The presence of crystals in the urine
5. The presence of urea in the urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) What is the name of the process by which platelets adhere to one another and form a hemostatic plug?

1. Activation
2. Aggregation
3. Attachment
4. Hemostasis
5. Induction

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) What term means the destruction of red blood cells?

1. Erythropoiesis
2. Hemolysis
3. Hemorrhage
4. Hemostasis
5. Hypoxia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) Jaundice is the medical term for:

1. dehydration
2. inflammation
3. liver disease
4. skin disease
5. yellow skin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) Gestational diabetes is diabetes that occurs during:

1. childhood
2. old age
3. obesity
4. pregnancy
5. childbirth

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) What is the medical term for red blood cell production?

1. Erythroception
2. Erythroconception
3. Erythronascency
4. Erythropoiesis
5. Erythroteritus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) The destruction of all microorganisms, including spores, is called:

1. decimation
2. disinfection
3. eradication
4. sanitation
5. sterilization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) Which routine hematology test includes hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood count, and white blood count determinations?

1. CBC
2. CDC
3. CPK
4. CRK
5. CRP

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) What is a delta check?

1. A comparison of a laboratory's results to the results from an outside facility
2. A comparison of current test results to previous results
3. A spot-check to ensure all staff are following the correct protocols
4. An inspection to ensure all patients are wearing wristbands
5. The verification of a patient's identity using at least three identifiers

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) What is the term for an absence of urine?

1. Aciduria
2. Anuria
3. Oliguria
4. Polyuria
5. Pyuria

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Basic Biology, Anatomy and Physiology

3.1) What is the name of the saclike membrane surrounding the heart?

1. Bundle of His
2. Endocardium
3. Interatrial septum
4. Pericardium
5. Ventricle

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) Which blood vessel carries blood from the heart to the lungs?

1. Aorta
2. Inferior vena cava
3. Pulmonary artery
4. Pulmonary vein
5. Superior vena cava

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) Motor neurons are also called __________ neurons.

1. afferent
2. association
3. efferent
4. nervous
5. sensory

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Which of these conditions is regulated by a positive feedback loop?

1. Blood pressure
2. Blood sugar
3. Body temperature
4. Childbirth
5. Heart rate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) Which of these is an enzyme?

1. Glucagon
2. Glucose
3. Lipase
4. Lipid
5. Nitrogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) A __________ clot is formed during the process of hemostasis.

1. fibrin
2. fibrinogen
3. prothrombin
4. thrombin
5. thromboplastin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Which ion is essential for blood clotting?

1. Calcium
2. Hydrogen
3. Iodine
4. Potassium
5. Sodium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways of blood coagulation merge at the activation step of which blood coagulation factor?

1. Factor IX
2. Factor VII
3. Factor X
4. Factor XII
5. Factor XIII

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) What is the first step of hemostasis?

1. Blood coagulation
2. Homeostasis
3. Temporary blockage of a break by a platelet plug
4. Vasoconstriction
5. Vasodilation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) What type of tissue is blood?

1. Adipose
2. Connective
3. Epithelial
4. Muscular
5. Nervous

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Formed elements in blood include which of the following?

1. Electrolytes
2. Fibrinogen
3. Plasma
4. Plasma proteins
5. White blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) 55% of the volume of blood is:

1. plasma
2. platelets
3. proteins
4. red blood cells
5. white blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) Bilirubin is a waste product produced by the breakdown of which cells?

1. Bacteria
2. Mast cells
3. Platelets
4. Red blood cells
5. White blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) The matrix of blood is called:

1. buffy coat
2. erythrocytes
3. formed elements
4. lymphocytes
5. plasma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) Which enzyme converts fibrinogen to fibrin?

1. Renin
2. Secretin
3. Serotonin
4. Thrombin
5. Trypsin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) What are the three types of muscle tissue?

1. Cardiac, smooth, and skeletal
2. Condyloid, hinge and pivot
3. Internal, external and connectors
4. Peripheral, central and core
5. Protractors, retractors and reactors

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) Which hormone controls sodium reabsorption?

1. Aldosterone
2. Angiotensin II
3. Anti-diuretic hormone
4. Renin
5. Vasopressin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) What is the exocrine function of the pancreas?

1. Filtration of waste products from the blood
2. Modulation of sleep patterns
3. Production of enzymes that digest food
4. Regulation of blood pressure
5. Secretion of hormones that maintain blood glucose levels

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) stimulates the re-absorption of:

1. hydrogen ions
2. oxygen
3. potassium
4. urea
5. water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) What are the two parts of the adrenal gland?

1. Diaphragmatic and visceral
2. Medulla and cortex
3. Papillary and reticular
4. Renal and subrenal
5. posterior and anterior

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) What element is essential for thyroid hormone production?

1. Calcium
2. Iodine
3. Iron
4. Magnesium
5. Phosphorous

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) Which form of thyroid hormone is the most biologically active?

1. T0
2. T1
3. T2
4. T3
5. T4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) To reach the urinary bladder, urine passes from the kidney through a tube called the:

1. renal column
2. renal pelvis
3. ureter
4. urethra
5. urethral stricture

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) What gives urine its yellow colour?

1. Nitrogen
2. Urea
3. Uric acid
4. Urobilin
5. Urobilinogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) What is the glomerulus?

1. A collecting chamber in the kidney
2. A tube in the bladder
3. A tube leading from the kidney to the bladder
4. Small balls of capillaries in the kidney
5. The urinary bladder

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) What colour is bilirubin?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Red
4. White
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) What is the motile tail of sperm called?

1. Cilium
2. Dock
3. Flagellum
4. Microtubule
5. Microvillus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) The digestive tube from the mouth to the anus is called the:

1. alimentary tract
2. anal canal
3. esophagus
4. large intestine
5. small intestine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) Which monosaccharide is the main end product of carbohydrate digestion?

1. Galactose
2. Glucose
3. Lactose
4. Maltose
5. Sucrose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) Which enzyme breaks down protein in the stomach?

1. Amylase
2. Lipase
3. Maltase
4. Pepsin
5. Trypsin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) Carbohydrate metabolism begins with which enzyme?

1. Pancreatic amylase
2. Lactate dehydrogenase
3. Salivary amylase
4. Phosphofructokinase
5. Pancreatic protease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) The intestines convert bilirubin into which substance?

1. Albumin
2. Biliverdin
3. Hemoglobin
4. Urea
5. Urobilinogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) What is the first part of the large intestine?

1. Cecum
2. Colon
3. Duodenum
4. Ileum
5. Jejunum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) The brain is located in which cavity?

1. Abdominal
2. Cranial
3. Pericardial
4. Pleural
5. Vertebral

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) The body’s thermostat is located in the:

1. cerebellum
2. cerebrum
3. heart
4. hypothalamus
5. pituitary gland

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) Which type of sensory neuron senses touch?

1. Chemoreceptor
2. Mechanoreceptor
3. Nociceptor
4. Photoreceptor
5. Thermoreceptor

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) The parasympathetic nervous system:

1. activates in stressful situations
2. decreases the metabolic rate
3. is also known as the enteric nervous system
4. is part of the somatic nervous system
5. is under voluntary control

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) The somatic nervous system has which other name?

1. Central
2. Parasympathetic
3. Peripheral
4. Sympathetic
5. Voluntary

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.39) Which of these fluids is associated with the lungs?

1. Cerebrospinal
2. Gastric
3. Peritoneal
4. Pleural
5. Synovial

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.40) Blood returning from the lungs enters which part of the heart?

1. Left atrium
2. Left ventricle
3. Right atrium
4. Right ventricle
5. SA node

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.41) What is the heart's primary pacemaker?

1. AV node
2. Bundle branches
3. Bundle of His
4. Purkinje fibers
5. SA node

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.42) What is the top layer of skin called?

1. Dermis
2. Epidermis
3. Hypodermis
4. Subcutaneous fat
5. Subcutis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.43) What cellular structure is called the powerhouse of the cell?

1. Cytoplasm
2. Endoplasmic reticulum
3. Golgi apparatus
4. Mitochondria
5. Nucleus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.44) The cellular process of transporting materials from within the cell to outside the cell is called:

1. endocytosis
2. endometriosis
3. exocytosis
4. osmosis
5. pinocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.45) What are the three main monosaccharides in the human diet?

1. Glucose, fructose, and galactose
2. Sucrose, lactose, and glucose
3. Lactose, fructose, and galactose
4. Sucrose, lactose, and maltose
5. Lactose, maltose, and glucose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.46) Which organ system detects changes to the internal and external environments of the body and directs a response?

1. Circulatory
2. Digestive
3. Endocrine
4. Nervous
5. Respiratory

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.47) Which organ system is a drainage network that helps keep bodily fluid levels in balance and defends the body against infections?

1. Endocrine
2. Hematopoietic
3. Lymphatic
4. Reticuloendothelial
5. Urinary

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.48) Which organ system transports carbon dioxide to the lungs?

1. Circulatory
2. Lymphatic
3. Nervous
4. Respiratory
5. Skeletal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.49) The spleen and thymus are part of which organ system?

1. Endocrine
2. Lymphatic
3. Nervous
4. Reproductive
5. Reticuloendothelial

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.50) Which organ balances sodium and potassium in the body?

1. Bladder
2. Kidney
3. Liver
4. Lungs
5. Stomach

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.51) Which enzyme joins fragments of DNA together?

1. DNase
2. Helicase
3. Hexonuclease
4. Ligase
5. Primase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.52) DNA nucleotides consist of:

1. a carbon base, deoxyribose, and carboxyl
2. a carbon base, ribose, and deoxyribose
3. a carbon base, ribose, and phosphate
4. a nitrogen base, deoxyribose, and phosphate
5. a nitrogen base, ribose, and carboxyl

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.53) What enzyme starts the process of DNA transcription?

1. DNA polymerase
2. Guanylyltransferase
3. Peptidyl transferase
4. RNA polymerase
5. Reverse transcriptase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.54) In DNA, which base pairs with adenine?

1. Cytosine
2. Guanine
3. Thymine
4. Uracil
5. Xanthine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.55) Which two liver enzymes are transaminases?

1. AST and ALP
2. AST and ALT
3. GGT and ALP
4. GGT and ALT
5. GGT and AST

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.56) Which of these cells is a type of white blood cell?

1. Basophil
2. Hemoglobin
3. Platelet
4. Reticulocyte
5. Thrombocyte

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.57) Which blood cells protect the body from pathogens and foreign cells?

1. Erythrocytes
2. Hemoglobin
3. Leukocytes
4. Platelets
5. Reticulocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.58) What is the most abundant white blood cell in adults?

1. Basophil
2. Lymphocyte
3. Monocyte
4. Neutrophil
5. T cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.59) What are T cells?

1. Blood cells that carry oxygen and carbon dioxide around the body
2. Cells that make up the thyroid
3. Cells transport antigens to lymphoid tissue
4. Immune system cells that produce antibodies in response to an infection
5. Immune system cells that target specific antigens

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.60) Which leukocyte increases rapidly in number during allergy attacks and infections of parasitic worms?

1. Basophil
2. Eosinophil
3. Lymphocyte
4. Monocyte
5. Neutrophil

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.61) What is the lifespan of a red blood cell?

1. 10–20 days
2. 20–40 days
3. 40–80 days
4. 100–120 days
5. 300–400 days

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.62) What is the most efficient organ for the removal of old red blood cells?

1. Bone marrow
2. Heart
3. Liver
4. Spleen
5. Thymus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.63) Antibodies bind to which part of the antigen?

1. Effector region
2. Epitope
3. Hinge
4. Plasma membrane
5. Variable region

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.64) What is the term for a substance that stimulates the immune system to release antibodies?

1. Antibody
2. Antigen
3. Fibrinogen
4. Interleukin
5. Prothrombin activator

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.65) Skin is which type of immunity?

1. Acquired
2. Active
3. Auto
4. Innate
5. Passive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.66) Which type of immunity produces antibodies in response to antigens?

1. Active
2. Community
3. Innate
4. Maternal
5. Passive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.67) How many fatty acids does a triglyceride molecule have?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.68) Which lipoprotein is the largest and least dense?

1. Chylomicron
2. HDL
3. IDL
4. LDL
5. VLDL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.69) Which body tissue stores unneeded, extra energy?

1. Bone
2. Cartilage
3. Fat
4. Muscle
5. Skin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.70) Which antibody causes allergies?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG
5. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.71) An ABG test measures the amount of:

1. bacteria and yeast in a urine sample
2. blood in a urine sample
3. occult blood in a stool sample
4. oxygen and carbon dioxide in arterial blood
5. red and white blood cells in venous blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.72) A definitive diagnosis of meningitis requires which test?

1. Blood culture
2. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
3. ELISA assay
4. Stool C&S
5. Urinalysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.73) In which test is a small amount of allergen applied to the surface of the skin and pricked with a lancet?

1. ELISA assay
2. Intradermal skin test
3. Purified protein derivative skin test
4. Scratch test
5. Tuberculosis test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.74) Which allergy test measures levels of antibodies after the blood serum is exposed to suspected allergens?

1. C-reactive protein test
2. Lipoprotein panel
3. Papanicolaou test
4. Prothrombin time
5. RAST test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Laboratory Mathematics and Quality Assurance

4.1) If 0.2 mL of a sample is added to 5 mL of diluent, what is the dilution factor?

1. 4.8
2. 5.2
3. 25
4. 26
5. 27

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) Calculate the amount of solute dissolved in 4 dm³ of a 0.2 mol/dm³ solution.

1. 0.05 mol
2. 0.8 mol
3. 3.8 mol
4. 4.2 mol
5. 20 mol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) Calculate the volume of a 0.5 mol/dm³ solution that contains 1 mol of solute.

1. 0.25 dm³
2. 0.5 dm³
3. 0.75 dm³
4. 1 dm³
5. 2 dm³

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) Which of these is a unit of molarity?

1. L/mol
2. dm³/mol
3. g/mol
4. mol/L
5. mol/g

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) What is the percent by mass of a solution that contains 25 g of glucose in 500 g of solution?

1. 5%
2. 10%
3. 15%
4. 20%
5. 25%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) Which of these is a 1/8 dilution of urine?

1. 1 part urine and 7 parts water
2. 1 part urine and 8 parts water
3. 1 part water and 7 parts urine
4. 1 part water and 8 parts urine
5. 1 part water and 9 parts urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) A lab technician makes a solution by mixing 1 litre of water with 9 g of salt. What is the salt concentration of the solution?

1. 0.9 g/L
2. 8 g/L
3. 8.9 g/L
4. 9 g/L
5. 9.1 g/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) A dilution ratio of 1:12 means what part specimen and what part diluent?

1. 1 part specimen, 12 parts diluent
2. 1 part specimen, 13 parts diluent
3. 11 parts specimen, 1 part diluent
4. 12 parts specimen, 1 part diluent
5. 13 parts specimen, 1 part diluent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) A lab technician is preparing a serial dilution with eight tubes. The first tube contains a 1/2 dilution. If the dilution factor doubles with each transfer, what would be the dilution in the eighth tube?

1. 1/128
2. 1/256
3. 1/512
4. 1/1024
5. 1/2048

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) How many moles are in 25g of a 100 g/mol solution?

1. 0.25
2. 4
3. 75
4. 125
5. 500

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) If 100% bleach is diluted 1/5 and then diluted again 1/20, what is the concentration of bleach in the final solution?

1. 1%
2. 1.5%
3. 2%
4. 2.5%
5. 3%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.12) Given a solute volume of 20 mL and a dilution factor of 3, calculate the volume of solvent needed.

1. 40 mL
2. 60 mL
3. 120 mL
4. 160 mL
5. 200 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.13) Cubic decimetres are more commonly known as:

1. grams
2. litres
3. metres cubed
4. moles
5. squared metres

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.14) Parts per million (ppm) can also be expressed as:

1. 10⁶
2. cm³
3. dm³
4. mL/billion
5. mg/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.15) Which of these is a unit of concentration?

1. M
2. dL
3. mIU
4. mmol
5. μg

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.16) What is the SI unit for volume?

1. Cubic decimeter
2. Cubic meter
3. Kilogram
4. Litre
5. Millilitre

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.17) A one molal solution contains one mole of solute per ________ of solvent.

1. 1 g
2. 1 kg
3. 1 litre
4. 1 mole
5. 22.4 litres

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.18) What is 86°F in Celsius?

1. 25°C
2. 30°C
3. 32°C
4. 37°C
5. 45°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.19) A specimen must be transported at body temperature plus or minus 5°F. Which of these temperatures is within that range?

1. 0°F
2. 25°F
3. 50°F
4. 75°F
5. 100°F

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.20) What is 41°C in Fahrenheit?

1. 74.6°F
2. 100.0°F
3. 105.8°F
4. 110.3°F
5. 112.9°F

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.21) What is 3.8371 to two significant digits?

1. 3.8
2. 3.83
3. 3.837
4. 3.84
5. 3.9

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.22) What is 47.839 rounded to one significant figure?

1. 1
2. 47
3. 47.8
4. 48
5. 50

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.23) What is 8,389,910 rounded to the nearest thousand?

1. 8,000,000
2. 8,340,000
3. 8,389,000
4. 8,390,000
5. 8,391,000

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.24) What is 0.7817 rounded to the nearest whole number?

1. 0.5
2. 0.8
3. 1
4. 1.5
5. 2

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.25) How many significant figures are in 38.800?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.26) Which of these numbers is twice as large as 2⁴?

1. 2⁵
2. 2⁶
3. 2⁷
4. 2⁸
5. 2⁹

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.27) 14.37 mg is the same as:

1. 0.01437 g
2. 0.1437 g
3. 1.437 g
4. 143.7 g
5. 1437 g

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.28) 1.2 kg is equal to how many grams?

1. 12 g
2. 120 g
3. 1,200 g
4. 12,000 g
5. 12,000,000 g

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.29) If a red blood cell is 8 micrometres in diametre, what is its size in millimetres?

1. 0.008 mm
2. 0.8 mm
3. 80 mm
4. 8,000 mm
5. 8,000,000 mm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.30) 200 microlitres is how many millilitres?

1. 0.2 mL
2. 2 mL
3. 20 mL
4. 2,000 mL
5. 20,000 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.31) What is the final step in calculating the standard deviation?

1. Calculate the mean
2. Calculate the mean of the squared differences
3. Divide the mean by the number of values in the data set
4. Find the square root of the variance
5. For each number, subtract the mean and square the result

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.32) A control has a mean of 2.8 with a standard deviation of 0.3. This means 68% of the values should fall within a range of:

1. 0.3−2.8
2. 2.0−3.1
3. 2.2−3.4
4. 2.2−3.4
5. 2.5−3.1

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.33) Which Westgard rule is violated if two measurements in the same run have a 4 standard deviation difference?

1. 1₂ₛ
2. 1₃ₛ
3. 2₂ₛ
4. 4₁ₛ
5. R₄ₛ

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.34) Given the following data, how many quality control results are beyond 2 standard deviations from the mean?

QC results	17.1, 15.2, 16.2, 19.9, 21.6
Mean	18.0
Coefficient of variation	5%

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.35) The _________ the coefficient of variation, the more _________ the values.

1. higher, accurate
2. higher, precise
3. lower, accurate
4. lower, precise
5. lower, spread out

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.36) Calculate the coefficient of variation for a test that has a mean of 15 and a standard deviation of 3.

1. 0.2%
2. 5%
3. 20%
4. 50%
5. 500%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.37) The following values were obtained from a quality control test: 0, 0, 2, 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, 5, 7. Calculate the mean of these values.

1. 3
2. 3.25
3. 3.5
4. 3.75
5. 3.8

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.38) Which of these statistics is a measure of central tendency?

1. Coefficient of variation
2. Mean
3. Range
4. Standard deviation
5. Variance

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.39) A lab analyzes blood samples from 50 patents. The number of patients with abnormal results is 45. What is this expressed as a percentage?

1. 5%
2. 45%
3. 90%
4. 95%
5. 96%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.40) You need a litre of 5% concentration of hydrochloric acid but you only have a 40% concentration. How can you make the 5% concentration?

1. Mix 125 mL of hydrochloric acid with 875 mL of water
2. Mix 150 mL of hydrochloric acid with 850 mL of water
3. Mix 175 mL of hydrochloric acid with 825 mL of water
4. Mix 200 mL of hydrochloric acid with 800 mL of water
5. Mix 225 mL of hydrochloric acid with 775 mL of water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.41) 570 mL of water is added to a 30 mL, 2 M aqueous solution. What is the molarity of the final solution?

1. 0.1 M
2. 0.2 M
3. 0.3 M
4. 0.4 M
5. 0.5 M

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.42) How many grams of a solute is required to produce 1.5 L of a 25%(m/v) solution?

1. 375 g
2. 425 g
3. 500 g
4. 575 g
5. 625 g

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.43) What is the formula for calculating a percent v/v solution?

1. (Mass of solute / mass of solution) × 100
2. (Mass of solute / volume of solution) × 100
3. (Mass of solution / mass of solute) × 100
4. (Volume of solute / volume of solution) × 100
5. (Volume of solution / volume of solute) × 100

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.44) Calculate the %(m/m) of a solution that has 6 g of solute in 80 g of solution.

1. 7.5%
2. 8.1%
3. 12.3%
4. 13.3%
5. 15.3%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.45) A laboratory has an autoclave rule stating "Do not fill containers more than half full with liquids". If a lab technician has to prepare 220 ml of media for autoclaving, which of these volume containers would comply with the rule?

1. 100 mL
2. 200 mL
3. 300 mL
4. 400 mL
5. 500 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.46) Which method of water purification produces deionized water?

1. Gas hydrate formation
2. Heat
3. Ion exchange
4. Nanofiltration
5. Radionics

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.47) According to the Clinical & Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI), the minimum grade of water for routine clinical laboratory testing is termed:

1. clinical laboratory reagent water
2. high-purity water
3. inert water
4. resistivity-sensitive purified water
5. special reagent water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.48) A urine culture was plated with a 0.001 mL loop. To report the colony count in colonies per mL, the number of colonies on the plate must be multiplied by:

1. 100
2. 200
3. 1,000
4. 2,000
5. 10,000

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.49) Random errors mainly affect:

1. accuracy
2. external validity
3. internal and external validity
4. internal validity
5. precision

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.50) _____________ is when readings become consistently lower or higher over time.

1. Calibration
2. Drift
3. Offset error
4. Scale factor error
5. Unpredictability

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.51) A test suitable for screening purposes should have which of the following?

1. High sensitivity
2. High specificity
3. Low accuracy
4. Low sensitivity
5. Low specificity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.52) What is the formula for calculating diagnostic sensitivity?

1. False negatives / (false negatives + true positives)
2. False positives / (false negatives + true positives)
3. False positives / (false positives + true negatives)
4. True negatives / (true negatives + false positives)
5. True positives / (true positives + false negatives)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.53) A diabetes screening test detects diabetes in 5% of healthy patients who do not have diabetes. This means the:

1. predictability is 5%
2. sensitivity is 5%
3. sensitivity is 95%
4. specificity is 5%
5. specificity is 95%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.54) A test with low specificity is more likely to give:

1. a positive predictive value
2. false negatives
3. false positives
4. true negatives
5. true positives

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.55) Which grade of chemical purity is also known as pharmaceutical grade?

1. Analytical research grade
2. BP grade
3. Environmental grade
4. General reagent grade
5. USP grade

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 5: Specimen Procurement, Processing and Data Collection

5.1) A patient is extremely anxious about having her blood drawn. She tells you that she is afraid of needles. You do not have much experience drawing blood. What should you do?

1. Ask an experienced phlebotomist to perform the draw for you
2. Explain to her that you will use a small needle that barely hurts
3. Leave the tourniquet on for at least five minutes before taking her blood
4. Tell her that it's not a big deal and that she shouldn't be afraid
5. Use an ice pack to numb the site before drawing the specimen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) There are two patients in a room and one of the patients has a latex allergy. A phlebotomist needs to collect a specimen from the other patient. How should the phlebotomist proceed?

1. Ask the allergic patient to leave the room
2. Ask the allergic patient to wear a mask
3. Do not take anything that contains latex into the room
4. Proceed as usual
5. Pull the curtain between beds and proceed as usual

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) A phlebotomist is asked to collect a blood specimen from an inpatient but the patient is not wearing an ID band. What is the best thing to do?

1. Ask a nurse for help identifying the patient
2. Identify the patient by asking them to confirm their name
3. Identify the patient by the name card on the door
4. Refuse to draw the specimen and cancel the request
5. Take the specimen from any other patient wearing an ID band

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) You have to draw blood from an elderly patient. You think his name is John Smith but you are not sure. Which of these is the best question to confirm the patient's name?

1. "Are you John Smith?"
2. "Can you confirm that you are John Smith please?"
3. "I'm a phlebotomist and I'm here to draw your blood. First, though, I have to confirm your name. Can you confirm that your name is John Smith?"
4. "Is your name the same as it is written here on this form?"
5. "What is your name?"

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) What is the best way to judge the patency of a vein?

1. Ask the patient how their vein feels
2. Feel it to determine the strength of the pulse
3. Palpate above and below where you first feel it
4. Press and release it several times to determine resilience
5. Roll your finger from side to side while pressing against it

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) A patient has an IV in his left wrist and a cast on his right arm. Which site should be used to obtain a blood sample?

1. A toe
2. A vein in the left hand
3. An earlobe
4. The left median cubital vein
5. The right median cubital vein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) Why must a phlebotomist clean the patient's skin before performing a venipuncture?

1. To allow blood flow to the area
2. To cause the veins to be more prominent
3. To decrease circulation in the arteries
4. To provide a wet surface for the needle to stick to
5. To remove microorganisms from the puncture site

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) After applying a tourniquet, small red spots appear on the patient's arm. These spots are a sign that:

1. the patient has diabetes
2. the patient is taking an anticoagulant
3. the site may bleed excessively
4. the tourniquet is in the wrong place
5. the tourniquet is too tight

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.9) A phlebotomist has made two unsuccessful attempts while trying to collect a blood specimen from a patient. What should the phlebotomist do next?

1. Ask another phlebotomist to collect it
2. Ask the patient's nurse to do the draw
3. Cancel the draw and phone the patient's doctor
4. Collect it by arterial puncture
5. Try to draw it one more time

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.10) Which of these would be most likely to allow reflux to occur during venipuncture?

1. Filling the stopper end of the tube first
2. Keeping the tourniquet on longer than 1 minute
3. Lateral redirection of the needle
4. Releasing the tourniquet on blood flow
5. Using the wrong order of draw

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.11) Which of these tests is affected most if collected from a crying infant?

1. Bilirubin
2. Calcium level
3. Cholesterol
4. Lead level
5. White blood cell count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.12) During venipuncture, what is the longest time a tourniquet should remain on the patient's arm?

1. 1 minute
2. 3 minutes
3. 5 minutes
4. 7 minutes
5. 9 minutes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.13) Sodium heparin should be avoided for which of these tests?

1. Electrolyte panel
2. Hematocrit
3. Ionized calcium
4. Lithium levels
5. pH

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.14) Lavender-top collection tubes are used for:

1. glucose determinations
2. hematology tests
3. immunology tests
4. microbiology tests
5. molecular diagnostic tests

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.15) Which colour vacutainer tube is used for glucose testing?

1. Green
2. Grey
3. Lavender
4. Light blue
5. Red

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.16) For which tube is the blood-to-additive ratio most critical?

1. Green top
2. Lavender top
3. Light blue top
4. Red top
5. Yellow top

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.17) Which of these vacutainer additives provides a physical barrier to prevent glycolysis?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Silica
4. Sodium fluoride
5. Thixotropic gel

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.18) Which of these tubes contains an anticoagulant that works by binding calcium?

1. Gold top
2. Green top
3. Light blue top
4. PST
5. Red top

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.19) A phlebotomist has to draw a patient's blood into a blood culture bottle and four tubes: red, green, light blue, and purple. Which should the phlebotomist fill first?

1. Blood culture bottle
2. Green top tube
3. Light blue top tube
4. Purple top tube
5. Red top tube

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.20) Underfilling which tube will most likely result in a hemolyzed specimen?

1. EDTA tube
2. Green top
3. Grey top
4. Light-blue top
5. SST

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.21) Why are infant bilirubin specimens obtained in amber-coloured tubes?

1. To flag it as a capillary specimen
2. To identify it as a bilirubin specimen
3. To protect the specimen from light
4. To reduce the risk of hemolysis
5. To slow the rate of glycolysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.22) Which of these tubes contains EDTA?

1. Gray
2. Lavender
3. Light blue
4. Light green
5. SST

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.23) What colour is the top of a plasma separator tube?

1. Green
2. Light blue
3. Purple
4. Red
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.24) You have collected blood in a tube containing an additive. What should you do next?

1. Draw the specimen again, this time in a tube without an additive
2. Empty the tube into the sink
3. Invert the tube several times
4. Leave the tube in the fridge for 2-3 hours
5. Shake the tube vigorously

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.25) What can happen if blood specimen tubes are not adequately mixed with anticoagulant?

1. Clotting
2. Hemolysis
3. Hyperglycemia
4. Hypoglycemia
5. Leukocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.26) When a test requires plasma, the blood sample must be collected in a tube containing a(n):

1. anticoagulant
2. antiglycolytic agent
3. buffer solution
4. chelating agent
5. clot activator

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.27) PST tubes contain a gel plasma separator and:

1. EDTA
2. lithium heparin
3. silica
4. sodium citrate
5. sodium polyanethol sulfonate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.28) Venipuncture needles are colour-coded according to their:

1. expiration date
2. gauge
3. length
4. manufacturer
5. use

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.29) A winged infusion set is also called a:

1. Milliner's needle
2. butterfly needle
3. multisample needle
4. straight needle
5. universal needle

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.30) 24-gauge needles are used for:

1. diabetics
2. infants
3. obese patients
4. patients with AIDS
5. stroke victims

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.31) What is the phlebotomy device below?

1. Microtainer tube
2. Multi-sample blood collection needle
3. Portex needle pro
4. Safety trainer device
5. Winged infusion set

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.32) 18-gauge needles are typically used for:

1. blood donations
2. routine blood draws
3. children
4. small adult veins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.33) Which part of a syringe has volume markings such as mL?

1. Barrel
2. Flange
3. Needle
4. Plunger
5. Tip

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.34) What is the standard needle size for collecting a blood sample from an adult's forearm vein?

1. 15-gauge
2. 18-gauge
3. 21-gauge
4. 24-gauge
5. 27-gauge

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.35) Which part of a needle attaches to the syringe?

1. Bevel
2. Flange
3. Hub
4. Lumen
5. Shaft

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.36) Which of these specimens would most likely be rejected for testing?

1. A hemolyzed potassium specimen
2. A nonfasting glucose specimen
3. A pale-yellow urine specimen
4. A serum-separator tube that is only half-filled
5. An icteric bilirubin specimen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.37) Why is it important to control the depth of the lancet insertion during heel puncture?

1. To avoid puncturing a vein
2. To avoid puncturing an artery
3. To prevent bacterial contamination
4. To prevent bone injury
5. To prevent excessive bleeding

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.38) What area should you swab to obtain a throat culture?

1. Larynx
2. Oral mucosa
3. Pharynx
4. Tongue
5. Trachea

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.39) What is the main reason a capillary puncture site is warmed beforehand?

1. To delay clotting
2. To increase blood flow
3. To minimize contamination
4. To prevent bruising
5. To reduce hemoconcentration

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.40) Which of these tests is collected first during a single capillary puncture?

1. Blood banking
2. Complete blood count
3. Electrolytes
4. Glucose
5. Phosphorus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.41) Which of these statements about capillary punctures is true?

1. It is better to clean the skin with iodine than with alcohol
2. The first drop of blood is the best to use
3. The procedure is more difficult and painful than venipuncture
4. The puncture must hit bone for it to be deep enough
5. The puncture should be made at right angles to the fingerprint striations

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.42) Which is the preferred site to obtain capillary blood from adults?

1. Ear
2. Fingertip
3. Heel
4. Palm
5. Toe

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.43) To perform an arterial puncture, you need heparin solution, sterile gauze, betadine wipes, a sterile needle, a syringe and:

1. a butterfly needle
2. a sugar solution
3. a tourniquet
4. alcohol wipes
5. ice water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.44) You are taking an arterial puncture. What is the first area of the patient’s body you should examine for a suitable site?

1. The antecubital area of both arms
2. The aorta of the chest
3. The brachial artery
4. The femoral artery
5. The thumb side of the wrist

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.45) Urine, breath, and _______ are used for ketone testing.

1. blood
2. semen
3. sputum
4. stool
5. sweat

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.46) A phlebotomist has mixed up two specimens. What should the phlebotomist do?

1. Ask the nurse to identify the specimen
2. Ask the patients which one is theirs
3. Continue regardless
4. Retake both specimens
5. Try to guess which specimen is which

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.47) Identify the false statement regarding 24-hour urine collection.

1. A preservative may be used for some tests
2. Collections during the night are discarded
3. Testing is done in clinical chemistry
4. The first timed specimen is discarded
5. The last timed specimen is included

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.48) A patient needs to collect urine in a container for urinalysis. However, the patient is nervous and says he is having trouble producing the urine specimen. What should you do?

1. Cancel the test
2. Offer the patient a drink of water and ask him to try again
3. Take a blood sample instead and make a note on the requisition form
4. Tell the patient he is not trying hard enough
5. Tell the patient that collecting urine is easy and that he should not be having problems

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.49) What preservative is needed for a sodium 24-hour urine test?

1. Boric acid
2. Chlorhexidine
3. HCl
4. NaHCO₃
5. No preservative

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.50) Clean-catch urine specimens are necessary when testing urine for:

1. bacteria
2. bilirubin
3. glucose
4. occult blood
5. protein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.51) 2-hr PC means 2 hours:

1. after a meal
2. after an operation
3. after exercise
4. before a meal
5. before an operation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.52) Which of these tests would most be affected if a patient ate a muffin and orange juice before a fasting blood test?

1. Blood culture
2. Cardiac enzymes
3. Complete blood count
4. Glucose
5. Thyroid profile

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.53) Which of the following tube additives is preferred for the collection of a blood culture specimen?

1. Citrate phosphate dextrose
2. Potassium heparin
3. Potassium oxalate
4. Sodium heparin
5. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.54) You receive a specimen that should come with a chain of custody form. However, the form is missing. What should you do?

1. Ask for a new specimen to be collected
2. Call the police
3. Fill out a new chain of custody form yourself
4. Perform the test anyway
5. Use a chain of custody form from a specimen of a different patient

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.55) A fasting patient has cloudy white serum. What condition does the patient have?

1. Hemolysis
2. Hyperbilirubinemia
3. Hyperglycemia
4. Hyperthyroidism
5. Hypertriglyceridemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.56) Blood samples for complete blood counts must be transported:

1. at body temperature
2. in a Styrofoam-lined box with dry ice
3. in a vacuum-sealed container at room temperature
4. in an insulated container with a cold pack
5. wrapped in metal foil

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.57) Which of these specimens should be rejected for testing?

1. A blood glucose sample exposed to light
2. A blood sample for the cold agglutinin test transported at 37°C
3. A refrigerated blood sample for TSH testing
4. A urine creatinine sample transported at room temperature
5. A urine culture sample transported on ice

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.58) When a blood sample is left at room temperature, which of these increases?

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Glucose
3. Hemoglobin
4. Potassium
5. Uric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.59) What packaging is used to ship Category A infectious substances?

1. A610
2. A630
3. A640
4. P620
5. P650

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Section 6: Laboratory Safety

6.1) Which of these should you NOT wear in a lab?

1. Closed-toe shoes
2. Contact lenses
3. Glasses
4. Hairpin
5. Shirt

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) In the context of gases, what does LEL stand for?

1. Lead equivalent level
2. Least effective level
3. Lower explosive limit
4. Lowest effective level
5. Lowest exposure limit

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) Class B fires occur with:

1. electrical equipment
2. flammable liquids
3. glassware
4. ordinary combustibles
5. reactive metals

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) What type of fire extinguisher is used on class D fires?

1. CO2
2. Dry powder
3. Foam
4. Water
5. Wet chemical

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) PASS in a mnemonic for remembering the:

1. key safety principles of working in a laboratory
2. steps for first aid
3. steps for performing phlebotomy
4. steps to operate a fire extinguisher
5. warning signs of a stroke

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) What does the acronym RACE mean in the context of fire procedures?

1. Ready, Aim, Check, Extinguish
2. Recover, Act, Control, Escape/Evacuate
3. Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate
4. Risk Assessment, Coordination, Escape/Extinguish
5. Run, Activate, Coordinate, Escape/Extinguish

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) Which of these is written information that must be supplied by manufacturers of chemicals and hazardous materials?

1. OSHA
2. OSM
3. OSMT
4. SDS
5. TOSM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.8) What is the term for chemicals that burn or destroy tissue?

1. Acyclic
2. Caustic
3. Exothermic
4. Galvanic
5. Stereogenic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.9) A spill of liquid nitrogen is dangerous because it can:

1. burn through the floor
2. catch fire
3. cause cancer
4. deplete oxygen in the air
5. explode

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.10) In the context of occupational health and safety, what does STEL stand for?

1. Short-term exposure limit
2. Standard task exposure limit
3. Standard task equipment list
4. Short-term emergency lighting
5. Special test electrical load

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.11) Nitrile gloves:

1. are a good substitute for latex gloves
2. are cheaper than latex gloves
3. are less resistant to punctures than latex gloves
4. are unsuitable for routine laboratory work
5. may cause allergic reactions

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.12) Which of these items is PPE?

1. Autoclave
2. Biohazard bag
3. Countertop splash shield
4. Latex gloves
5. Sharps container

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.13) In the event of a patient's body fluid splashing into the eyes, what is the first action that should be taken?

1. Call 911
2. Determine whether the patient has an infectious disease
3. Find a supervisor
4. Flush the eyes with water
5. Make an entry in the accident log book

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.14) In stroke recognition, what does the acronym FAST stand for?

1. Face, arm, speech and time
2. Fever, anxiety, stress, and taste
3. First airway, second temperature
4. First airway, second throat
5. Flexibility, asthma, and sudden tightness

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.15) A colleague spills liquid nitrogen on his hands, causing minor frostbite to his fingers. What should you do immediately?

1. Immerse his hands in very hot water
2. Rub his hands vigorously using your own hands
3. Rub his hands with a towel
4. Spray his hands with tepid water
5. Tell him to shake his hands vigorously

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.16) During CPR, chest compressions should be how many inches deep?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.17) How do you care for someone with a possible neck injury?

1. Ask the person to try to move their head
2. Keep the person's head still and do not try to move it
3. Move the person into a comfortable position
4. Move the person's head so that it rests above their heart
5. Sit the person up and give them a glass of water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.18) Which of these is a symptom of hypoglycemia in a diabetic?

1. Confusion
2. Deep, rapid breaths
3. Dry skin
4. Frequent urination
5. Thirst

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.19) Universal precautions are based on what assumption?

1. All laboratory chemicals may be carcinogenic
2. All specimens are potentially infectious
3. Any patient may become violent
4. Equipment is not sterile
5. Handwashing is enough to kill most bacteria

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.20) Which of these infectious agents is spread through the air?

1. E. coli
2. HIV
3. Norovirus
4. Salmonella
5. Varicella virus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.21) What does the following sign mean?

1. Biohazard
2. Carcinogen hazard
3. Do not eat
4. General warning
5. Toxic material

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.22) In the NFPA hazard diamond, which quadrant indicates special hazards?

1. Blue
2. Red
3. Silver
4. White
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.23) On the NFPA hazard diamond, a number 1 in the red quadrant means the substance:

1. does not burn
2. only ignites after considerable preheating
3. ignites if moderately heated
4. can be ignited at normal temperatures
5. is highly flammable

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.24) On the NFPA hazard diamond, a number 4 in the yellow quadrant means the substance:

1. reacts violently with water
2. is highly radioactive
3. is extremely contagious
4. readily burns at normal temperatures
5. readily explodes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.25) Which of these chemicals would be the best choice to neutralize a weak acid spill in the laboratory?

1. Acetic acid
2. Boric acid
3. Potassium chlorate
4. Sodium bicarbonate
5. Sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.26) What is the first step when cleaning up a blood spill?

1. Decontaminate reusable equipment such as dustpans and brushes
2. Pour disinfectant onto the spill
3. Put on PPE
4. Soak up the spill with paper towels
5. Wash your hands

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.27) A lab assistant has spilled acetone on the floor. What should be your first action?

1. Clean up the spill
2. Disconnect the power cables from all machines
3. Move everyone to fresh air
4. Tell the lab assistant to wash his eyes
5. Turn off any flames

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.28) Which disinfectant inactivates prions?

1. Alcohol
2. Formaldehyde
3. Formalin
4. Hydrogen peroxide
5. Sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.29) Which of these is an example of a Standard Precaution?

1. Fire extinguisher
2. Hand hygiene
3. Keeping chemicals containers closed
4. Radiation shielding
5. Safety data sheet

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.30) What type of filter do biological safety cabinets use to remove airborne particles, such as bacteria and viruses?

1. Charcoal
2. Electrostatic
3. Fiberglass
4. HEPA
5. UV light

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.31) On fume hoods where sashes open vertically, you should work with the hood sash in the _____________ position.

1. closed
2. highest possible
3. lowest possible
4. middle
5. most comfortable

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.32) Which of these practices is dangerous and should be avoided?

1. Immediately performing first aid to someone who has been exposed to blood
2. Putting uncapped needles in a tray during procedures
3. Recapping used needles using both hands
4. Securing used sharps containers during transport
5. Using plasticware instead of glass

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.33) Infectious substances that pose the highest risk of infection during transportation and are capable of causing permanent disability, life-threatening disease, or fatal disease are known as ______________ substances.

1. Category A
2. Category B
3. Category C
4. Type 1B
5. Type 1C

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Section 7: Laboratory Equipment

7.1) Why is it important for all air to be removed from the autoclave during sterilization?

1. Air can cause the autoclave to explode
2. Air causes glassware to crack
3. Air causes moisture to condense on the packs
4. Air creates cool spots in the autoclave
5. Air prevents the steam from penetrating the packs

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) What pressure and temperature do autoclaves use?

1. 12 psi at 115°C
2. 12 psi at 120°C
3. 12 psi at 151°C
4. 15 psi at 112°C
5. 15 psi at 121°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) The inside of the autoclave should be washed every day with:

1. a disinfectant
2. a mild detergent
3. an antiseptic
4. distilled water
5. saltwater

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) Superheating steam in an autoclave:

1. diminishes its sterilizing capacity
2. helps to dry out the equipment
3. increases its sterilizing power
4. reduces the time needed for complete sterilization
5. will make the centrifuge spin faster

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) Autoclaves work on which principle?

1. Cold sterilization
2. Distilled water
3. Free-flowing steam
4. Hot water
5. Moist heat sterilization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) What problem can happen if you open a dry heat oven during the sterilization procedure?

1. Glassware may break
2. Glassware may get wet
3. It can void the manufacturer's warranty
4. Sterilization may not be complete
5. The oven may get damaged

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) At what temperature do hot air ovens sterilize glassware in 60 minutes?

1. 100°C
2. 121°C
3. 140°C
4. 160°C
5. 250°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.8) What is a mortar and pestle used for?

1. Crushing solids into a powder
2. Heating substances
3. Measuring volume
4. Measuring weight
5. Scooping up powders

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.9) Triple beam balances give their readings in what unit?

1. Grams
2. Kilograms
3. Litres
4. Microlitres
5. Millilitres

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.10) A reagent requires 1.26 grams of sodium carbonate. The lab technician should measure it with a:

1. analytical balance
2. desiccator
3. indicator
4. pH meter
5. single pan balance

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.11) Which water purification method involves boiling water and then letting the steam cool?

1. Deionization
2. Distillation
3. Filtration
4. Flocculation
5. Reverse osmosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.12) On a microscope, what structure connects the eyepiece to the objective lens?

1. Base
2. Diaphragm
3. Nosepiece
4. Stage
5. Tube

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.13) Which microscope would be best to examine an unstained, wet preparation of cells before dehydration?

1. Brightfield
2. Compound
3. Electron
4. Fluorescence
5. Phase contrast

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.14) What is the total magnification of a microscope if the eyepiece lens is 10x and the objective lens is 20x?

1. 30x
2. 200x
3. 375x
4. 525x
5. 1000x

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.15) Which pipette has a bulged-out portion in the middle?

1. Micropipette
2. Mohr
3. Pasture
4. Serological
5. Volumetric

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.16) Which durable material is used to make heat-resistant glassware?

1. Borosilicate
2. Polyethylene
3. Polystyrene
4. Polyvinylchloride
5. Soda-lime

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.17) Which item of lab equipment is used to guide substances into a container without spilling them?

1. Beaker
2. Crucible
3. Erlenmeyer flask
4. Funnel
5. Test tube

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.18) Which glassware is a container with a body shaped like a cone?

1. Beaker
2. Bulb pipette
3. Erlenmeyer flask
4. Graduated pipette
5. Test tube

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.19) What unit is on graduated cylinders?

1. Degrees Celcius
2. Millilitre
3. Millimetre
4. Millimetres cubed
5. Mole

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.20) Which type of pipette has calibration marks to the tip?

1. Disposable
2. Micropipette
3. SMl
4. Serological
5. Volumetric

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.21) For accurate measurements, a volumetric pipette should be viewed:

1. above eye level
2. at an angle
3. at eye level
4. below eye level
5. over the sink

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.22) Which device measures the RPM of a centrifuge?

1. Ammeter
2. Ohmmeter
3. Rheostat
4. Tachometer
5. Voltmeter

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.23) Which type of microscope is best for viewing crystals in a sample of joint fluid?

1. Electron
2. Fluorescent light
3. Light
4. Polarized light
5. Ultraviolet

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Section 8: Histology and Cytology

8.1) What does the term 'gross examination of tissue' mean?

1. Cutting tissue into very thin sections
2. Examination of dead or decaying tissue
3. Examination of infected tissue
4. Examination of tissue with a microscope
5. Examination of tissue with the naked eye

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.2) Specimens should be placed in a fixative that is ______ times greater than the volume of the tissue.

1. 10–20
2. 20–30
3. 30–40
4. 40–50
5. 50–60

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.3) What is the universal fixative?

1. Calcium
2. Copper acetate
3. Distilled water
4. Formalin
5. Picric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.4) Which chemical is added to formalin as a buffer?

1. Half-normal saline
2. Iodine
3. Methanol
4. Normal saline
5. Sodium phosphate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.5) Fixatives work best at what pH?

1. 3
2. 5
3. 7
4. 9
5. 11

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.6) What is the purpose of fixation?

1. To make it easier for the microtome to cut the tissue
2. To make the tissue transparent
3. To prevent cell death
4. To prevent water loss
5. To stop the tissue from deteriorating

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.7) Which of these is a compound fixative?

1. Acetic acid
2. Bouin's fluid
3. Formaldehyde
4. Osmium tetroxide
5. Picric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.8) Why are bacterial smears heat-fixed before staining?

1. To ensure the smears can be cut into thin slices
2. To make the cell walls permeable so the stain can penetrate
3. To melt the bacteria so they release their toxins
4. To prevent cells from being washed off during staining
5. To provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.9) Which fixative do Pap stains use?

1. 10% buffered formalin
2. 95% ethanol
3. Carnoy's fluid
4. Helly's fixative
5. Methanol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.10) Which of these is a fixative?

1. EDTA
2. Hydrochloric acid
3. Nitric acid
4. Xylene
5. Zenker's fluid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.11) What is tissue fixation?

1. Dehydrating tissue
2. Heating tissue in an autoclave
3. Mounting a tissue specimen to a slide
4. Preserving tissue in a life-like manner
5. Removing calcium ions from tissue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.12) In histology, what is xylene used for?

1. Attaching coverslips to slides
2. Clearing tissue
3. Dehydrating tissue
4. Embedding tissue in paraffin wax
5. Fixing autopsy specimens

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.13) Which of these is a decalcifying agent?

1. Calcium acetate
2. Chloroform
3. EDTA
4. Ethanol
5. Formaldehyde

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.14) During dehydration, tissue is placed in increasing strengths of which substance?

1. Chromic acid
2. Ethanol
3. Nitric acid
4. Sodium citrate
5. Water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.15) In tissue processing for paraffin sections, which step comes after dehydration?

1. Clearing
2. Decalcification
3. Embedding
4. Fixation
5. Staining

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.16) Which ethanol strength is used last when dehydrating tissues?

1. 60%
2. 70%
3. 80%
4. 90%
5. 100%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.17) What is the most common clearing agent?

1. Aniline oil
2. Benzene
3. Cedarwood oil
4. Oil of wintergreen
5. Xylene

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.18) Which clearing agent does NOT make tissues transparent/translucent?

1. Benzene
2. Cedarwood oil
3. Chloroform
4. Toluene
5. Xylene

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.19) Why do clearing agents need to be miscible with alcohol?

1. So they can dehydrate tissues completely
2. So they can remove dehydrating agents from tissues
3. To prevent bacteria from growing in the clearing agent
4. To prevent damage to the clearing agent
5. To prevent damage to the tissue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.20) After fixation, bone tissue samples must be:

1. decalcified
2. frozen
3. left at room temperature for at least 24 hours
4. melted
5. refrigerated

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.21) Why are tissues dehydrated before embedding?

1. Because pathogens require water
2. Because wax is hydrophobic
3. To make the tissue transparent
4. To remove calcium ions from the specimen
5. To stop autolysis and putrefaction

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.22) What is used to dehydrate tissue samples?

1. Alcohol solutions
2. EDTA
3. Hot air
4. Sunlight
5. Xylene

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.23) If paraffin is not infiltrated properly, the tissue will:

1. become soft and crumbly
2. become too hard to cut properly
3. freeze
4. liquefy
5. lose its colour

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.24) What does a tissue cassette do?

1. Cuts tissue after processing
2. Holds tissue during processing
3. Keeps tissue refrigerated
4. Labels slides
5. Records the structures in a tissue specimen onto a computer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.25) Which of these decalcifying agents decalcifies tissues via chelation?

1. EDTA
2. Formic acid
3. Hydrochloric acid
4. Nitric acid
5. Picric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.26) Which of these factors would increase the tissue processing time for a histology specimen?

1. Dense tissue
2. Few pieces of tissue in the tissue cassette
3. High temperature
4. Porous tissue
5. Small specimen size

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.27) A freezing microtome is also known as a:

1. cryostat
2. hand microtome
3. icestat
4. sledge microtome
5. ultramicrotome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.28) Infiltration is the:

1. permeation of tissue with ethanol
2. permeation of tissue with wax
3. removal of calcium from tissue
4. removal of ethanol from tissue
5. removal of water from tissue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.29) What is the most common type of microtome in laboratories?

1. Cryostat
2. Hand microtome
3. Rotary microtome
4. Sledge microtome
5. Ultramicrotome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.30) Plastic sections used in transmission electron microscopy are typically cut how thick?

1. 60–100 nm
2. 60–100 μm
3. 6–10 μm
4. 6–10 mm
5. 6–10 cm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.31) Microtomes can cut tissue at thicknesses varying from 2 to 50 ________

1. nanometres
2. micrometres
3. millimetres
4. centimetres
5. metres

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.32) Why are tissues embedded in paraffin wax?

1. So they can be cut into sections
2. So they can be fixed in formalin
3. To decalcify them
4. To kill microorganisms
5. To stain them

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.33) Tissues are sectioned using a:

1. coverslipper
2. microtome
3. paraffin dispenser
4. tissue embedding centre
5. tissue processor

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.34) Microtome blades should generally be angled at around:

1. 5 degrees
2. 15 degrees
3. 25 degrees
4. 35 degrees
5. 45 degrees

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.35) What does the H&E staining method use as a dewaxing agent?

1. Alcohol
2. Eosin
3. Formalin
4. Hematoxylin
5. Xylene

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.36) Identify the false statement about the preparation of reticulocyte smears.

1. Reticulocyte smears are used to determine the number of white blood cells present in a sample
2. The dyes used can be new methylene blue or brilliant cresyl blue
3. The stain and the cells must be left to react for 15 minutes before making the smear
4. The stain is dissolved in saline
5. The staining technique is called supravital staining

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.37) In which stage of histology are mordants used?

1. Decalcification
2. Dehydration
3. Fixation
4. Sectioning
5. Staining

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.38) What are the two dyes in the Romanowsky stain?

1. Auramine O and rhodamine B
2. Carbol fuchsin and methylene blue
3. Crystal violet and carbol fuchsin
4. Crystal violet and safranin
5. Methylene blue and eosin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.39) Hematoxylin ripens into:

1. cyanmethemoglobin
2. hematein
3. hematone
4. hematurg
5. hemoglobin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.40) The Pap stain stains keratin which colour?

1. Black
2. Blue
3. Green
4. Orange
5. Purple

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.41) Which of these could cause stain precipitation?

1. Excessive buffer
2. Excessive humidity in the air
3. Excessive rinsing after applying the stain
4. Insufficient staining time
5. Use of aged staining solutions

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Section 9: Clinical Microbiology

9.1) Which type of bacteria does the Ziehl-Neelsen stain identify?

1. Acid-fast
2. Facultative anaerobic
3. Flagellated
4. Gram-negative
5. Spore-forming

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.2) When giving specimens for culture and sensitivity, the patient should:

1. be off antibiotics for several days before collection
2. come to the lab first thing in the morning
3. eat a diet high in sugar before the test
4. fast for 12 to 14 hours
5. have all x-rays done before collection

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.3) In vivo testing is useful for diagnosing:

1. HIV
2. Hepatitis A
3. Rubella virus
4. tuberculosis
5. whopping cough

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.4) Why are specimens for anaerobic culture placed in anaerobic jars?

1. To ensure an adequate flow of air
2. To maximize spore formation
3. To minimize exposure of the specimen to oxygen
4. To minimize the exposure of the specimen to UV light
5. To stop the specimen from escaping

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.5) What is the purpose of the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion test?

1. To assess the metabolic properties of bacteria for identification purposes
2. To detect microbial antigens in clinical samples
3. To detect random mutations in microbial DNA
4. To determine the sensitivity of bacteria to various antibiotics
5. To diagnose viral infections

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.6) In a patient with HIV, which of these samples would have the highest concentration of the virus?

1. Feces
2. Saliva
3. Serum
4. Sweat
5. Urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.7) What is the term for round bacteria that grow in clusters?

1. Bacillococci
2. Diplococci
3. Spirochetes
4. Staphylococci
5. Streptococci

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.8) All bacteria:

1. are eukaryotic
2. are single-celled
3. have a nuclear membrane
4. have chloroplast
5. have mitochondria

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.9) Mycobacteria are typically grown at which temperature?

1. 22°C
2. 37°C
3. 50°C
4. 65°C
5. 72°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.10) What is the term for bacteria that produce pigment regardless of whether they are grown in the dark or the light?

1. Magnetotactic
2. Scotochromogenic
3. Stromatolitic
4. Syntrophic photosynthetic
5. Xerotrophic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.11) Staphylococcus aureus grows best in which type of environment?

1. Aerobic
2. Anaerobic
3. Highly acidic
4. Highly alkaline
5. Microaerobic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.12) Streptococci are arranged in which shape?

1. Boxes
2. Chains
3. Clusters
4. Octets
5. Tetrads

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.13) The cell wall of bacteria is made predominantly of which substance?

1. Cellulose
2. Chitin
3. Disaccharides
4. Peptidoglycan
5. Starch

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.14) Some bacteria can produce a capsule that is resistant to heat and drying. What is this capsule called?

1. Cyst
2. Scab
3. Sheath
4. Spore
5. Tunic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.15) The time interval from exposure to an infectious agent to the onset of symptoms is called the __________ period.

1. acute
2. expectancy
3. incubation
4. morbidity
5. waiting

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.16) Which of these will NOT grow on agar plates?

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Mould
4. Protozoa
5. Viruses

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.17) Fildes’ agar is made by adding which substance to nutrient agar?

1. 2% alkaline glutaraldehyde
2. Cytochrome oxidase
3. Egg yolk
4. Peptic digest of blood
5. Skirrow's campylobacter selective media

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.18) What are the key ingredients in MacConkey agar?

1. Lactose, bile salts, crystal violet dye, and neutral red
2. Lactose, bile salts, salicin, and bromothymol blue
3. Lactose, eosin Y, and methylene blue
4. Mannitol, salt
5. Starch, beef infusion, acid hydrolysate of casein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.19) In an agar slant tube, what is the top, angled region of the agar called?

1. Cap
2. Cork
3. Crest
4. Head
5. Slant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.20) On CLED agar, lactose-positive bacteria form what colonies of what colour?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Red
4. White
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.21) What indicator is used in CLED agar?

1. Acid fuchsin
2. Bromothymol blue
3. Hematoxylin
4. Phenol red
5. Phenolphthalein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.22) What is the purpose of the freeze-and-thaw cycles in the preparation of laked blood?

1. To destroy crystals
2. To filter out the dissolved materials
3. To kill pathogenic bacteria
4. To lyse the red blood cells
5. To reduce the density of the blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.23) What is the most commonly used egg-based culture media?

1. Hektoen Enteric
2. Levenstein-Johnson
3. MacConkey
4. Salmonella-Shigella
5. Thayer Martin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.24) A lab technician performs Gram staining of a urine specimen. Under a microscope, the lab technician sees gram-negative cocci in chains. What mistake did the lab technician make?

1. Forgot the iodine treatment step
2. Forgot to bring the urine specimen to room temperature
3. Performed the safranin counterstain too quickly
4. Stirred the urine specimen excessively
5. Used too much crystal violet

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.25) What is the Gram stain appearance of E. coli?

1. Gram-negative coccus
2. Gram-negative rod
3. Gram-positive rod
4. Gram-positive rod
5. Gram-positive tetrad

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.26) In Gram staining, what will happen if the decolourizer is not left on long enough?

1. All organisms will appear colourless
2. All organisms will appear gram-negative
3. All organisms will appear gram-positive
4. Gram-positive organisms will appear gram-negative and vice versa
5. No cells will appear on the slide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.27) Which of these is a step in Gram staining?

1. Add three drops of carbolfuchsin to the specimen
2. Chill the specimen on a refrigerated plate
3. Cover the specimen with iodine for 1 minute
4. Infiltrate the specimen with paraffin wax
5. Soak the specimen in an organic solvent such as xylene

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.28) In Gram staining, which of these situations can cause gram-negative cells to appear colourless?

1. Omission of the counterstain step
2. Omission of the iodine treatment step
3. Omission of the primary stain step
4. Over-decolourizing
5. Under-decolourizing

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.29) What colour are gram-positive organisms after a Gram stain?

1. Green
2. Orange
3. Purple
4. Red
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.30) What is the term for a rod-shaped microorganism that appears red after Gram staining?

1. Gram-negative bacillus
2. Gram-negative cocci
3. Gram-positive bacillus
4. Gram-positive cocci
5. Gram-positive spirillum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.31) What are the three common types of acid-fast staining?

1. Calcofluor, fast green, and Gram-Twort
2. Nigrosin negative, methylene blue exclusion, and carbol fuchsin
3. Periodic acid-Schiff, alcian, and Bismarck
4. Trichrome, sulfate, and Wade-Fite
5. Ziehl-Neelsen, Kinyoun, and auramine-rhodamine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.32) What unique property allows acid-fast bacteria to retain the acid-fast stain when subjected to acid-alcohol?

1. Lipopolysaccharide outer layer
2. The ability to ferment lactose
3. The ability to produce coagulase
4. Thick peptidoglycan layer
5. Waxy, lipid-rich cell wall

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.33) The acid-fast stain is most commonly used to diagnose which disease?

1. Meningococcal disease
2. Tuberculosis
3. AIDS
4. Strep throat
5. Pertussis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.34) In acid-fast staining, what colour are non-acid fast bacteria?

1. Blue
2. Orange
3. Pink
4. Red
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.35) When performing a quadrant streak plate, what would happen if you forget to sterilize your loop in between each quadrant streak?

1. A lack of individual colonies
2. Growth in only the first quadrant
3. Growth in quadrants 3 and 4 but no growth in quadrants 1 and 2
4. Large individual colonies in quadrant 1
5. No growth in any quadrant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.36) A lab technician streaks an agar plate with a pure culture of bacteria. However, the next day, the lab technician observes a contaminant growing along the streak lines of the plate. Which of these could be the cause of the contamination?

1. The agar medium was contaminated
2. The culture was contaminated
3. The incubator's temperature was incorrectly set
4. The loop was flamed too many times
5. The plate was exposed to airborne contaminants

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.37) Where should you label a Petri plate?

1. Inside the plate
2. On the bottom of the plate
3. On the inside of the lid
4. On the side of the lid
5. On the top of the lid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.38) Which of these agar plates has been streaked correctly?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.39) What type of atmosphere is required for strict anaerobic growth?

1. Elevated carbon dioxide
2. No carbon dioxide
3. No oxygen
4. Reduced carbon dioxide
5. Reduced oxygen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.40) What is the term for an organism that can grow in the presence of oxygen but does not perform aerobic respiration?

1. Aerotolerant aerobe
2. Aerotolerant anaerobe
3. Facultative aerobe
4. Facultative anaerobe
5. Obligate anaerobe

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Section 10: Clinical Chemistry

10.1) What does the specific gravity of urine measure?

1. Bacterial contaminate
2. The concentration of particles
3. The level of nitrates
4. The pH of urine
5. The weight of the urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.2) What is the term for a sodium level of 130 mmol/L?

1. Hyperglycemia
2. Hyperkalemia
3. Hypernatremia
4. Hypokalemia
5. Hyponatremia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.3) Which abnormal urine condition is associated with diabetes?

1. Anuria
2. Dysuria
3. Oliguria
4. Polyuria
5. Pyuria

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.4) Low-carbohydrate diets may cause an increased amount of _____________ in urine.

1. blood
2. erythrocytes
3. ketones
4. leukocytes
5. urobilinogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.5) Patients with symptoms of thirst and frequent urination should receive which of the following tests?

1. Basic metabolic panel
2. Fasting blood glucose
3. Lipid panel
4. Prothrombin time
5. Tissue transglutaminase IgA test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.6) The presence of ten or more white blood cells in a cubic millimetre of urine is called:

1. ischuria
2. oliguria
3. polyuria
4. pyuria
5. uraturia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.7) Which test requires avoiding foods high in serotonin such as avocados, bananas, and pineapple?

1. 5-H1AA urine test
2. 72- hour fecal fat test
3. Glucose tolerance test
4. Lipid profile
5. Stool culture and sensitivity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.8) The alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test requires which type of sample?

1. Blood
2. Cerebrospinal fluid
3. Feces
4. Sputum
5. Urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.9) The troponin test is used to help diagnose which condition?

1. Brain damage
2. Diabetes
3. Heart attack
4. Kidney failure
5. Liver failure

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.10) Which tablet is used to detect proteins in urine?

1. Acetest
2. Clinitest
3. Ictotest
4. SSA
5. TCA

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.11) Which type of urine specimen requires the patient to urinate a small amount into the toilet, stop urinating, and then start urinating again into a sterile cup?

1. 24-hour
2. Catheter
3. Clean-catch
4. Random
5. Timed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.12) What is the glycosylated hemoglobin test also known as?

1. Fasting plasma glucose test
2. Glucose tolerance test
3. HbA1c test
4. Hematocrit test
5. Hemoglobin electrophoresis test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.13) A routine glucose tolerance test (GTT) requires:

1. a blood sample and a urine sample
2. one blood sample
3. one urine sample
4. two or more blood samples
5. two or more urine samples

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.14) If a patient vomits halfway through an oral glucose tolerance test, what should you do?

1. Stop the test because the test is now invalid
2. Restart the test with a second dose of glucose
3. Ask the patient if they would like to continue the test
4. Allow the patient to rest for a few minutes before continuing with the test
5. Adjust the results for the vomit

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.15) How much glucose is given to a non-pregnant patient for an oral glucose tolerance test?

1. 5 g
2. 25 g
3. 75 g
4. 150 g
5. 300 g

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.16) According to WHO guidelines for the oral glucose tolerance test, the patient should drink the dose of glucose within:

1. 5 minutes
2. 10 minutes
3. 20 minutes
4. 30 minutes
5. 1 hour

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.17) Blood specimens for sodium testing must be transported at which temperature?

1. –20°C
2. 1–6°C
3. 20–24°C
4. 37–40°C
5. 55°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.18) The results of which of these tests may be falsely increased if the stopper is removed from the specimen?

1. Cortisol
2. Glucose
3. Iron
4. Potassium
5. pH

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.19) Urine samples that cannot be tested within an hour of collection should be:

1. centrifuged
2. discarded
3. frozen
4. left at room temperature
5. refrigerated

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.20) Cloudy white urine is a sign of:

1. a urinary tract infection
2. dehydration
3. excessive consumption of vitamin B6
4. jaundice
5. liver disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.21) Which of these would be checked during a macroscopic examination of urine?

1. Acidity
2. Appearance under a microscope
3. Colour
4. Glucose levels
5. Specific gravity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.22) What is the reference range for glucose in cerebrospinal fluid?

1. 2.8–4.4 mmol/L
2. 4.4–5.5 mmol/L
3. 5.8–6.9 mmol/L
4. 6.9–8.3 mmol/L
5. 8.3–10.0 mmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.23) What is the normal range for the specific gravity of urine?

1. 0.905–0.930
2. 0.930–0.955
3. 0.955–0.980
4. 0.980–1.005
5. 1.005–1.030

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.24) What is the normal range for AST in adult blood?

1. 1–5 units/L
2. 10–40 units/L
3. 63–90 units/L
4. 79–102 units/L
5. 116–125 units/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.25) Which of these lipid profile results is abnormal for a man?

1. Total cholesterol: 2.6 mmol/L
2. LDL: 8.2 mmol/L
3. HDL: 1.7 mmol/L
4. Triglycerides: 0.8 mmol/L
5. HDL: 2.0 mmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.26) What is the optimal LDL cholesterol level in adults?

1. <3 mmol/L
2. 3 to 5 mmol/L
3. 5 to 8 mmol/L
4. 8 to 10 mmol/L
5. >10 mmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.27) What is the normal range for ALT in adult blood?

1. 7–56 units/L
2. 35–79 units/L
3. 74–100 units/L
4. 78–107 units/L
5. 126–135 units/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.28) What is the normal range for serum hCG levels in non-pregnant women?

1. <5 mIU/mL
2. 5 to 10 mIU/mL
3. 10 to 20 mIU/mL
4. 20 to 30 mIU/mL
5. >40 mIU/mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.29) The normal value for glomerular filtration rate is _____ or above.

1. 30
2. 90
3. 150
4. 210
5. 260

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.30) How many times a day does a healthy person urinate?

1. 1 to 7 times
2. 4 to 10 times
3. 7 to 13 times
4. 10 to 16 times
5. 13 to 19 times

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.31) An arterial blood specimen submitted for blood gas analysis was obtained at 8:30 AM but was not received in the laboratory until 11:00 AM. What should the laboratory do?

1. Centrifuge the sample before performing the test
2. Perform the test ASAP
3. Perform the test only if the specimen was submitted in ice water
4. Request a new arterial sample to be obtained
5. Request a venous blood specimen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.32) Which of these tests indicates the health of the kidneys?

1. ALT
2. Bilirubin
3. Creatinine clearance
4. TSH
5. Troponin T

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.33) The bile acid test assesses the functioning of which organ?

1. Bladder
2. Brain
3. Kidney
4. Liver
5. Stomach

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.34) Which of these cholesterol results indicates an increased risk for cardiovascular disease?

1. Low HDL and high LDL
2. Low LDL and high HDL
3. Low LDL and low VLDL
4. Low VLDL and high HDL
5. Low chylomicrons and high HDL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.35) Which samples are taken during a glucagon stimulation test?

1. Glucagon, cortisol, and epinephrine
2. Glucagon, insulin, and epinephrine
3. Glucagon, somatostatin, and epinephrine
4. Glucose, cortisol, and growth hormone
5. Glucose, insulin, and epinephrine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.36) The presence of which isoenzyme indicates acute myocardial infarction?

1. ALP
2. ALT
3. CK-BB
4. CK-MB
5. CK-MM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.37) What is the primary screening test for thyroid dysfunction?

1. Free T3 test
2. Free T4 test
3. TSH test
4. Total T3 test
5. Total T4 test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.38) When is a blood sample drawn for determination of the trough level of a drug?

1. 2-3 hours after drug administration
2. 24-48 hours after drug administration
3. After the first urine excretion
4. Just after drug administration
5. Just before drug administration

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.39) A woman has symptoms of weakness and fatigue. The results of a serum electrolyte test are as follows:

Electrolyte	Result
Sodium	140 mmol/L
Potassium	4.3 mmol/L
Chloride	65 mmol/L
Magnesium	0.95 mmol/L
Phosphate	1.3 mmol/L

Which of the results is abnormal?

1. Sodium
2. Potassium
3. Chloride
4. Magnesium
5. Phosphate

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Section 11: Clinical Hematology

11.1) In hematology, what does HCT stand for?

1. Hematocrit
2. Hemoglobin
3. Hemoglobin colour testing
4. High cell total
5. High cell turbidity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.2) Which of these tests would most be affected if a patient was taking an anticoagulant medication?

1. Prothrombin time
2. Red blood cell count
3. White blood cell count
4. Hematocrit
5. Hemoglobin concentration

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.3) Which of these patients has anemia?

	HCT	RBC (x10¹²/L)	Hemoglobin (g/dL)
Patient 1	50%	4.6	14.1
Patient 2	41%	6.2	16.8
Patient 3	38%	4.8	10.6
Patient 4	42%	7.2	13.5

1. Patient 1
2. Patient 2
3. Patient 3
4. Patient 4
5. All patients are healthy

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.4) A normal healthy individual has how many grams of hemoglobin per 100 mL of blood?

1. 6–12 g
2. 12–18 g
3. 15–20 g
4. 30–35 g
5. 42–48 g

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.5) What does an antiglycolytic agent do?

1. Enhance coagulation
2. Inhibit thrombin formation
3. Prevent a specimen from clotting
4. Prevent glucose from becoming glycogen
5. Prevent the breakdown of glucose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.6) Which anticoagulant works by inactivating thrombin?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Potassium oxalate
4. Sodium citrate
5. Sodium fluoride

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.7) What is the ESR?

1. How quickly red blood cells settle in whole blood
2. The average size of red blood cells
3. The concentration of C-reactive protein in a blood sample
4. The proportion of blood that is made up of cells
5. The ratio of erythrocytes to leukocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.8) Which of these tests is included in a complete blood count?

1. ALP
2. CRP
3. ESR
4. Hb
5. PT

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.9) When using a standard white blood cell pipette for determining a white blood cell count, you draw the blood to the 0.5 mark. You should then draw the diluting fluid to which mark?

1. 1.0
2. 1.5
3. 11
4. 101
5. 121

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.10) Mixing blood with glass beads in an airtight container is a procedure to produce __________ blood.

1. acidic
2. coagulated
3. defibrinated
4. hypoglycemic
5. serosanguinous

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.11) The icterus index is a measure of which colour of serum?

1. Green
2. Orange
3. Red
4. White
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.12) Platelet satellitism can occur in blood samples containing which additive?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Sodium citrate
4. Sodium fluoride
5. Sodium oxalate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.13) For how many minutes should a microhematocrit be centrifuged?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 5
4. 15
5. 30

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.14) When preparing blood smears, the spreader slide should be at what angle?

1. 15 degrees
2. 30 degrees
3. 45 degrees
4. 60 degrees
5. 90 degrees

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.15) When preparing a blood smear, which of these could cause the blood smear to be too thin?

1. A small drop size
2. Holding the spreader at a high angle
3. Spreading the blood too slowly
4. Using a dirty slide
5. Using transfused blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.16) Blood smears made using EDTA specimens should be prepared within _________ of specimen collection.

1. 10 minutes
2. 1 hour
3. 6 hours
4. 12 hours
5. 24 hours

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.17) A woman has the following blood test results:

Test	Result
Red cell count	7.8 × 10¹²/L
White cell count	7.5 × 10⁹/L
Platelets	242 × 10⁹/L

What term applies to these results?

1. Hypererythrocytosis
2. Leukocytosis
3. Leukopenia
4. Leukorrhea
5. Polycythemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.18) A man has the following blood test results:

Test	Result
Red cell count	5.4 × 10¹²/L
White cell count	6.5 × 10⁹/L
Platelets	660 × 10⁹/L

Which term applies to these results?

1. Anemia
2. Neutropenia
3. Polycythemia
4. Thrombocytopenia
5. Thrombocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.19) Calculate the international normalised ratio (INR) from the following information.

Control PT	11.0 seconds
Patient's PT	16.5 seconds
International Sensitivity Index	1

1. 0.5
2. 1.5
3. 2.5
4. 3.5
5. 4.5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.20) Anticoagulant therapy is monitored by performing a:

1. ESR
2. FBS
3. Hct
4. Hgb
5. PT

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.21) Which red blood cell index is a measure of the average size of red blood cells?

1. MCH
2. MCHC
3. MCV
4. RBC
5. RDW

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.22) Hematocrit = _____________ × 3

1. blood pressure
2. hemoglobin
3. mean corpuscular volume
4. red blood cell count
5. white blood cell count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.23) What is the formula for calculating mean corpuscular volume (MCV)?

1. 1 SD of the MCV / MCV
2. HGB / Hct
3. HGB / RBC
4. Hct / RBC
5. RBC × MCV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.24) In hematology, what does RDW stand for?

1. Real donor width
2. Red blood cell distribution width
3. Red direct width
4. Red draw white
5. Reticulocyte distribution width

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.25) Which microscope objective is used first when examining a stained blood film?

1. 10x
2. 40x
3. 50x
4. 70x
5. 100x oil immersion

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.26) Where are urine reagent strips stored?

1. In a cool, dry place
2. In a jar, exposed to air
3. In an incubator (37°C)
4. In the freezer
5. In the refrigerator

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.27) Blood samples for cold agglutinin testing should be kept at what temperature before testing?

1. –18°C
2. –6°C
3. 6°C
4. 20°C
5. 37°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.28) Serum specimens for vitamin K should be:

1. kept at 37–40°C
2. kept away from light
3. kept frozen
4. mixed with an antiglycolytic agent
5. mixed with glass beads

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.29) A urine specimen arrives at the laboratory five hours after it was collected. To be acceptable for culture testing, the specimen must have been:

1. kept at room temperature
2. kept frozen
3. kept refrigerated
4. mixed with a preservative additive
5. mixed with an antiglycolytic agent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.30) What is the reference range for serum albumin?

1. 35–50 g/L
2. 50–65 g/L
3. 65–80 g/L
4. 80–95 g/L
5. 95–110 g/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.31) Which of these is a normal result for RBC for men?

1. 5.6 × 10⁶ cells/μL
2. 6.9 × 10⁶ cells/μL
3. 7.5 × 10⁶ cells/μL
4. 8.3 × 10⁶ cells/μL
5. 9.8 × 10⁶ cells/μL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.32) What is the normal hemoglobin range for women?

1. 12–16 g/dL
2. 14–18 g/dL
3. 16–20 g/dL
4. 18–22 g/dL
5. 20–24 g/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.33) What is the normal range for the prothrombin time (PT) test?

1. 11–14 seconds
2. 15–18 seconds
3. 20–23 seconds
4. 25–28 seconds
5. 31–35 seconds

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.34) High amounts of which vitamin can cause false negatives in the fecal occult blood test?

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B6
3. Vitamin B12
4. Vitamin C
5. Vitamin D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.35) The HIV antigen test detects which antigen?

1. CA-125
2. CA15-3
3. ESAT-6
4. HBsAg
5. p24

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Section 12: Transfusion Medicine

12.1) A man is genotype AO and a woman is genotype BO. What blood types could their children have?

1. A only
2. B only
3. A and B
4. A, B, and O
5. A, B, AB, and O

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.2) How many millilitres are in 10 cc of blood?

1. 1
2. 7.8
3. 9.2
4. 10
5. 12

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.3) A patient needs 4 units of blood for a transfusion. Roughly how much is this in millilitres?

1. 350 mL
2. 880 mL
3. 1,200 mL
4. 1,240 mL
5. 1,800 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.4) What is the purpose of the rosette test?

1. To detect fetomaternal hemorrhage in postpartum women
2. To differentiate between the different possible types of anemia
3. To screen for red blood cell antibodies in donated blood
4. To screen for the West Nile virus in donated blood
5. To test for blood group incompatibility before hematopoietic stem cell transplantation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.5) Why is blood matching performed before blood transfusions?

1. To avoid erythroblastosis fetalis
2. To avoid newborn hemolytic disease
3. To avoid the recipient's antibodies attacking the donor's red blood cells
4. To avoid the recipient's antigens attacking the donor's red blood cells
5. To ensure the donor does not have a bloodborne disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.6) A person with blood type B− can receive a blood transfusion from which two blood types?

1. B− and AB−
2. B− and AB−
3. B− and B+
4. B− and O−
5. O− and O+

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.7) An O+ patient needs an emergency transfusion but the laboratory does not have any O+ blood available. Which type of blood could be given to the patient instead?

1. AB+
2. B+
3. AB−
4. O−
5. B−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.8) What is the second-most important blood group system for blood transfusions?

1. Kell
2. Lutheran
3. MNS
4. P
5. Rh

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.9) Which blood type is most commonly used for intrauterine transfusions?

1. A+
2. AB+
3. AB−
4. O+
5. O−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.10) Leukocytes are removed from transfusable blood components by a process called:

1. leukoextraction
2. leukorebation
3. leukoreduction
4. leukoremoval
5. leukotransference

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.11) An apheresis donation is a donation:

1. from a donor on a dialysis machine
2. performed under general anesthetic
3. taken from a leg vein instead of an arm vein
4. where the blood is immediately transfused into the recipient patient
5. where the donor gives specific blood components

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.12) A unit of donated blood is roughly equivalent to how many pints?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.13) Blood donations are routinely tested for which of these diseases?

1. Diabetes
2. HSV-1
3. HTLV-I
4. Hepatitis A
5. Hepatitis D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.14) What is the 30-minute rule in blood banking?

1. A donor with a bleeding arm should keep her arm raised for at least 30 minutes
2. After a transfusion, the donor should sit in a quiet room for 30 minutes before going home
3. Red blood cell units left out of a refrigerator for more than 30 minutes cannot be returned to the refrigerator
4. The tourniquet should not be left on the patient's arm for more than 30 minutes
5. Transfusions of red blood cell units should take no longer than 30 minutes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.15) Which cryoprotective agent is most commonly used for red blood cells in blood banking?

1. Ethylene
2. Glycerol
3. Mannitol
4. Sorbitol
5. Thiol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.16) For how long can donated platelets be stored at room temperature?

1. 30 minutes
2. 1 hour
3. 4 hours
4. 24 hours
5. 5 days

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.17) What is the 4-hour rule in blood banking?

1. Blood donors should not be kept waiting in the waiting room for more than 4 hours
2. Blood donors should refrain from exercise four hours after donating blood
3. Red blood cell units left out of refrigeration for more than 4 hours cannot be returned to the refrigerator
4. Red blood cell units suspected of bacterial contamination should be left for 4 hours
5. Transfusions of red blood cell units should be completed within 4 hours of their removal from refrigeration

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.18) Stored blood is automatically disqualified for transfusion if it:

1. has been refrigerated
2. has clots
3. has white particulate matter
4. is icteric
5. is lipemic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.19) Which of these is a sign of hemolysis in a unit of red blood cells?

1. Blood clots
2. Bright cherry red colour
3. Excessive and unusual air bubbles
4. Growth of blue-green algae
5. Increased opacity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.20) Why are blood products irradiated?

1. To ensure the blood products remain stable
2. To help doctors diagnose tumours
3. To prevent TA-GVHD
4. To prolong their duration
5. To sterilize them

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.21) What temperature is thawed plasma stored at?

1. −20°C or colder
2. −6°C to −18°C
3. 1–6°C
4. 20–24°C
5. 37–40°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.22) Which of these situations could cause hemolytic disease of the newborn?

1. A+ mother and O− fetus
2. AB+ mother and O− fetus
3. AB− mother and O− fetus
4. O+ mother and A− fetus
5. O− mother and O+ fetus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.23) When performing an antiglobulin test, why must the lab technician wash the red blood cells before adding the AHG reagent?

1. To ensure the antibodies bind to the antigens
2. To neutralize excess AHG reagent
3. To remove hemolyzed cells
4. To remove pathogens such as bacteria and viruses
5. To remove unbound serum globulins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.24) Why is incubation omitted in the direct antiglobulin test?

1. Incubation will cause hemolysis
2. Incubation would break apart the antibody-antigen complexes
3. The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo
4. The direct antiglobulin test is used if there is not enough time to perform the indirect test
5. The direct antiglobulin test only detects IgM antibodies

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.25) A person is Rh-positive if they have which antigen on their red blood cells?

1. RhC
2. Rhc
3. RhD
4. RhE
5. Rhe

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.26) The ABO system of blood groups is based on the presence of which proteins on red blood cells?

1. Agglutinins
2. Antibodies
3. Antigens
4. Enzymes
5. Immunoglobulins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.27) Which blood type is the universal recipient?

1. A+
2. AB+
3. B+
4. O+
5. O−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.28) Which blood type is the universal donor?

1. AB+
2. AB–
3. A–
4. B+
5. O–

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.29) A person with type AB blood has:

1. A and B antibodies
2. A and B antigens
3. A antigens and anti-B antibodies
4. B antigens and anti-A antibodies
5. no antigens

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.30) Where is blood generally stored?

1. At room temperature
2. In a dark cupboard
3. In a water bath
4. In the freezer
5. In the refrigerator

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Section 13: Electrocardiograms

13.1) An arrhythmia is a heart rhythm that is:

1. abnormal
2. non-existent
3. normal
4. too fast
5. too slow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.2) Systolic blood pressure is the blood pressure when which part of the heart contracts?

1. Arteries
2. Atria
3. Valves
4. Veins
5. Ventricles

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.3) Which of the following information should be included in an ECG report?

1. The patient's insurance details
2. The patient's weight
3. The room number where the ECG was performed
4. The time of the recording
5. Whether the patient was fasting

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.4) How many leads are in a standard ECG?

1. 10
2. 12
3. 14
4. 16
5. 18

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.5) Which cardiac testing procedure requires patients to keep a diary of their daily activities?

1. Cardiac CT scan
2. Cardiac MRI
3. Cardiac stress test
4. Holter monitor
5. Nuclear stress test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.6) During ECG placement, to which part of the body is the ground lead attached?

1. Chest
2. Left arm
3. Leg leg
4. Right arm
5. Right leg

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.7) You are about to perform an ECG but the patient is worried the ECG will be painful. What should you tell the patient?

1. "Don't worry as you will only feel a small amount of pain"
2. "I can ask the doctor to give you an anesthetic if you like"
3. "There is no need to worry as the ECG doesn't hurt"
4. "You may feel a moderate amount of pain but don't worry as I can stop the machine at any time"
5. "You may feel some pain but this is a necessary procedure"

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.8) When performing an ECG, which of these steps comes first?

1. Apply the limb electrodes
2. Ask the patient to remove their clothing from the waist up
3. Connect the lead wires to the electrodes
4. Obtain the patient's consent
5. Prepare the patient's skin for the application of the electrodes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.9) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V6 placed?

1. 4th intercostal space to the left of the sternum
2. 4th intercostal space to the right of the sternum
3. Anywhere between the left shoulder and the wrist
4. Anywhere between the right shoulder and the wrist
5. The midaxillary line at the same level as V4 and V5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.10) For which condition might you need to increase the ECG paper speed?

1. Adams–Stokes syndrome
2. Bradycardia
3. Bundle branch block
4. Tachycardia
5. Unstable angina

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.11) In a 12-lead ECG, which of these leads is bipolar?

1. I
2. V2
3. aVF
4. aVL
5. aVR

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.12) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V4 placed?

1. 4th intercostal space to the left of the sternum
2. 4th intercostal space to the right of the sternum
3. 5th intercostal space at the midclavicular line
4. Anywhere above the right ankle and below the torso
5. Anywhere between the right shoulder and the wrist

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.13) Leads V1 to V6 are called the _________ leads.

1. amplified
2. augmented
3. cardiac
4. chest
5. limb

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.14) You are preparing a patient for an electrocardiogram but the patient's left lower leg is amputated. What should you do?

1. Cancel the electrocardiogram
2. Perform the electrocardiogram but without the LL and RL electrodes
3. Perform the electrocardiogram but without the LL electrode
4. Place the LL electrode above the patient's left knee instead
5. Place the LL electrode on the patient's right leg instead

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.15) Which of these statements about preparing a patient for an ECG is true?

1. Alcohol wipes are used to clean the skin
2. It is good practice to shave the patient’s entire chest
3. The patient must be fasting before the ECG
4. The patient should be be a sitting position
5. The room temperature must be kept cold

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.16) In electrocardiography, which is the largest wave in the QRS complex?

1. The P wave
2. The Q wave
3. The R wave
4. The S wave
5. The U wave

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.17) On ECG paper, how many millimetres normally represent one second?

1. 5 mm
2. 10 mm
3. 15 mm
4. 20 mm
5. 25 mm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.18) You are performing an ECG on a patient. You observe a wide QRS complex while continuously monitoring the patient in lead II. Which lead placement is necessary to evaluate the location of a blockage in the bundle branch system?

1. Lead I
2. Lead II
3. Lead III
4. Lead V1
5. Lead V4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.19) What part of the ECG tracing is measured from the end of the S wave to the beginning of the T wave?

1. QRS complex
2. QT segment
3. R wave
4. ST segment
5. U wave

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.20) What is the heart rate in the ECG strip below?

1. 50 bpm
2. 75 bpm
3. 100 bpm
4. 150 bpm
5. 300 bpm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.21) You observe somatic tremor artifacts on the ECG. What can you do to reduce these artifacts?

1. Check for sources of electrical interference
2. Make sure the electrodes are secure
3. Move the bed away from the wall
4. Remind the patient to keep still
5. Remove tension from the lead wires

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