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Sections

1. Standards of Practice
2. Medical Terminology
3. Basic Biology, Anatomy and Physiology
4. Laboratory Mathematics and Quality Assurance
5. Specimen Procurement, Processing and Data Collection
6. Laboratory Safety
7. Laboratory Equipment
8. Histology and Cytology
9. Clinical Microbiology
10. Clinical Chemistry
11. Clinical Hematology
12. Transfusion Medicine
13. Electrocardiograms

Section 1: Standards of Practice

1.1) Which principle of the Canada Health Act is not patient-focused but rather the means of achieving the end to which the other four principles are directed?

1. Accessibility
2. Comprehensiveness
3. Portability
4. Public administration
5. Universality

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) Which of these is the responsibility of a laboratory assistant?

1. Disciplining workers
2. Giving results to patients
3. Performing tests that require judgement
4. Preparing chemical solutions
5. Supervising other workers

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) A lawyer asks a lab technician for copies of his client's test results. What should the lab technician do?

1. Allow the lawyer to see the results on the computer
2. Give the results to the lawyer immediately
3. Have the lawyer sign a Medical Release Form and then release the results
4. Have the lawyer sign a confidentiality form and then release the results
5. Tell the lawyer to contact the physician who ordered the tests

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) You are a phlebotomist drawing blood from a woman for a pregnancy test. After the woman has left the room, a colleague approaches you and asks what test was ordered. He explains he wants to know because he is the woman's ex-boyfriend. You should:

1. call the police
2. inform him you are unable to tell him anything
3. lie and tell him the test was a complete blood count
4. reassure him that he has nothing to worry about
5. tell him the test was a pregnancy test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) Another term for professional negligence is:

1. defamation
2. malfeasance
3. malpractice
4. misfeasance
5. nonfeasance

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) What is Canada's federal data privacy law for private-sector organizations?

1. HIPPA
2. PHIPA
3. PIPA
4. PIPEDA
5. WHMIS

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) Who enforces PIPEDA?

1. Health Canada
2. Information and Privacy Commissioner of Ontario
3. Ministry of Health and Long-Term Care
4. Privacy Commissioner of Canada
5. Public Health Ontario

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) The Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991 is legislation that:

1. establishes the conditions that health insurance plans must meet to receive cash contributions
2. governs Ontario's regulated health professions' Colleges
3. governs the personal information handling practices of federal government institutions
4. outlines the behaviour expected of health professionals
5. sets the primary objective of Canadian health care policy

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) Which Ontario act sets the rights and duties of all parties in the workplace as well as the procedures for dealing with workplace hazards?

1. The Excellent Care for All Act
2. The Health Care Consent Act
3. The Laboratory and Specimen Collection Centre Licensing Act
4. The Occupational Health and Safety Act
5. The Regulated Health Professions Act

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) In Ontario's Occupational Health and Safety Act, a 'competent person' is a person who:

1. can make informed decisions about his or her health care
2. follows the current CSMLS Standards of Practice guidelines
3. has worked in their position for more than 10 years
4. has worked in their position for more than 5 years
5. is qualified because of knowledge, training, and experience

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) Which of these is a 'controlled act' within the Regulatory Health Professions Act (RHPA)?

1. Drawing blood from a patient
2. Praying for a patient
3. Shaking a patient's hand
4. Sneezing into your arm
5. Weighing a patient

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) The Health Care Consent Act is about patient consent to:

1. confidentiality
2. disclose health information
3. privacy
4. publication of their data in medical journals
5. treatment

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Which government organization legislates the Laboratory and Specimen Collection Centre Licensing Act?

1. Canadian Healthcare Association
2. HealthCareCAN
3. Ministry of Health and Long-Term Care
4. Ontario Health
5. Public Health Agency of Canada

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) According to Regulation 682 of the Laboratory and Specimen Collection Centre Licensing Act, a medical lab technician is a person:

1. responsible for administrating technical and scientific lab operations
2. responsible for supervising other workers in the laboratory
3. who may perform specialized scientific tests without supervision
4. who performs tests that require independent judgement
5. who performs tests that require limited skills and responsibility

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) What does PHIPA do?

1. Control the use of confidential information at the federal level
2. Control the use of confidential information at the provincial level
3. Manage informed consent
4. Protect employees
5. Protect minorities

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) What is the purpose of the Canada Health Act?

1. To ensure all Canadian residents have access to necessary health care
2. To ensure all health workers in Canada work in a safe environment
3. To eradicate dangerous diseases from Canada
4. To protect confidential patient information
5. To provide health care services for people who can pay for the services

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) The accessibility principle of the Canada Health Act states:

1. Canadians must have reasonable access to healthcare facilities
2. a Canadian who moves to a different province is still entitled to coverage
3. all printed health materials must be made accessible in Braille
4. anyone in Canada can register for free healthcare, regardless of immigration status
5. healthcare facilities must be accessible to people with disabilities

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) Which principle of PIPEDA states that everyone has a right to ask organizations for a copy of their personal information?

1. Accountability
2. Consent
3. Individual Access
4. Openness
5. Safeguards

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) Which act is Canada’s federal legislation for publicly funded health care insurance?

1. Canada Health Act
2. Established Programs Financing Act
3. Hospital Insurance and Diagnostic Services Act
4. Insurance Companies Act
5. Medical Care Act

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) Under the Canadian Constitution, which level of government is responsible for the direct health care services of First Nations living on reserves, Inuit and Innu populations, veterans, and inmates of federal prisons?

1. Local
2. District
3. Municipal
4. Provincial and territorial
5. Federal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Medical Terminology

2.1) What does hypertrophy mean?

1. Excess energy
2. Increase in cell numbers
3. Increase in size
4. Newborn
5. Underdeveloped

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) What is the term for the contraction phase of the heartbeat?

1. Diastole
2. Pacemaker
3. Septum
4. Systole
5. Tachycardia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) What is phagocytosis?

1. An abnormally high number of phagocytes in the blood
2. An abnormally low number of phagocytes in the blood
3. An autoimmune disease where phagocytes attack the body's own cells
4. The process by which phagocytes engulf foreign material
5. The process by which phagocytes move

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) What is the common abbreviation for the Papanicolaou test?

1. D-dimer test
2. P-test
3. PPN test
4. Pap test
5. Polymerase test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) Glycolysis is the breakdown of:

1. glucose
2. glycogen
3. glucagon
4. glycerol
5. glycosylate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) What is the term for the production of blood cells and platelets?

1. Apheresis
2. Apheresynthesis
3. Coagulation
4. Hemopoiesis
5. Hemosynthesis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) A thrombus is a:

1. blood clot
2. instrument for measuring blood pressure
3. moving foreign body in the bloodstream
4. type of blood vessel
5. type of needle for aspirating pleural fluid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) What does the prefix 'brady' mean?

1. Different
2. Hidden
3. Same
4. Slow
5. Together

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) Which does the prefix adeno- refer to?

1. Glands
2. Joints
3. Kidney
4. Liver
5. Muscle

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) What does the suffix -emia refer to?

1. Blood condition
2. Eating disorder
3. Enlargement
4. Paralysis
5. Surgical removal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) In the PSA test, what does PSA stand for?

1. Partly-specific antibody
2. Patient safety awareness
3. Plasma-specific antibody
4. Platelet-specific antigen
5. Prostate-specific antigen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) QNS stands for:

1. quality not satisfied
2. quality not sufficient
3. quantity not satisfied
4. quantity not sufficient
5. questionable node suspected

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) ETS stands for ________ ________ system.

1. electrical tube
2. evacuated tube
3. extra thrombosin
4. extravascular testing
5. extravascular tube

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) In the context of healthcare, what does CBC stand for?

1. Center for blood care
2. Center for blood control
3. Complete blood count
4. Complete blood culture
5. Controlled blood count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) Small red or purple spots caused by a minor hemorrhage are called:

1. palachiae
2. parachiae
3. parasites
4. pasachiae
5. petechiae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) What is edema?

1. A bruise on the head
2. A build-up of wax in the ear
3. A collection of blood outside blood vessels
4. Swelling caused by fluid retention
5. The final product of the blood coagulation step in hemostasis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) What is a fistula?

1. A build-up of pus in body tissue
2. A knot of old scar tissue
3. A vein that has become distended and engorged
4. An abnormal connection between two parts of the body
5. An infection of the large intestine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) What is a hematoma?

1. A cancer of the blood that originates in red blood cells
2. A cut in the skin
3. A localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels
4. A part of a blood clot that breaks off and travels to a new part of the body
5. A severed artery

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) What is hematuria?

1. A clotting disorder
2. A disease where the body makes too much blood
3. Blood in the eye
4. Blood in the urine
5. Kidney stones

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) What is the medical term for a low level of glucose in the blood?

1. Hyperglycemia
2. Hyperinsulinemia
3. Hyperlipidemia
4. Hypodermia
5. Hypoglycemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) What is the medical term for abnormal growth of connective tissue?

1. Alopecia
2. Erythema
3. Fibrosis
4. Mucositis
5. Myelosuppression

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) What is the medical term for a high lymphocyte count?

1. Lymphedema
2. Lymphocytopenia
3. Lymphocytosis
4. Lymphoid
5. Lymphopoiesis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) What is the medical term for abnormal changes in the growth and formation of bone?

1. Myelopoiesis
2. Osteoclasis
3. Osteodystrophy
4. Osteoplasty
5. Osteosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) What is the medical term for low levels of oxygen in the blood?

1. Hematemesis
2. Hemoptysis
3. Hemorrhage
4. Hypoxemia
5. Paroxysmal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) Hyperkalemia means high levels of which chemical element?

1. Calcium
2. Mercury
3. Phosphorus
4. Potassium
5. Sodium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) What is the medical term for no urine production?

1. Anuria
2. Diuresis
3. Micturition
4. Nocturia
5. Voiding

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) What is erythropoiesis?

1. A red blood cell transfusion
2. Decreased tissue demand for oxygen
3. Hypoxia of cells that produce erythropoietin
4. The destruction of red blood cells
5. The process of red blood cells production

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) What is diastole?

1. A heart rate above 120 beats per second
2. A heart rate below 60 beats per second
3. An irregular heart rate
4. When the heart muscle contracts
5. When the heart muscle relaxes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) What is systole?

1. A heart rate above 120 beats per second
2. A heart rate below 60 beats per second
3. An irregular heart rate
4. When the heart muscle contracts
5. When the heart muscle relaxes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) White blood cells are also known as:

1. erythrocytes
2. leukocytes
3. lipocytes
4. osteocytes
5. thrombocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) The normal range for total cholesterol levels is known as the:

1. coefficient of variation
2. reference range
3. specificity
4. standard deviation
5. standard range

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) What is the medical term for an abnormally low urine volume?

1. Aciduria
2. Azoturia
3. Oliguria
4. Polyuria
5. Pyuria

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) An elevated level of white blood cells in urine is called:

1. hematuria
2. nephritis
3. pyelonephritis
4. pyuria
5. uremia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) Drugs that block the release of a substance that causes allergic reactions are called:

1. anesthetics
2. anticoagulants
3. anticonvulsants
4. antidiabetics
5. antihistamines

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) A hospitalized patient has the following sign above their bed: What does the sign mean?

1. Do not intubate
2. Do not resuscitate
3. No blood draws allowed
4. No food or drink allowed
5. The patient is not allowed out of bed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Basic Biology, Anatomy and Physiology

3.1) What is the basic structural and functional unit of the human body?

1. DNA
2. The cell
3. The organ
4. The system
5. Tissue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) What is the major cation found in extracellular fluid?

1. Chloride
2. Magnesium
3. Potassium
4. Sodium
5. Zinc

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) The dermis is:

1. above the epidermis
2. also known as subcutaneous tissue
3. also known as the epithelial layer
4. the basal layer of the skin
5. the middle layer of the skin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Which system is a complex network of glands and organs that uses hormones to control and coordinate metabolism, growth, development, and mood?

1. Digestive
2. Endocrine
3. Lymphatic
4. Nervous
5. Reproductive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) Oxygen and nutrients pass from the blood to the tissues via the:

1. arteries
2. arterioles
3. capillaries
4. lymphatic vessels
5. veins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) What is the sequence of hemostasis?

1. Coagulation, platelet plug formation, vascular spasm
2. Coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation
3. Platelet plug formation, coagulation, vascular spasm
4. Vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation
5. Vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Night blindness is caused by a deficiency in which vitamin?

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B12
3. Vitamin B6
4. Vitamin C
5. Vitamin D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) Jaundice is caused by a buildup of ___________ in the blood.

1. bacteria
2. bilirubin
3. hemoglobin
4. potassium
5. uric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) Which blood cells defend the body against disease?

1. Erythrocytes
2. Hematocytes
3. Leukocytes
4. Osteocytes
5. Thrombocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) Which process involves coating pathogens with antibodies to increase their susceptibility to phagocytosis?

1. Agglutination
2. Antioperisis
3. Chemotaxis
4. Complement activation
5. Opsonization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Complement can be activated through three pathways: classical, lectin, and:

1. alternative
2. concurrent
3. contemporary
4. modern
5. tertiary

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) Which blood cell is typically the first to appear in the response to an infection?

1. Basophil
2. Eosinophil
3. Eosinophil
4. Erythrocyte
5. Neutrophil

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) Which cells produce histamine in a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?

1. Lymphocytes
2. Macrophages
3. Mast cells
4. Neutrophils
5. T cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) The larger of the two lower leg bones is called the:

1. condoyle
2. cranial
3. fibula
4. tibia
5. ulna

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) Which fibrous connective tissue connects muscle to bone?

1. Cartilage
2. Ligament
3. Muscle fibre
4. Nerve
5. Tendon

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) Which hormone is also known as epinephrine?

1. Adrenaline
2. Cortisol
3. Oxytocin
4. Testosterone
5. Vasopressin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) Which of these hormones is produced by the adrenal cortex?

1. Calcitonin
2. Cortisol
3. Epinephrine
4. Insulin
5. Norepinephrine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) Which gland produces growth hormone?

1. Adrenal
2. Endocrine
3. Pancreas
4. Parathyroid
5. Pituitary

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) Which hormone is antagonistic to insulin?

1. Calcitonin
2. FSH
3. Glucagon
4. Thyroxine
5. Vasopressin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) The thyroid gland is located next to the:

1. brain
2. kidneys
3. larynx
4. liver
5. spleen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) Which gland produces thyroid-stimulating hormone?

1. Adrenals
2. Parathyroids
3. Pituitary
4. Testes
5. Thyroid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) What is the functional unit of the kidney?

1. Alveoli
2. Glomerular tuft
3. Glomerulus
4. Loop of Henle
5. Nephron

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) In the kidneys, substances travel from the glomerulus into the Bowman capsule by which process?

1. Active transport
2. Diffusion
3. Evaporation
4. Filtration
5. Osmosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) What are the end products of protein digestion?

1. Amino acids
2. Enzymes
3. Fatty acids
4. Monosaccharides
5. Triglycerides

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) The end products of fat digestion are fatty acids and:

1. alkaloids
2. amino acids
3. glucose
4. glycerol
5. sebum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) After leaving the stomach, food next enters the:

1. esophagus
2. large intestine
3. liver
4. rectum
5. small intestine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) The small intestine consists of the duodenum, jejunum and:

1. anal canal
2. cecum
3. colon
4. ileum
5. rectum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) Nerve cells are also called:

1. axons
2. dendrites
3. glial cells
4. neuroglial cells
5. neurons

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) Which part of a neuron carries impulses away from the cell body?

1. Axon
2. Cell body
3. Dendrite
4. Myelin sheath
5. Schwann cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) The central nervous system includes the:

1. brain and spinal cord
2. heart
3. peripheral nerves
4. somatic nerves
5. spinal nerves

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) The impulse in a neuron moves:

1. from the Schwann cell to the myelin
2. from the axon to the dendrite
3. from the cell body to the myelin
4. from the dendrite to the axon
5. from the myelin to the Schwann cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) What are the smallest blood vessels in the body?

1. Arteries
2. Capillaries
3. Lymph nodes
4. Lymph vessels
5. Veins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) On which part of the body is the basilic vein?

1. Arm
2. Foot
3. Hand
4. Leg
5. Neck

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) Which is the largest artery in the body?

1. Aorta
2. Carotid artery
3. Iliac artery
4. Pulmonary artery
5. Superior vena cava

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) Refer to the image below: Which line is pointing to the left atrium?

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. e

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) From the left atrium, blood next flows into the:

1. aorta
2. left lung
3. left ventricle
4. right atrium
5. right ventricle

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) Which of these is a vein in the arm?

1. Femoral
2. Jugular
3. Median cubital
4. Portal
5. Radial

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) Which skin structure helps prevent water loss and inhibits bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?

1. Arrector pili
2. Hair follicles
3. Nerves
4. Oil glands
5. Sweat glands

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.39) In which organelle does ATP production occur?

1. Flagellum
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Mitochondrion
4. Nucleus
5. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.40) Which cellular component is involved in packaging enzymes?

1. Centrioles
2. Endoplasmic reticulum
3. Golgi apparatus
4. Mitochondria
5. Ribosomes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.41) What are the three major disaccharides?

1. Glucose, galactose, and fructose
2. Glucose, galactose, and lactose
3. Glucose, lactose, and sucrose
4. Lactose, fructose, and galactose
5. Sucrose, lactose, and maltose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.42) Which enzyme unwinds DNA?

1. Helicase
2. Hexonuclease
3. Ligase
4. Primase
5. Topoisomerase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.43) DNA polymerase can synthesize:

1. DNA in the 3' to 5' direction
2. DNA in the 5' to 3' direction
3. RNA in the 3' to 5' direction
4. RNA in the 5' to 3'direction
5. mRNA in the 3' to 5' direction

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.44) How many nucleotides are in a codon?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.45) In DNA, which base pairs with cytosine?

1. Cytosine
2. Guanine
3. Thymine
4. Uracil
5. Xanthine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.46) Phagocytes:

1. carry carbon dioxide around the body
2. carry oxygen around the body
3. form clots to stop bleeding
4. ingest pathogens
5. release antibodies against pathogens

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.47) Which component of blood carries oxygen?

1. Antigens
2. Granulocytes
3. Hemoglobin
4. Platelets
5. White blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.48) Which of these is a white blood cell that can engulf pathogens by phagocytosis?

1. Basophil
2. Erythrocyte
3. Monocyte
4. Neutrophil
5. Thrombocyte

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.49) Lymphocytes are blood cells that:

1. are involved in the body's immune response
2. contain hemoglobin
3. mature and proliferate in the bone marrow
4. mature into macrophages
5. mature into thrombocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.50) Which of these cells is a granulocyte?

1. Dendritic cell
2. Macrophage
3. Natural killer T cell
4. Natural killer cell
5. Neutrophil

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.51) The three types of granulocyte are neutrophils, eosinophils, and:

1. basophils
2. erythrocytes
3. lymphocytes
4. monocytes
5. thrombocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.52) Hematopoiesis occurs mainly in the:

1. blood
2. bone marrow
3. brain
4. liver
5. pancreas

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.53) A reticulocyte is:

1. a mature red blood cell
2. an immature erythrocyte
3. demonstrated using a Wright-Giemsa stain
4. found only in the bone marrow
5. part of the reticuloendothelial system

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.54) Antibody class is determined by the:

1. constant region of the heavy chain
2. constant region of the light chain
3. disulphide bonds
4. variable region of the heavy chain
5. variable region of the light chain

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.55) High levels of which lipoprotein are associated with a decreased risk of accelerated atherosclerosis?

1. Chylomicrons
2. HDL
3. Insulin
4. LDL
5. VLDL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.56) The simplest form of carbohydrate is called a:

1. free fatty acid
2. glycerol molecule
3. monosaccharide
4. nucleotide
5. protein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.57) Lactose is a disaccharide of which two monosaccharides?

1. Fructose and galactose
2. Glucose and fructose
3. Glucose and galactose
4. Glucose and glucose
5. Glucose and xylose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.58) Which part of the heart sets the heart rate?

1. AV node
2. Left atrium
3. Right atrium
4. Sinoatrial node
5. VA node

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.59) Which test can diagnose HIV in the early stages of infection, before antibodies are detectable?

1. Immunelectrophoresis
2. Nucleic acid test (NAT)
3. Ouchterlony double diffusion
4. Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
5. The Quellung test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.60) Which test detects antibodies attached to red blood cells?

1. Antibody screen
2. Direct antiglobulin test
3. Elution
4. Indirect antiglobulin test
5. Radioallergosorbent (RAST) test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Laboratory Mathematics and Quality Assurance

4.1) Why are gauze pads better than cotton balls for holding pressure on the puncture site after venipuncture?

1. Cotton balls can stick to the puncture site
2. Cotton balls contain latex which is dangerous for people with latex allergies
3. Cotton balls have a higher risk of causing a compression nerve injury
4. Gauze pads are more sterile
5. Gauze pads are significantly cheaper

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) A molar solution is:

1. 1 mL of solute in 1 litre of solution
2. 1 mL of solute in one mole of solution
3. one gram of solute in 1 mL of solution
4. one gram of solute in one mole of solution
5. one mole of solute in 1 litre of solution

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) What is the dilution factor 1/5 expressed as a dilution ratio?

1. 1:4
2. 1:5
3. 1:6
4. 5:1
5. 5:4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) A lab technician is making a solution by combining 3 parts of a solute with 7 parts of water. How many millilitres of the solute and water are needed to make 100 mL of the solution?

1. 7 mL of solute and 3 mL of water
2. 10 mL of solute and 70 mL of water
3. 30 mL of solute and 70 mL of water
4. 70 mL of solute and 30 mL of water
5. 300 mL of solute and 700 mL of water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) If a dilution ratio of 7:10 is used to make an acetic acid solution and the final volume of the solution is 950 mL, what is the volume of the solute?

1. 58 mL
2. 101 mL
3. 391 mL
4. 559 mL
5. 665 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) A lab technician adds 0.2 mL of a stock solution to 3.8 mL of diluent. What is the dilution factor?

1. 4
2. 5
3. 19
4. 20
5. 21

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) 0.5 mol of solute is dissolved in 250 cm³ of solution. What is the concentration in mol/dm³?

1. 0.002
2. 2
3. 12.5
4. 125
5. 500

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) What does the unit mol/kg represent?

1. Milli-molarity
2. Molality
3. Molar concentration
4. Molar mass
5. Molarity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) How many grams of sodium chloride are needed to make 200 mL of a 5% m/v sodium chloride solution?

1. 5 g
2. 10 g
3. 15 g
4. 20 g
5. 25 g

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) How do you calculate the amount of a solute in a solution?

1. Concentration / volume
2. Concentration × volume
3. Volume + concentration
4. Volume / concentration
5. Volume − concentration

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) A mg is a unit to describe:

1. length
2. mass
3. speed
4. time
5. volume

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.12) Which prefix means 10⁻⁶?

1. Centi
2. Kilo
3. Micro
4. Milli
5. Nano

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.13) What does the prefix 'kilo' mean?

1. 10
2. 100
3. 1,000
4. 10,000
5. 100,000

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.14) Which metric prefix represents 0.001?

1. Micro
2. Centi
3. Pico
4. Milli
5. Nano

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.15) What is 40°F in Celsius and rounded to the nearest whole number?

1. −19°C
2. 4°C
3. 21°C
4. 37°C
5. 52°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.16) What is 100°C in Fahrenheit?

1. 45°F
2. 78°F
3. 157°F
4. 212°F
5. 274°F

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.17) Round 2.08691 to three decimal places.

1. 2.08
2. 2.086
3. 2.087
4. 2.089
5. 2.09

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.18) What is 89.9583 rounded to three significant figures?

1. 89.8
2. 89.9
3. 89.958
4. 90.0
5. 91.0

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.19) What is 1 dm³ in cm³?

1. 0.001 cm³
2. 0.01 cm³
3. 0.1 cm³
4. 10 cm³
5. 1,000 cm³

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.20) What is 0.05 mL in microlitres?

1. 0.00005 μL
2. 0.0005 μL
3. 0.005 μL
4. 5 μL
5. 50 μL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.21) The chart below shows a patient's blood carbon dioxide levels over one week. What type of trend does the chart demonstrate?

1. Exponential
2. Linear
3. Logarithmic
4. Polynomial
5. Power

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.22) For data distributed normally, how many values are within two standard deviations from the mean?

1. 50%
2. 68%
3. 83%
4. 95%
5. 99.7%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.23) The following data were calculated on a series of 100 determinations of a control.

Mean	5.8
Median	6.0
Mode	5.7
Range	1.5–20.2
Standard deviation	0.25

If confidence limits are set at ±2 standard deviations, what are the allowable limits for the control?

1. 5.30–6.30
2. 5.35–6.25
3. 5.50–5.90
4. 5.60–5.90
5. 5.65–5.95

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.24) A test has a mean of 72 mmol/L and a standard deviation of 3 mmol/L. If all control values must fall within 3 standard deviations of the mean, which of the following values is outside the acceptable range?

1. 62 mmol/L
2. 71 mmol/L
3. 78 mmol/L
4. 80 mmol/L
5. 81 mmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.25) A hospital wants to set a new reference range for fasting blood glucose. It measures the fasting blood glucose levels of 451 healthy patients. The mean is 4.7 mmol/L and the standard deviation is 0.4 mmol/L. Calculate a reference range that covers 95% of the patients.

1. 0.4–4.7 mmol/L
2. 3.7–5.7 mmol/L
3. 3.9–5.5 mmol/L
4. 4.3–5.1 mmol/L
5. 4.3–5.7 mmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.26) Which formula calculates the coefficient of variation?

1. (Mean / standard deviation) × 100
2. (Mean × 100) / standard deviation
3. (Standard deviation × 100) / standard error
4. (Standard deviation) / mean × 100
5. (Variance × 100) / mean

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.27) Automated white blood cell counts were performed on 29 blood samples. The mean value was 8.0 cells/nL and the standard deviation was 1.2 cells/nL. What is the coefficient of variation?

1. 15%
2. 30%
3. 45%
4. 60%
5. 75%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.28) What is the mean of the values 2, 2, 5, 7, and 14?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. 6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.29) The middle value in a sorted data set is called the:

1. average
2. coefficient of variation
3. mean
4. median
5. mode

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.30) If you add up all the values in a set and then divide the total by the number of values, you get the:

1. coefficient of variation
2. mean
3. median
4. mode
5. standard deviation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.31) Tube A contains 24 mL of blood. Tube B contains 20 mL of blood. This means tube A contains ____% more blood than tube B.

1. 4
2. 16
3. 20
4. 25
5. 32

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.32) A lab technician requires 400 mL of a 3% solution but has only a 5% solution available. How would the lab technician prepare the 3% solution?

1. Mix 240 mL of the 5% solution with 160 mL of diluent
2. Mix 300 mL of the 5% solution with 100 mL of diluent
3. Mix 360 mL of the 5% solution with 40 mL of diluent
4. Mix 380 mL of the 5% solution with 20 mL of diluent
5. Mix 388 mL of the 5% solution with 12 mL of diluent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.33) How many millilitres of an 80% acetic acid solution is needed to make 2 litres of a 10% acetic acid solution?

1. 20
2. 50
3. 100
4. 250
5. 500

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.34) How would you prepare 400 mL of a 1% v/v acetic acid solution?

1. 1 mL of glacial acetic acid in 399 mL of water
2. 2 mL of glacial acetic acid in 398 mL of water
3. 3 mL of glacial acetic acid in 397 mL of water
4. 4 mL of glacial acetic acid in 396 mL of water
5. 40 mL of glacial acetic acid in 400 mL of water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.35) What does 3% v/w mean?

1. 3 grams of solute dissolved in 100 grams of solution
2. 3 grams of solute dissolved in 100 mL of solvent
3. 3 grams of solution dissolved in 97 mL of solution
4. 3 mL of solute dissolved in 100 grams of solution
5. 3 mL of solute dissolved in 100 mL of solvent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.36) Calculate the %m/m of a solution that has 30 grams of solute and 90 grams of solvent.

1. 8.3%
2. 9.1%
3. 11%
4. 25%
5. 31%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.37) Which of these expresses solution concentration for a solid solute dissolved in a liquid solvent?

1. %(m/m)
2. %(m/v)
3. %(v/m)
4. %(v/v)
5. %(w/m)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.38) What is the formula for calculating a percent w/w solution?

1. (mass of solute / mass of solution) × 100
2. (mass of solute / volume of solution) × 100
3. (mass of solution / mass of solute) × 100
4. (mass of solution / volume of solute) × 100
5. (volume of solution / volume of solute) × 100

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.39) Which grade of chemical is the highest purity?

1. Commercial
2. Laboratory
3. Purified
4. Reagent
5. Technical

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.40) Which of these is a post-analytical error?

1. A hemolyzed specimen
2. A test performed on the wrong patient
3. An empty collection tube
4. Incorrect information on the test request
5. Results reported in the wrong units

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.41) Which ISO standard specifies requirements for quality and competence in medical laboratories?

1. ISO 15106
2. ISO 15189
3. ISO 15503
4. ISO 15513
5. ISO 15520

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.42) Which of the following is an example of a quality assurance indicator?

1. C-reactive protein test
2. Emergency procedures
3. Keep thorough records of exposure incidents
4. Laboratory staff must work under a fume hood when dealing with toxic chemicals
5. Laboratory turnaround time

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.43) Precision indicates the:

1. closeness of a result to the first standard deviation
2. closeness of a result to the median value
3. closeness of a result to the mode
4. closeness of a result to the true value
5. repeatability or reproducibility of a procedure

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.44) A new method for diagnosing fibromyalgia is trialled on 1,000 patients. The method detects 125 true positives, 25 false positives, 800 true negatives and 50 false negatives. Calculate the diagnostic specificity of the test.

1. 91.9%
2. 97.0%
3. 98.2%
4. 98.9%
5. 99.3%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.45) A test correctly identifies 50% of sick people as sick and 100% of healthy people as healthy. The test shows:

1. bias
2. correlation
3. deviation
4. sensitivity
5. specificity

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Section 5: Specimen Procurement, Processing and Data Collection

5.1) When drawing blood from a frightened child, which of these is the right thing to do?

1. Bribe the child with money or candy
2. Explain the procedure to the child in simple terms
3. Say nothing to the child and just perform the procedure
4. Tell the child that the needle won't hurt
5. Tell the child to be brave

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) When drawing blood from an obese patient, which location should be the first place you look for a vein?

1. The antecubital fossa
2. The back of the hand
3. The back of the knee
4. The feet
5. The neck

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) A patient has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in his left arm and an IV in his right arm. From where should you draw a blood sample?

1. Above the AV fistula
2. Above the IV
3. Below the AV fistula
4. Below the IV
5. From the IV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) Tourniquets should be:

1. applied very tightly to the arm
2. left on the arm for at least three minutes
3. removed after the needle is withdrawn
4. tight enough to slow arterial flow
5. tight enough to slow venous flow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) What is the most common antiseptic used in venipuncture?

1. 70% isopropyl alcohol
2. Betadine
3. Bleach
4. EMLA
5. Iodine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) When a blood pressure cuff is used for a venipuncture instead of a tourniquet, the pressure must be:

1. between the patient's diastolic and systolic blood pressure
2. equal to the patient's systolic blood pressure
3. just above the patient's diastolic blood pressure
4. just above the patient's systolic blood pressure
5. just below the patient's diastolic blood pressure

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) What can happen if a phlebotomist releases the tourniquet after removing the needle from the arm?

1. Angina
2. Bleeding
3. Cyanosis
4. Edema
5. Paresthesia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) What can happen if a phlebotomist uses an angle of 35 degrees when performing venipuncture?

1. Nothing will happen as this is the correct angle
2. The needle may go completely through the vein
3. The needle may miss the vein completely
4. The needle will enter above the vein
5. The sample may be rejected due to hemolysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.9) What should you do if a patient faints during a venipuncture?

1. Continue the procedure until all blood is collected
2. Leave the needle in the vein and call the physician
3. Remove the needle and attend to the patient
4. Start artificial respiration immediately
5. Yell loudly at the patient to keep him conscious

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.10) In venipuncture, which of these actions may cause a hematoma?

1. Applying pressure to the puncture site after removing the needle
2. Asking the patient to form a fist so the veins are more prominent
3. Drawing blood from an arm that has an IV tube
4. Inserting the needle through the vein and puncturing the opposite wall
5. Removing the tourniquet before the needle is removed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.11) Which of these is a sign that an artery has been punctured instead of a vein during phlebotomy?

1. The blood is dark blue
2. The blood is dark yellow
3. The blood spurts into the tube
4. The patient feels intense pain
5. The patient has trouble breathing

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.12) A phlebotomist is performing a venipuncture. The needle is in place but no blood is entering the tube. What is the first thing the phlebotomist should do?

1. Change to pediatric tubes
2. Discontinue the draw and cancel the requisition
3. Push the needle in more deeply
4. Switch to a winged blood collection set
5. Try adjusting the needle slightly

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.13) Which vacutainer tube is for collecting a blood sample for a Factor IX assay?

1. Grey
2. Lavender
3. Light blue
4. Red
5. SST

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.14) A physician requests a vitamin A test and a complete blood count. Which vacutainer tubes should the phlebotomist use to collect the blood samples for these tests?

1. Gold and lavender
2. Gold and light blue
3. Grey and gold
4. Grey and lavender
5. Grey and light blue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.15) What are cross-match tubes used for?

1. Blood alcohol testing
2. Blood compatibility testing
3. Coagulation studies
4. Glucose tests
5. Trace element studies

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.16) What anticoagulant is in a green top vacutainer?

1. Citrate
2. EDTA
3. Fluoride
4. Heparin
5. Oxalate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.17) A phlebotomist needs to collect blood samples from a patient for a blood glucose test and a hemoglobin test. What colour tubes should the phlebotomist use?

1. Grey and green
2. Grey and lavender
3. Grey and red
4. Red and green
5. Red and lavender

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.18) Grey-top vacutainers contain which anticoagulant?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Potassium oxalate
4. SPS
5. Sodium polyanethole sulfonate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.19) What additive do light blue top tubes contain?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Potassium oxalate
4. Sodium citrate
5. Sodium fluoride

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.20) If a blood sample is taken in an EDTA tube, which of these test results would be affected?

1. Calcium
2. Cholesterol
3. Glucose
4. TSH
5. Urea

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.21) What is the glycolytic inhibitor in grey-top tubes?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Silicon
4. Sodium citrate
5. Sodium fluoride

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.22) Which vacutainer tube is used for trace metal analysis?

1. Dark blue
2. Green
3. Grey
4. Orange
5. Red

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.23) Which colour vacutainer tube contains sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)?

1. Gold
2. Green
3. Pink
4. Purple
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.24) Some royal blue top tubes contain _____________ as an anticoagulant.

1. EDTA
2. lithium heparin
3. potassium oxalate
4. sodium citrate
5. sodium heparin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.25) Which vacutainer tube contains sodium citrate?

1. Black
2. Green
3. Grey
4. Light blue
5. Pink

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.26) Which of these vacutainer tubes does NOT contain additives?

1. Grey
2. Pink
3. Red (glass)
4. Red (plastic)
5. SST

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.27) Sodium fluoride preserves:

1. cellulite
2. cellulose
3. glucose
4. glycerin
5. protein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.28) What vacutainer tube is used for coagulation studies?

1. Black
2. Green
3. Grey
4. Light blue
5. White

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.29) What vacutainer tube is used for reticulocyte counts?

1. Green
2. Grey
3. Lavender
4. Light blue
5. Red

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.30) A phlebotomist needs to draw blood into a grey-top tube, a gold-top tube and a lavender-top tube. What is the correct order to fill the tubes?

1. Gold, grey, lavender
2. Gold, lavender, grey
3. Grey, gold, lavender
4. Grey, lavender, gold
5. Lavender, gold, grey

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.31) Light blue top tubes are used for what tests?

1. Chemistry
2. Coagulation
3. Hematology
4. Immunology
5. Serology

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.32) What additive prevents glycolysis in blood samples?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Potassium oxalate
4. Sodium citrate
5. Sodium fluoride

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.33) A phlebotomist is performing venipuncture on a difficult vein using a butterfly. The phlebotomist has to collect an SST and a light blue-topped tube. How should the phlebotomist proceed?

1. Collect the SST first then the light blue top tube
2. Collect the light blue top tube first then the SST
3. Draw a clear tube first, then collect the SST, then collect the light blue top tube
4. Draw a clear tube first, then collect the light blue top tube, then collect the SST
5. Draw half of the SST first, then collect the light blue top tube, then finish the SST

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.34) Which of these additives provides a physical barrier to prevent glycolysis?

1. EDTA
2. Silica
3. Sodium citrate
4. Sodium fluoride
5. Thixotropic gel

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.35) Silica in vacutainer tubes:

1. accelerates clotting
2. destroys microorganisms
3. inhibits thrombin
4. preserves pH
5. prevents glycolysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.36) Yellow-topped tubes contain which additive?

1. Acid citrate dextrose
2. Potassium sorbate
3. Sodium benzoate
4. Sodium nitrite
5. Sulphur dioxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.37) EDTA prevents blood clots by binding:

1. calcium
2. chloride
3. plasma
4. platelets
5. red blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.38) What causes evacuated tubes to fill with blood automatically?

1. Arterial blood pressure
2. Gravity
3. Pressure from the tourniquet
4. Thermal insulation
5. Vacuum in the tube

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.39) Which of these is needed to collect blood by syringe?

1. Microhematocrit tube
2. Multisample needle
3. Transfer device
4. Tube holder
5. Winged infusion set

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.40) Which of these needles has the largest diameter?

1. 18-gauge
2. 19-gauge
3. 20-gauge
4. 21-gauge
5. 22-gauge

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.41) The gauge size of a needle indicates the diameter of the needle's:

1. bevel
2. flange
3. hub
4. lumen
5. shaft

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.42) Which part of a needle enters the skin first?

1. Bevel
2. Flange
3. Hub
4. Lumen
5. Shaft

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.43) Multisample needles are typically available in which gauges?

1. 18–20
2. 20–22
3. 22–24
4. 24–26
5. 26–28

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.44) When should you label a blood collection tube?

1. As soon as you receive the test order
2. Just before the patient arrives
3. Before you collect the specimen
4. After you collect the specimen
5. After the patient has left

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.45) If a patient is having blood drawn for a prothrombin time test, you might expect:

1. the patient to be fasting
2. the patient to bleed for a long time
3. the serum to be very lipemic
4. to have difficulty filling the tube
5. to have to mix the tube more

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.46) Immediately after blood collection, how many times must tubes be inverted to ensure proper mixing of blood and additives?

1. 1 or 2
2. 8 to 10
3. 10 to 15
4. 15 to 20
5. 20 to 30

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.47) Serum and plasma both contain:

1. clotting factors
2. plasma proteins
3. platelets
4. red blood cells
5. white blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.48) Blood specimens for which test are placed in circles on special filter paper?

1. Bilirubin
2. Complete blood counts
3. Malaria
4. Phenylketonuria
5. The isolation of fungi and mycobacteria

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.49) When a blood specimen in a grey-top tube is centrifuged, what does it separate into?

1. Plasma, buffy coat and red blood cells
2. Plasma, buffy coat and white blood cells
3. Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets
4. Serum, buffy coat and red blood cells
5. Serum, buffy coat and white blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.50) Which of the following can cause hemolysis in a blood sample?

1. Collecting the sample in a serum separator tube
2. Shaking the sample vigorously
3. Using a large needle
4. Withdrawing the needle before removing the tourniquet

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.51) Which medication might cause a patient to bleed excessively from a venipuncture site?

1. A herbal medicine
2. An anticoagulant
3. Birth control pills
4. Insulin
5. Medicine for high cholesterol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.52) Which part of an infant's foot is the safest area to perform a capillary puncture?

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.53) What is "the order of draw"?

1. An order given by a superior to draw blood from a patient
2. The correct sequence of steps for taking blood by venipuncture
3. The order blood tubes are filled
4. The order blood vials are stored
5. The order you select patients to draw blood from

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.54) What is the best time to collect a sputum specimen?

1. An hour before the patient has dinner
2. In the middle of the day
3. Just after the patient wakes up
4. Just before the patient goes to bed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.55) The middle finger and ___________ are used for finger puncture.

1. index finger
2. little finger
3. ring finger
4. thumb

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.56) Which of these tests is the most likely to require chain-of-custody documentation?

1. Blood culture
2. Cross-match
3. Drug screen
4. TDM
5. Triglycerides test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.57) PKU tests are performed routinely on:

1. HIV patients
2. cancer patients
3. elderly patients
4. new employees
5. newborn infants

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.58) Which of these is an acceptable preservative for the phosphorus 24-hour urine test?

1. Chlorhexidine
2. Hydrochloric acid
3. Sodium bicarbonate
4. Sodium carbonate
5. Sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.59) It is 7:15 pm and you must draw a blood culture from a patient who is receiving a course of antibiotics. His next doses of antibiotics are due at 10 pm and 6 am. When is the best time to draw the blood culture?

1. At 2 am
2. At midnight
3. Immediately
4. Just after his next dose
5. Just before his next dose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.60) How many bottles are drawn for a blood culture set?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.61) Which of these actions is NOT performed when performing quality control of a glucometer?

1. Apply a drop of blood to the test strip
2. Check the test strips are in date
3. Compare the result displayed by the glucometer with the expected value
4. Insert a test strip into the glucometer
5. Remove the test strip from the glucometer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.62) Semen samples must be tested within how many hours after collection?

1. 1 hour
2. 6 hours
3. 12 hours
4. 24 hours

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.63) Blood samples for ammonia tests are transported on ice to prevent the:

1. breakdown of ammonia
2. conversion of ammonia to nitrite
3. generation of ammonia
4. growth of pathogenic microorganisms

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.64) At what temperature are cryofibrinogen specimens transported?

1. −20°C or lower
2. 4–6°C
3. 21°C
4. 37°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.65) Which of these specimens needs to be kept at 35–37°C?

1. Blood culture
2. Feces
3. Sputum
4. Throat swab
5. Urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.66) Hemolysis of a blood specimen would NOT affect which test result?

1. Haptoglobin
2. Iron
3. MCHC
4. Red blood cell count
5. Total hemoglobin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.67) Category B infectious substances must be shipped with a label that says:

1. UN2814 – Infectious Substance, Category B, Affecting Humans
2. UN3291 – Clinical Waste, Category B
3. UN3373 – Biological Substance, Category B
4. UN3549 – Communicable Disease, Category B, Affecting Humans
5. UN3549 – Medical Waste, Category B, Affecting Humans

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.68) Which of these specimens is sterile in healthy people?

1. Blood
2. Feces
3. Gastrointestinal tract specimens
4. Sputum
5. Urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.69) What colour is a positive result on the fecal occult blood test?

1. Black
2. Blue
3. Green
4. Red
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.70) The glycosylated hemoglobin test is used to diagnose which disease?

1. Acidosis
2. Diabetes
3. Hemoglobin C disease
4. Inflammation
5. Renal disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 6: Laboratory Safety

6.1) Insidious hazards are hazards that:

1. are easily overlooked
2. are unpreventable
3. happen quickly
4. involve chemicals
5. involve fumes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) What is the word for an inanimate object that can transmit infectious agents from one individual to another?

1. Adenovirus
2. Bacteria
3. Fomite
4. Germ
5. Parasite

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) A toxic chemical that affects the body by being absorbed into the blood is called a blood:

1. agent
2. antagonist
3. antibody
4. attacker
5. panel

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) How should you pick up an item of hot glassware?

1. By pouring cold water on it to cool it down
2. Using latex gloves
3. With a rag or paper towels
4. With tongs
5. With your hands

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) Which of these actions helps prevent the release of aerosols in the laboratory?

1. Filling centrifuge tubes to the brim
2. Forcibly expelling hazardous materials from pipettes
3. Opening aerosol containment devices immediately after removing them from the centrifuge
4. Routinely inspecting the centrifuge to ensure there is no leakage
5. Using tubes with cracks in them

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) Used needles should be discarded in:

1. a biohazard autoclave bag
2. a biohazard sharps container
3. a glass disposal bucket
4. a glass recycling bin
5. the regular garbage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) Which of these is an example of passive fire protection?

1. Auto-closing ventilation in fume cupboards
2. Fire alarms
3. Fire extinguishers
4. Fire-resistant walls
5. Sprinklers

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.8) What is the upper flammability limit?

1. The amount of fuel that will burn before the fuel burns itself out
2. The highest concentration of a chemical that can catch fire
3. The highest temperature at which a chemical can be stored safely
4. The highest temperature at which a chemical fire will ignite
5. The lowest temperature at which a chemical will ignite

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.9) Refer to the image below: Another name for this type of fire extinguisher is a _________ fire extinguisher.

1. ABC
2. AFFF foam
3. carbon dioxide
4. class F
5. wet powder

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.10) At low concentrations, what does hydrogen sulfide smell like?

1. Burnt sugar
2. Cherries
3. Rotten eggs
4. Rotting meat
5. Strong cheese

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.11) What is the term for chemicals that cause birth defects in embryos and fetuses?

1. Carcinogens
2. Corrosives
3. Immunogens
4. Phenyls
5. Teratogens

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.12) A lab assistant accidentally drinks a beaker of Zenker's fluid. He says he feels a burning sensation in his mouth and throat. The lab manager phones 911. While waiting for the ambulance to arrive, which of these other first-aid measures should be taken?

1. Ask the lab assistant to remove his contact lenses
2. Give the lab assistant water to drink
3. Place the lab assistant in the recovery position
4. Take the lab assistant outside for fresh air
5. Tell the lab assistant to rinse his eyes with water for several minutes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.13) You have a solution of sulfuric acid which you need to dilute. You should:

1. neutralize the acid with a base and then add the acid to the water
2. neutralize the acid with a base and then add the water to the acid
3. pour the acid and water together simultaneously
4. slowly add the acid to the water while stirring
5. slowly add the water to the acid while stirring

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.14) Mixing bleach with acid produces water, salt and:

1. arsenic trioxide
2. chlorine gas
3. hydrogen cyanide
4. phosgene
5. sodium cyanide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.15) What is the correct order of removal of PPE?

1. Gloves, gown, goggles, mask
2. Gown, goggles, gloves, mask
3. Gown, mask, gloves, goggles
4. Mask, gloves, goggles, gown
5. Mask, gown, gloves, goggles

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.16) In which of these situations should safety goggles be worn?

1. During blood collections
2. During reagent and specimen preparation
3. When talking to members of the public
4. While inspecting reagent supplies
5. While transporting sealed waste containers

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.17) Which of these would offer protection against non-ionizing radiation?

1. Biosafety cabinet
2. Fire extinguisher
3. Fume hood
4. Goggles
5. Laboratory-safe refrigerator

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.18) The three basic protective measures against radiation are time, distance, and:

1. exposure
2. lead
3. radiation suit
4. shielding
5. speed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.19) You find a colleague unconscious and not breathing. There is no one around to help. What is the first thing you should do?

1. Call 911
2. Find a defibrillator
3. Give chest compressions
4. Give mouth-to-mouth breaths
5. Move your colleague into the recovery position

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.20) What should you do if someone is having a seizure?

1. Give chest compressions
2. Give mouth-to-mouth breaths
3. Hold them down
4. Put something soft under their head
5. Put something wooden in their mouth

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.21) People at risk of a severe allergic reaction often carry devices that inject which medication?

1. Acetaminophen
2. Adrenaline
3. Fluticasone
4. Insulin
5. Morphine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.22) When should you NEVER administer care to a casualty?

1. When the person has stopped breathing
2. When the person is an organ donor
3. When the person is conscious and refuses care
4. When the person is having a seizure
5. When the person is unconscious

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.23) For which of these people would you use the recovery position?

1. Someone breathing abnormally
2. Someone conscious and breathing normally
3. Someone unconscious and not breathing
4. Someone unconscious but breathing normally
5. Someone undergoing cardiac arrest

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.24) If you suspect someone has suffered a stroke, what is the first thing you should do?

1. Apply pressure to the affected area
2. Ask the person to lie down
3. Contact emergency services
4. Loosen items of tight clothing
5. Perform CPR

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.25) You find a person lying on the floor. You suspect they have received an electric shock. What is the first thing you must do before treating them?

1. Check if the person is breathing
2. Check if the person is still in contact with the electrical current
3. Check the person's pulse
4. Make a note in the incident logbook
5. Wrap the person in a thermal blanket

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.26) In CPR, how many chest compressions should be given per second?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.27) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the chain of survival?

1. Call 911, defibrillation, start CPR
2. Call 911, start CPR, defibrillation
3. Defibrillation, call 911, start CPR
4. Defibrillation, start CPR, call 911
5. Start CPR, call 911, defibrillation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.28) A lab technologist has spilled concentrated hydrochloric acid onto his clothing and skin, affecting a large portion of his body. After he has removed his clothing, the next thing he should do is:

1. apply a burn ointment to his skin
2. apply bandages
3. pour baking soda onto his skin
4. seek emergency medical assistance
5. use the emergency safety shower

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.29) A colleague has cut his lower arm and is bleeding. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate response?

1. Apply firm pressure to the wound using sterile gauze
2. Clean and dress the wound once the bleeding has stopped
3. Place a tourniquet over the elbow joint
4. Tell your colleague to keep his arm raised
5. Wear gloves

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.30) The Heimlich maneuver is used for which emergency?

1. Choking
2. Heart attack
3. Heat stroke
4. Poisoning
5. Syncope

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.31) The chain of survival is a four-step process that can help save the lives of victims of:

1. cardiac arrest
2. diabetic coma
3. drug overdose
4. massive blood loss
5. stroke

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.32) What is the first thing action to take if a patient or colleague goes into cardiac arrest?

1. Assess the airway
2. Check the pulse
3. Get help and call 911
4. Perform chest compressions
5. Put the person into the supine position

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.33) What is the single most important method of preventing infection?

1. Proper handwashing
2. Sneezing into your arm
3. Thorough cleaning of equipment
4. Wearing a lab coat
5. Wearing protective goggles

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.34) Universal precautions apply to which type of hazard?

1. Bloodborne pathogens
2. Dangerous chemicals
3. Environmental hazards
4. Fire
5. Radiation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.35) What is post-exposure prophylaxis?

1. A delayed allergic reaction to an allergen
2. An auto-immune disease
3. The inability to breathe after exposure to an allergen
4. The protocol for cleaning a laboratory after the release of a dangerous pathogen
5. Treatment after exposure to a pathogen to prevent infection from occurring

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.36) Which of these is an OPIM (other potentially infectious material)?

1. Feces
2. Saliva
3. Semen
4. Urine
5. Vomit

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.37) The six links in the chain of infection are infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and:

1. behaviour
2. hospital-acquired infection
3. reagent
4. susceptible host
5. vaccination

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.38) Bottles of organic peroxides require which two pictograms?

1. Corrosion and exclamation mark
2. Flame and exploding bomb
3. Flame and flame over a circle
4. Health hazard and exclamation mark
5. Health hazard and gas cylinder

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.39) Gases under pressure require a pictogram of:

1. a flame
2. a flame over a circle
3. a gas cylinder
4. an exploding bomb
5. an exploding test tube

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.40) Which colour on the NFPA hazard diamond signals the degree of hazards to health?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Red
4. White
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.41) What is the NFPA colour code for flammable hazards?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Red
4. White
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.42) If the word 'Forbidden' is written in column 3 of a Hazardous Materials Table, it means the material should not be:

1. discarded
2. ingested
3. picked up
4. transported
5. used

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.43) Which of these substances would be the best solution to clean up a large blood spill?

1. 1:10 dilution of bleach
2. 70% isopropyl alcohol
3. Antibacterial soap and water
4. Povidone-iodine
5. Soapy water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.44) Which cleaning product releases a toxic gas when mixed with urine?

1. Chlorine bleach
2. Hydrogen peroxide
3. Isopropyl alcohol
4. Povidone-iodine
5. Sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.45) Ethanol can NOT kill:

1. E. coli
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3. Salmonella typhosa
4. fungi
5. spores

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.46) The cabinet with the highest personal, environmental, and specimen protection is the:

1. class A biological safety cabinet
2. class I biological safety cabinet
3. class II biological safety cabinet
4. class III biological safety cabinet
5. fume hood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.47) What virus causes hepatitis C?

1. HAV
2. HBC
3. HCC
4. HCV
5. HPC

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.48) Class 7 materials in the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act are:

1. corrosive
2. explosive
3. flammable or combustible
4. poisonous or infectious
5. radioactive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.49) Specimens containing the smallpox virus must be transported as:

1. Category A
2. Category B
3. contagious specimen
4. infectious specimen
5. non-contagious specimen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.50) In Type P650 packaging, the primary and secondary receptacles must be:

1. dustproof
2. heatproof
3. leakproof
4. sunproof

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.51) In which class of dangerous goods are miscellaneous dangerous goods placed?

1. 5
2. 6
3. 7
4. 8
5. 9

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.52) Which class of dangerous goods are flammable solids?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.53) What are the three GHS hazard classes?

1. Biological, chemical, and radiation
2. Electrical, fire, and chemical
3. Health, physical, and environmental
4. Physical, psychosocial, and psychological
5. Slips, trips, and falls

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.54) According to the GHS Hazard Classification, which of these is a type of physical hazard?

1. Carcinogenicity
2. Eye effects
3. Flammable gases
4. Skin corrosion
5. Skin irritation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.55) According to the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), which type of sign should be used to indicate a potentially hazardous situation that could result in minor or moderate injury?

1. Caution
2. Danger
3. Notice
4. Risk
5. Warning

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.56) What worldwide system gives recommendations on how to label hazardous chemicals?

1. GHS
2. HCS
3. HPR
4. HazCom
5. WHMIS

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.57) Who or what does protective isolation protect?

1. A patient
2. Lab equipment
3. Laboratory samples
4. Medical personnel
5. The general public

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 7: Laboratory Equipment

7.1) Which of the following plastics is autoclavable?

1. High density polyethylene
2. Low density polyethylene
3. Polypropylene
4. Polystyrene
5. Polyurethane

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) Which item of lab equipment sterilizes using pressurized steam?

1. Alcohol
2. Autoclave
3. Dry heat sterilizer
4. Fume hood
5. Oven

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) What does autoclave tape show?

1. If organisms have been killed
2. If sterilization has taken place
3. If the autoclave is nearing the end of its warranty
4. If the autoclave reached a specific temperature
5. If there are any spores remaining

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) Autoclaving uses what method of sterilization?

1. Chemical
2. Dry heat
3. Moist heat
4. Physical
5. Radiation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) Which type of glass is autoclavable?

1. Annealed
2. Borosilicate
3. Float
4. Lead
5. Soda-lime

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) Which of these can NOT be autoclaved?

1. Gloves
2. Microbial growth media
3. Organic solvents
4. Stainless steel
5. Tissue culture flasks

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) A lab assistant is wrapping an instrument for autoclaving but discovers the wrapper has a hole. What should the lab assistant do?

1. Get a new wrapper
2. Ignore the hole and continue wrapping the instrument
3. Repair the hole with adhesive tape
4. Throw both the instrument and the wrapper away
5. Throw the instrument away

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.8) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), for how long are sterilized articles wrapped in double-thickness muslin considered sterile?

1. 15 days
2. 30 days
3. 45 days
4. 60 days
5. 90 days

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.9) Which of these biomarkers can urine refractometers measure?

1. The presence of nitrates in urine
2. Urine colour
3. Urine hemoglobin concentration
4. Urine osmolality
5. Urine specific gravity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.10) Which item of lab equipment uses high-speed rotation in a closed chamber?

1. Autoclave
2. Centrifuge
3. Evaporator
4. Hot plate
5. Shaker

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.11) Which of these is a container used for heating substances over a Bunsen burner?

1. Beaker
2. Crucible
3. Erlenmeyer flask
4. Funnel
5. Graduated cylinder

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.12) Which of the following solutions is used to calibrate pH meters?

1. Buffer solution
2. Deionized water
3. Distilled water
4. Sodium chloride solution
5. Sodium hydroxide solution

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.13) Type 1 glass is:

1. aluminosilicate
2. borosilicate
3. fused silica
4. lead
5. soda-lime

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.14) Automated blood cell counters work on which principle?

1. Boyle
2. Campbell
3. Coulter
4. Ferguson
5. McKenzie

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.15) Which water purification destroys microorganisms but does not filter out unwanted minerals and ions?

1. Double distillation
2. Ion exchange column
3. Reverse osmosis
4. Ultrafiltration
5. Ultraviolet radiation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.16) Which part of a microscope adjusts the light intensity?

1. Iris diaphragm
2. Numerical aperture
3. Objective lens
4. Ocular lens
5. Stage clip

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.17) The ___________ is a measure of a microscope's ability to gather light and resolve fine specimen detail.

1. contrast
2. empty magnification
3. lens power
4. numerical aperture
5. objective

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.18) What does a condenser lens on a microscope do?

1. Control the aperture of light
2. Focus the light on the specimen
3. Increase the magnification
4. Provide an initial magnification of 10x
5. Supports the tube and connects the tube to the base

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.19) Microscopes usually have which objective lenses?

1. 10x, 40x, and 100x
2. 10x, 50x, and 100x
3. 20x, 40x, and 80x
4. 20x, 50x, and 80x
5. 20x, 50x, and 100x

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.20) Which pipette is the most accurate?

1. Bulb
2. Graduated
3. Pasteur
4. Vacuum-assisted
5. Volumetric

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.21) Which of these types of glass has the strongest resistance to heat?

1. Borosilicate
2. Crystal
3. Lead
4. Optical
5. Soda-lime

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.22) Why does volumetric glassware have the letters TC inscribed on it?

1. Because it can hold toxic chemicals
2. Because it contains a fixed volume
3. Because it delivers a fixed volume
4. Because it is Type C glassware
5. Because it is good at controlling temperatures

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.23) Which kind of centrifuge is used to spin capillary tubes?

1. Angle head
2. Cytospin
3. Gas
4. Microhematocrit
5. Refrigerated

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.24) Which kind of centrifuge has good cellular morphology preservation?

1. Angle head
2. Cytocentrifuge
3. Microhematocrit
4. Refrigerated
5. Ultracentrifuge

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.25) Cytocentrifuges are also known as:

1. basic centrifuges
2. cell centrifuges
3. cytospins
4. low-angle centrifuges
5. ultracentrifuges

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.26) Which type of centrifuge is optimized for spinning a rotor at very high speeds and is capable of generating acceleration as high as 1,000,000 g?

1. Clinical centrifuge
2. Cytocentrifuge
3. High-speed centrifuge
4. Microcentrifuge
5. Ultracentrifuge

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.27) What is the most common cause of excessive centrifuge vibration?

1. Electrical interference
2. Excessive temperature
3. Unbalanced tubes
4. Uneven bench surfaces
5. Variable voltage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 8: Histology and Cytology

8.1) What is the term for formaldehyde dissolved in water?

1. Acetone
2. Cytospray
3. Eosin
4. Ethyl acetate
5. Formalin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.2) In histology, which of these chemicals is used for fixation?

1. Chloroform
2. Formalin
3. Increasing strengths of alcohol
4. Paraplast
5. Xylene

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.3) Which of these actions will prevent the formation of acid formaldehyde hematin in formaldehyde solutions?

1. Adding drops of cytochrome b5 reductase
2. Keeping the solutions refrigerated
3. Placing the solutions in 70% alcohol overnight
4. Using buffered formalin
5. Washing excess fixative overnight with water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.4) What is the correct order of steps to process tissue containing calcium?

1. Decalcify, clear, dehydrate, fix
2. Decalcify, dehydrate, fix, wash
3. Decalcify, dehydrate, wash, fix
4. Fix, decalcify, wash, dehydrate
5. Fix, dehydrate, wash, decalcify

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.5) What happens if tissue is left in xylene for more than three hours?

1. The tissue becomes a milky colour
2. The tissue becomes brittle
3. The tissue becomes red
4. The tissue swells in size
5. The xylene becomes solid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.6) Paraffin wax should be used at ___________ its melting point.

1. 5–10°C below
2. 2–3°C below
3. the same temperature as
4. 2–3°C above
5. 5–10°C above

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.7) An advantage of paraffin wax embedding is:

1. easy storage
2. it preserves fats
3. rapid diagnosis
4. sections can be cut ultra-thin
5. you can view tissue without a microscope

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.8) What is the melting point of Paraplast?

1. 52–56°C
2. 62–66°C
3. 72–76°C
4. 82–86°C
5. 92–96°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.9) Which microtome is used to prepare tissue sections for electron microscopy?

1. Cryostat
2. Hand microtome
3. Rotary microtome
4. Sledge microtome
5. Ultramicrotome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.10) Which freezing technique is the coldest?

1. Aerosol sprays
2. Carbon dioxide gas
3. Carbon dioxide ‘cardice'
4. Isopentane cooled by liquid nitrogen
5. Liquefied nitrogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.11) A lab technician has cut a ribbon of sections from a tissue block. What should the lab technician do next?

1. Add a few drops of a softening agent
2. Float the sections on warm water
3. Leave the sections at room temperature for 30 minutes
4. Leave the sections in a freezer for an hour
5. Submerge the sections in ethanol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.12) Diamond blades are needed to cut:

1. bone
2. brain tissue
3. intestinal tissue
4. muscle tissue
5. skin tissue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.13) Wax sections are typically cut how thick during microtomy?

1. 4–10 nm
2. 40–100 nm
3. 4–10 µm
4. 4–10 mm
5. 40–100 mm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.14) For electron microscopy, sections must be about _______ times thinner than sections for light microscopy.

1. 2
2. 20
3. 200
4. 2,000
5. 20,000

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.15) Before staining, paraffin sections must be:

1. dewaxed
2. left underwater for at least an hour
3. refrigerated
4. submerged in a chlorine solution
5. warmed in an oven

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.16) In the hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) staining method, the eosin stains:

1. connective tissue blue
2. cytoplasms pink
3. microorganisms blue
4. nuclei blue
5. nuclei pink

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.17) The most common mordant for H&E staining is:

1. Alcian blue
2. alum
3. eosin
4. hematoxylin
5. sodium metabisulphite

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.18) What cell structure turns blue in H&E staining?

1. Cytoplasm
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Mitochondria
4. Nuclei
5. Reticulum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.19) __________ staining is the process of staining living cells that have been removed from the body.

1. Differential
2. Gram
3. In vivo
4. Positive
5. Supravital

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.20) When a smear is too red, neutrophil granules look:

1. blue-red
2. brilliant red
3. green
4. indistinct
5. light blue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.21) Which cytological technique involves passing a urine sample through a biological filter containing pores of a specific diameter?

1. Centrifugation
2. Clean-catch
3. Flow cytometry
4. Millipore filtration
5. Urine culture

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Section 9: Clinical Microbiology

9.1) What is the counterstain in Gram's technique?

1. Acetone-alcohol
2. Crystal violet
3. Giemsa
4. Iodine
5. Safranin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.2) In acid-fast staining, what colour are acid-fast bacteria?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Red
4. White
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.3) When exposed to acid, acid-fast bacteria:

1. decolourize at the same rate as other bacteria
2. decolourize faster than other bacteria
3. decolourize more slowly than other bacteria
4. do not decolourize
5. move faster

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.4) Which of these is needed for a malaria test?

1. Agar
2. Capillary tube
3. Clay sealant
4. Glass slide
5. Microhematocrit tube

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.5) A sample for the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) test is best collected using a:

1. cough plate
2. expectorated sputum
3. nasal aspirate
4. throat swab
5. tracheal tube

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.6) What colour does the indicator strip inside a GasPak chamber turn when oxygen is present?

1. Black
2. Blue
3. Colourless
4. Red
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.7) Smears of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) are prepared with:

1. centrifuged CSF sediment
2. filtered CSF sediment
3. filtered CSF supernatant
4. incubated CSF supernatant
5. uncentrifuged CSF supernatant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.8) Which test detects antibodies to the Epstein-Barr virus?

1. C-reactive protein test
2. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
3. Influenza test
4. Monospot test
5. Rapid Group A Streptococcus test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.9) Skin scrapings are set up in microbiology to identify:

1. Corynebacterium
2. Escherichia coli
3. Neisseria
4. fungi
5. small cell lung cancer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.10) What is the usual temperature for an incubator used for C&S?

1. 15–17°C
2. 25–27°C
3. 35–37°C
4. 45–47°C
5. 55–57°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.11) Which fluorescent dye glows green under blue light?

1. Alexa Fluor
2. Chromomycin A3
3. DAPI
4. GFP
5. Rhodamine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.12) Which of the following incubation conditions is used to grow Streptococcus pneumoniae?

1. At 35–37°C, over 3 days in chocolate agar or MacConkey agar, with 20% H₂
2. At 35–37°C, overnight in media containing blood and sugar, with 5−10% CO₂
3. At 42°C, over 2 days in media containing electrolytes and peptone water, and under microaerophilic conditions
4. At 42°C, over 3 days in Luria Bertani agar, and under anaerobic conditions
5. At 42°C, over 3 days in mannitol salt agar, with 15–20% O₂

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.13) Bacteria that are NOT acid-fast are termed:

1. acid-slow
2. acidophilic
3. alkaline-fast
4. alkaliphilic
5. non-acid-fast

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.14) What is the goal of streaking an agar plate?

1. To accelerate the solidification of the agar medium
2. To determine if the bacteria can ferment glucose, sucrose and/or lactose
3. To determine the number of organisms in the sample
4. To produce isolated colonies for further study
5. To produce dense growth which covers the plate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.15) Which ingredient in Thayer-Martin agar suppresses the growth of fungi?

1. Nystatin
2. Polymyxin
3. Colistin
4. Vancomycin
5. Agar

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.16) What is reducing media used for in microbiology?

1. Cultivating organisms that only grow in blood
2. Growing anaerobic bacteria
3. Isolating fungi and yeasts
4. Reducing the pH of broth or agar
5. Testing pathogens for antibiotic susceptibility

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.17) Which enzyme is used to make digest of blood?

1. Amylase
2. Lactase
3. Lipase
4. Pepsin
5. Trypsin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.18) CLED agar lacks electrolytes to prevent the swarming of which species?

1. Proteus
2. Pseudomonas
3. Shigella
4. Vibrio
5. Yersinia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.19) What does modified Thayer-Martin agar contain that Thayer-Martin agar does not?

1. Nystatin
2. Peptone water
3. Potassium dihydrogen phosphate
4. Trimethoprim lactate
5. Vancomycin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.20) In an agar slant tube, what is the poorly oxygenated area at the bottom of the tube called?

1. Bed
2. Butt
3. Foot
4. Pith
5. Root

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.21) What are the basic ingredients of all agar media?

1. Agar, distilled water, and electrolytes
2. Agar, gelatin, and sugar
3. Agar, pH indicators, and gelling properties
4. Agar, seaweed, and dissolved oxygen
5. Agar, vitamins, and blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.22) What type of broth is used to differentiate between aerobes and anaerobes?

1. Glucose
2. Lysogeny
3. Selenite F
4. Thioglycolate
5. Tryptic soy

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.23) Which of these types of agar is used to isolate and differentiate species of Salmonella and Shigella?

1. Hektoen enteric
2. Chocolate
3. CLED
4. Thayer Martin
5. MacConkey

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.24) Blood for blood agar plates is usually obtained from which animal?

1. Dogs
2. Goats
3. Pigs
4. Rabbits
5. Sheep

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.25) What is the sequence of steps for Gram staining?

1. Counterstain, mordant, primary stain, decolourizing
2. Mordant, primary stain, counterstain, decolourizing
3. Mordant, primary stain, decolourizing, counterstain
4. Primary stain, mordant, decolourizing, counterstain
5. Primary stain, secondary stain, mordant, decolourizing

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.26) In Gram staining, what can happen if the decolourizer is left on too long?

1. All organisms will appear colourless
2. Gram-negative organisms will get lysed
3. Gram-negative organisms will look gram-positive
4. Gram-positive organisms will look gram-negative
5. No cells will appear on the slide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.27) What can happen if the heat fixation step is skipped in Gram staining?

1. All organisms will appear colourless
2. All organisms will appear gram-negative
3. All organisms will appear gram-positive
4. Gram-negative organisms will appear Gram-positive, and vice versa
5. No cells will appear on the slide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.28) What is the final step in acid-fast staining?

1. Add a drop of sterile water to a clean slide
2. Cover the smear with the counterstain
3. Cover the smear with the primary stain
4. Decolourize the smear with alcohol
5. Heat fix the smear

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.29) Which acid-fast staining method is known as the hot method?

1. Auramine-Rhodamine
2. Fluorochrome
3. Kinyoun
4. Truant
5. Ziehl-Neelsen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.30) What characteristic helps identify mycobacteria?

1. Acid-fastness
2. Alpha hemolytic
3. Anaerobic
4. Gram negative
5. Motile

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.31) What is the term for bacterial cells used to start a new culture on a streak plate?

1. Colonies
2. Inoculum
3. Isolated colonies
4. Prime culture
5. T cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.32) Agar plates are placed upside down in the incubator to prevent:

1. contamination from other agar plates
2. gas bubbles from escaping
3. moisture from accumulating on the agar surface
4. pathogens from overgrowing
5. the medium from drying out

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.33) When performing a quadrant streak plate, what action must be taken after streaking each quadrant?

1. Allow the colonies to rest for 15–20 seconds
2. Flame the inoculating loop
3. Incubate the plate
4. Invert the plate
5. Take another loopful of inoculum from the original sample

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.34) When a quadrant streak plate is streaked correctly, which quadrant has the most cells?

1. All quadrants should have the same number of cells
2. Quadrant 1
3. Quadrant 2
4. Quadrant 3
5. Quadrant 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.35) A lab assistant is culturing a strain of Streptococcus pyogenes which produces streptolysin O. After streaking the blood plate, what special measure should the lab assistant perform to detect this hemolysin?

1. Add methylene blue
2. Connect the plate to a Durham tube
3. Invert the plate 8–10 times
4. Pour nutrient broth over the agar
5. Stab the agar

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.36) What is the term for bacteria that need high levels of carbon dioxide?

1. Capnophile
2. Carbonophile
3. Carbophile
4. Caseophile
5. Coprophile

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.37) Obligate anaerobes are killed by:

1. carbon dioxide
2. light
3. nitrogen
4. oxygen
5. water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.38) Which of these is a microaerophilic environment?

1. 10% O₂
2. 21% O₂
3. 35% O₂
4. 42% O₂
5. 55% O₂

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.39) What is the term for an organism that does not need oxygen?

1. Aerobe
2. Anaerobe
3. Antiaerobe
4. Microaerophile
5. Obligate aerobe

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.40) Which of these media is used to transport and preserve stool specimens?

1. Anaerobic media
2. Blood agar
3. Cary-Blair media
4. Lowenstein-Jensen agar
5. MacConkey agar

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Section 10: Clinical Chemistry

10.1) A patient has a potassium result of 7.2 mEq/L. Before reporting the result, the lab technician should:

1. ask the nurse if the patient is taking an anticoagulant drug
2. check the age of the patient
3. check the serum for bacterial contamination
4. check the serum for hemolysis
5. test the serum for ketones

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.2) Which sample is needed for a cardiac enzyme test?

1. Blood
2. Semen
3. Sputum
4. Sweat
5. Urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.3) What chemical does the urine glucose dipstick test use?

1. Ferricyanide
2. Glucose oxidase
3. Glucose oxide
4. Glucose reductase
5. Hexichloridine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.4) Which of these tests requires a 24-hour urine specimen?

1. A1C
2. Creatinine clearance
3. Glucose tolerance
4. HCG detection
5. Urine cytology

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.5) Which type of urine specimen is taken after eating?

1. 24-hour
2. Clean catch midstream
3. Pediatric
4. Postprandial
5. Random

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.6) A patient tests positive for bilirubin on a urine strip. Which test can rule out a false positive result?

1. Acetest
2. Clinitest
3. Ictotest
4. SSA
5. TCA

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.7) Midstream urine samples are most often used for:

1. Bence-Jones protein
2. culture and susceptibility
3. mononucleosis testing
4. pregnancy testing
5. routine urinalysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.8) Which of these statements is true about 24-hour urine collections?

1. If the container contains a preservative, then the preservative must be thrown away
2. If the patient leaves their house, they should take the container with them
3. Night-time specimens are discarded
4. The patient must fast during the 24 hours
5. The patient should keep the container in a warm place

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.9) Which of these biochemistry tests should be kept away from the light?

1. Bilirubin
2. Calcium
3. Glucose
4. Potassium
5. Urea

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.10) What colour is the urine of patients with jaundice?

1. Brownish-yellow
2. Clear
3. Milky
4. Red
5. Straw-coloured

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.11) A patient's urine sample is positive for ketones. The patient probably has:

1. advanced liver disease
2. heart disease
3. pernicious anemia
4. uncontrolled diabetes
5. uremic syndrome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.12) Which of these is normally present in urine?

1. Bilirubin
2. Blood
3. Creatinine
4. Glucose
5. Protein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.13) Bile pigments will cause urine specimens to be what colour?

1. Cloudy
2. Foul-smelling
3. Red
4. Straw-coloured
5. Yellow-brown

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.14) A 24-hour urine volume of 4 litres indicates:

1. anuria
2. nocturia
3. oliguria
4. polyuria
5. pyuria

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.15) Which of these tests does NOT require a 24-hour urine specimen?

1. Catecholamines
2. Creatinine clearance
3. Ketones
4. Ketosteroids
5. Quantitative drug analysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.16) What is the normal range for urine specific gravity?

1. 1.003–1.035
2. 2.003–2.035
3. 3.003–3.035
4. 4.003–4.035
5. 5.003–5.035

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.17) Adults normally produce around how many litres of urine per day?

1. 1 to 2
2. 3 to 4
3. 5 to 6
4. 7 to 8
5. 9 to 10

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.18) What is the standard range for blood glucose levels two hours into the oral glucose tolerance test?

1. <2.2 mmol/L
2. <4.4 mmol/L
3. <7.8 mmol/L
4. <10.0 mmol/L
5. <13.3 mmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.19) What is the normal range for thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?

1. 0.4–5 mU/L
2. 5.4–10 mU/L
3. 10.4–15 mU/L
4. 15.4–20 mU/L
5. 20.4–25 mU/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.20) What is the normal range for blood bicarbonate levels in adults?

1. 3–9 mmol/L
2. 13–19 mmol/L
3. 23–29 mmol/L
4. 33–39 mmol/L
5. 43–49 mmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.21) What is the normal range for the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) test?

1. 1.8–7.1 mmol/L
2. 7.1–12.9 mmol/L
3. 13–21 mmol/L
4. 21–29 mmol/L
5. 29–36 mmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.22) What is the normal range for 24-hour urine volume?

1. 12–24 mL
2. 40–80 mL
3. 100–200 mL
4. 200–800 mL
5. 800–2,000 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.23) What is the normal range for haptoglobin levels in blood?

1. 0.3–2.0 g/L
2. 2.3–4.0 g/L
3. 4.3–6.0 g/L
4. 6.3–8.0 g/L
5. 8.3–10.0 g/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.24) Which of these blood test results is abnormal and could indicate dehydration?

1. Glucose: 5.3 mmol/L
2. BUN: 5.4 mmol/L
3. Chloride: 135 mmol/L
4. Sodium: 140 mmol/L
5. Creatinine: 88.4 µmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.25) What is the normal range for fasting glucose?

1. 0.0–2.8 mmol/L
2. 2.8–3.9 mmol/L
3. 3.9–5.6 mmol/L
4. 5.6–6.9 mmol/L
5. 6.9–8.3 mmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.26) What is the normal range for partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) in blood?

1. 5–14 mmHg
2. 15–24 mmHg
3. 25–34 mmHg
4. 35–44 mmHg
5. 45–54 mmHg

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.27) What is the normal ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid in blood?

1. 20:1
2. 80:1
3. 200:1
4. 800:1
5. 1000:1

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.28) What is the normal range for total T4 in adult blood?

1. 1.1–2.9 nmol/L
2. 3.3–4.7 nmol/L
3. 18–34 nmol/L
4. 35–59 nmol/L
5. 64–154 nmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.29) Which of these thyroid results is abnormal for an adult?

1. Free T3: 5.1 pmol/L
2. Free T4: 16 pmol/
3. TSH: 1.5 mU/L
4. Total T3: 5.2 nmol/L
5. Total T4: 108 nmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.30) Blood ammonia levels are usually measured to evaluate the health of which organ?

1. Digestive tract
2. Heart
3. Liver
4. Lungs
5. Pancrceas

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.31) If a blood sample has high levels of urea, it is also likely to have high levels of:

1. albumin
2. catalase
3. creatinine
4. fibrinogen
5. lactose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.32) Estrogen and progesterone receptor testing are used to assess the prognosis and guide the treatment of:

1. amenorrhea
2. breast cancer
3. endometriosis
4. hepatoma
5. ovarian cancer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.33) Which enzyme, found mainly in skeletal muscle, the heart, and the brain, is associated with muscle damage and heart attack?

1. ALT
2. AST
3. Creatine kinase
4. Lactate Dehydrogenase
5. Lipase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.34) A patient has low cortisol. After an injection of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). the patient's cortisol levels are still low. The patient most likely has:

1. Addison's disease
2. Conn’s syndrome
3. Cretinism
4. Cushing‘s syndrome
5. Cushing’s disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.35) Therapeutic drug monitoring is typically performed for medications that:

1. are long-acting
2. are potentially addictive
3. are short-acting
4. have a narrow therapeutic range
5. have high rates of nonadherence

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.36) A blood sample has an elevated result when tested with the Jaffe reaction. This indicates:

1. arrhythmia
2. kidney function impairment
3. liver disease
4. pregnancy
5. prolonged hypothermia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.37) Which of these liver function panel results is abnormal?

1. ALT: 12 IU/L
2. AST: 20 IU/L
3. ALP: 14 IU/L
4. GGT: 25 IU/L
5. Bilirubin: 10 µmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.38) An anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide test is most often ordered with which other test?

1. Anti-double-stranded DNA test
2. Aspartate aminotransferase test
3. Factor V Leiden test
4. Fasting glucose test
5. Rheumatoid factor test

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Section 11: Clinical Hematology

11.1) What colour Vacutainer tube is used for erythrocyte sedimentation rates?

1. Black
2. Green
3. Red
4. White
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.2) The liquid that separates out when blood coagulates is:

1. fibrinogen
2. lymph
3. plasma
4. serum
5. the buffy coat

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.3) What is the term for the percentage of red blood cells in a sample of whole blood?

1. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
2. Hematocrit
3. Hemoglobin
4. Mean corpuscular volume
5. Red blood cell count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.4) In what unit are the results of erythrocyte sedimentation rate tests reported?

1. Millimetres cubed
2. Millimetres per hour
3. Millimoles per litre
4. Nanograms per decilitre
5. Picograms per second

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.5) What colour is lipemic plasma?

1. Brown
2. Brownish-yellow
3. Clear red
4. Milky
5. Straw-coloured

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.6) Why is ammonium oxalate added to blood samples before platelet counts?

1. To force the blood to clot
2. To lyse the red blood cells
3. To prevent hemodilution
4. To prevent macrophages from destroying the platelets
5. To stain the platelets blue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.7) EDTA is a:

1. anticoagulant
2. clot activator
3. glucose preservative
4. lactose preservative
5. plasma separator

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.8) While separating serum, you notice that it is yellow, indicating that it contains excess bilirubin. What is the term for this finding?

1. Hematocrit
2. Hemolysis
3. Icterus
4. Intergeneric
5. Lipemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.9) Calculate the corrected WBC count from the following results.

Test	Result
Uncorrected WBC count	30,000/uL
Nucleated RBC/100 WBC	100

1. 500/uL
2. 10,000/uL
3. 15,000/uL
4. 18,000/uL
5. 20,000/uL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.10) Which of these is a coagulation test?

1. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
2. Full blood count
3. Hematocrit
4. Prothrombin time
5. Thyroid function test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.11) Bleeding time is a test used to evaluate the activity of:

1. factor XIII
2. fibrinogen
3. labile factor
4. platelets
5. prothrombin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.12) Hematocrit results will be low for patients with:

1. an infection
2. anemia
3. dehydration
4. heart disease
5. polycythemia vera

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.13) Bromocresol purple and bromocresol green are dyes used to measure the levels of:

1. Bence Jones protein
2. albumin
3. globulins
4. immunoproteins
5. light chains

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.14) When setting up erythrocyte sedimentation rates, take care to ensure:

1. a fasting specimen is used
2. the ESR tubes are vertical
3. the blood is well clotted
4. the sample is completely thawed
5. the water bath is exactly 37°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.15) A lab technician dilutes a blood sample with tryptan blue by a ratio of 1:1. The technician then counts 100 cells in 5 of the large squares using a hemocytometer. What is the cell concentration?

1. 2×10⁴ cells/mL
2. 3×10⁴ cells/mL
3. 4×10⁵ cells/mL
4. 5×10⁵ cells/mL
5. 6×10⁵ cells/mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.16) Hematology analyzers use which principle for counting red blood cells?

1. Campbell
2. Coulter
3. Loughty
4. Stewart
5. Thompson

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.17) A buffy coat forms when:

1. an SST is left to rest for 24 hours
2. whole anticoagulated blood is centrifuged
3. whole blood is left to rest for 24 hours
4. whole blood is stirred with a glass rod
5. whole coagulated blood is centrifuged

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.18) Which type of stain is used in hematology to stain and differentiate between blood cells?

1. Acid-fast
2. Gram
3. H&E
4. Papanicolaou
5. Romanowsky

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.19) Which of these is a sign of a blood film that has been prepared poorly?

1. Consistent thickness throughout
2. Covers the majority of the slide
3. Feathered edges
4. Half to three-quarters the length of the slide
5. Space at the lateral edges

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.20) A woman has a leukocyte count of 3.6 × 10⁹/L. What is the term for this type of cell count?

1. Leukemia
2. Leukocytosis
3. Leukodystrophy
4. Leukopenia
5. Leukopoiesis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.21) A man has a red cell count of 3.6 × 10¹²/L. What is the term for this type of cell count?

1. Anemia
2. Hemophilia
3. Leukocytosis
4. Leukopenia
5. Polycythemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.22) What is the term for a platelet count of 120 × 10⁹/L?

1. Anemia
2. Neutropenia
3. Polycythemia
4. Thrombocytopenia
5. Thrombocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.23) What is a deficiency of red blood cells called?

1. Anemia
2. Erythremia
3. Hemophilia
4. Leukemia
5. Neutropenia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.24) What does the prothrombin time test evaluate?

1. Blood clotting
2. Blood glucose levels
3. Gut bacteria
4. Kidney function
5. Liver function

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.25) In the prothrombin time test, the patient's plasma is mixed with:

1. calcium and activator
2. calcium and thromboplastin
3. glass beads
4. platelet lipids
5. platelet lipids and thrombin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.26) Along with the patient's prothrombin time and the average prothrombin time of the reference range population, what other information is needed to calculate a patient's international normalized ratio?

1. The dosage of the patient's anticoagulant medication
2. The half-life of the patient's anticoagulant medication
3. The international sensitivity index of the thromboplastin reagent
4. The patient's age
5. The total thrombus volume from the thromboelastograph waveform

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.27) What formula calculates red blood cell distribution width (RDW)?

1. 1 SD of the MCV / MCV
2. HCT / RBC
3. HGB / Hct
4. HGB / RBC
5. RBC × MCV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.28) What does a wide distribution curve on a blood cell histogram indicate?

1. The blood cells are all roughly the same size
2. The blood cells are larger than normal
3. The blood cells are smaller than normal
4. The blood cells are unequal in size
5. There are more blood cells than normal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.29) On a blood cell histogram, what does the y-axis represent?

1. Cell colour
2. Cell shape
3. Cell size
4. Number of cells
5. Time

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.30) The average amount of hemoglobin per individual red blood cell is known as the:

1. HPE
2. MCH
3. MCHC
4. MCV
5. RDW

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.31) Which red blood cell index is a measurement of the average amount of hemoglobin in red blood cells?

1. CBC
2. MCH
3. MCV
4. RBC
5. RDW

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.32) Which of these complete blood count values is calculated, not measured?

1. Hemoglobin
2. MCHC
3. Platelet count
4. Red blood cell count
5. White blood cell count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.33) Which red blood cell index is a calculation of the amount of hemoglobin in a given volume of red blood cells?

1. MCH
2. MCHC
3. MCV
4. RBC
5. RDW

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.34) A patient has the following hematology results:

Test	Result
RBC	4.68×10¹²/L
Hemoglobin	133 g/L
Hematocrit	0.451

What is the patient's mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)?

1. 0.035 pg
2. 10.4 pg
3. 28.4 pg
4. 59.85 pg
5. 295.6 pg

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.35) When stained with a Romanowsky stain, what colour do red blood cells appear?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Purple
4. Red
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.36) What is the normal adult range for leukocyte count?

1. 0.5–7.0 × 10⁹/L
2. 2.5–9.0 × 10⁹/L
3. 4.5–11.0 × 10⁹/L
4. 6.5–13.0 × 10⁹/L
5. 8.5–14.0 × 10⁹/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.37) Which of these red blood cell counts is normal?

1. 2.2 × 10¹²/L
2. 4.9 × 10¹²/L
3. 8.9 × 10¹²/L
4. 10.3 × 10¹²/L
5. 12.6 × 10¹²/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.38) The normal adult range for platelet count is ______________ per nanolitre of blood.

1. 150–450
2. 250–550
3. 350–650
4. 450–750
5. 550–850

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.39) The normal number of white blood cells in blood is between ____________ per microlitre.

1. 120 and 180
2. 4,000 and 11,000
3. 13,000 and 19,000
4. 50,000 and 90,000
5. 1 million and 3 million

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.40) Which of these results indicates anemia in a male patient?

1. Hematocrit: 36%
2. MCH: 32 pg
3. MCHC: 34 g/dL
4. MCV: 90 80 fL
5. RBC: 5.9 × 10¹²/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.41) What is the normal pH range for arterial blood?

1. 7.35–7.45
2. 8.35–8.45
3. 9.35–9.45
4. 10.35–10.45
5. 11.35–11.45

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.42) What is a normal INR for healthy individuals?

1. 1.1 and below
2. 1.5–2.1
3. 2.9–4.2
4. 4.6–6.2
5. 6.5 and above

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Section 12: Transfusion Medicine

12.1) At what temperature is the incubation phase of the indirect antiglobulin test?

1. 22°C
2. 37°C
3. 56°C
4. 100°C
5. 112°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.2) Washed red blood cells are prepared by washing red cells with:

1. acetic acid
2. ethanol
3. hydrochloric acid
4. normal saline
5. sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.3) Which blood group system is the most important for blood transfusions?

1. ABO
2. Lutheran
3. MNS
4. P
5. Rh

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.4) An AB− patient requires a blood transfusion but no AB− is available. Blood from which of these blood types could be given to the patient instead?

1. A+
2. AB+
3. A−
4. B+
5. O+

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.5) A 28-year-old patient needs a blood transfusion of red blood cells. However, the patient has an inherited immune system disorder that makes him vulnerable to transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GvHD). The red blood cells for this patient should be:

1. centrifuged
2. frozen and deglycerolized
3. heated
4. irradiated
5. saline washed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.6) People with O− blood can only receive blood that is:

1. AB+
2. AB−
3. A−
4. B+
5. O−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.7) When donated blood is bright yellow to brown, it is probably due to:

1. bacterial contamination
2. fibrin strands
3. high levels of bilirubin
4. high levels of fat
5. red blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.8) While separating the components of a blood donation, you notice an unusual green colour in the plasma bag. Which of these could be the cause of the green colour?

1. The donor ate a fatty meal before the blood donation
2. The donor ate a large number of carrots before the blood donation
3. The donor is on a contraceptive pill
4. The donor is taking a vitamin A supplement
5. The plasma has red blood cells in it

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.9) Which donated blood component carries the highest risk for bacterial contamination?

1. Cryoprecipitate
2. Fresh frozen plasma
3. Plasma
4. Platelets
5. Red blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.10) Fresh frozen plasma is stored at ____ or colder.

1. −30°C
2. −10°C
3. −6°C
4. 6°C
5. 37°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.11) What does "Rhesus positive" mean?

1. A deficiency of Factor VIII that results in hemophilia
2. Antibodies in a pregnant woman's blood are destroying her baby's blood cells
3. The patient has subtype of HIV called the Rhesus subtype
4. The presence of the D antigen on the surface of red blood cells
5. The presence of the rhesus antibody in the blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.12) Type A antigens react with which type of antibodies?

1. Anti-A antibodies
2. Anti-B antibodies
3. Anti-C antibodies
4. Anti-D antibodies
5. Anti-E antibodies

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.13) Why is blood type O− the universal donor?

1. Most people are type O−
2. The red blood cells have no A, B or Rh antigens
3. The red blood cells only have O antigens
4. The serum has no A, B or Rh antibodies
5. The serum only has O antibodies

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.14) In blood typing, anti-A may be dyed what colour as a quality control measure?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Purple
4. Red
5. Yellow

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Section 13: Electrocardiograms

13.1) A continuous ECG monitor is used most commonly in a:

1. assisted-living centre
2. blood bank
3. clinic
4. hospital
5. physician's office

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.2) You have connected a Holter monitor to a patient. Which of these actions would next be appropriate?

1. Give the patient a bath
2. Have the patient start a brisk walk on a treadmill
3. Instruct the patient to keep a diary of activities and symptoms
4. Shave the patient's chest hair
5. Tell the patient to lie down and keep still

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.3) Which of these would NOT cause artifacts on an ECG?

1. Body lotion or cream on the patient's skin
2. Coins in the cardiologist's pocket
3. Electrical interference
4. Loose wires
5. Patient movement

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.4) When preparing a patient for an ECG, where on the patient should you place the V1 electrode?

1. Arm
2. Chest
3. Foot
4. Hand
5. Leg

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.5) Leads II, III, and aVF of an ECG are called the __________ leads.

1. extremity
2. grounding
3. inferior
4. lateral
5. limb

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.6) The right leg (RL) electrode of the electrocardiogram is also known as:

1. F
2. N
3. S
4. T
5. V1

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.7) Einthoven's law states:

1. Lead I + Lead II = Lead III
2. Lead I + Lead III = Lead II
3. Lead I - Lead II = Lead III
4. Lead I - Lead III = Lead II
5. Lead II - Lead I = Lead III

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.8) What does the vertical axis on electrocardiogram paper represent?

1. Acceleration
2. Deacceleration
3. Speed
4. Time
5. Voltage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.9) Lead I of an ECG records differences between which electrodes?

1. LA and LL
2. LA and RA
3. LA and RL
4. RA and LL
5. RA and RL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.10) The 12-lead ECG uses how many electrodes?

1. 6
2. 8
3. 10
4. 12
5. 16

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.11) ECG leads I, II, and III are called the _________ limb leads.

1. augmented
2. bipolar
3. negative
4. positive
5. unipolar

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.12) An interrupted baseline on an ECG may be caused by:

1. a broken cable
2. electrical interference
3. jewelry or a watch worn by the patient
4. lotion on the patient's skin
5. patient movement

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.13) What is the normal paper speed for an ECG?

1. 25 mm/second
2. 50 mm/second
3. 75 mm/second
4. 100 mm/second
5. 125 mm/second

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.14) A patient is undergoing a cardiac treadmill stress test when he starts showing signs of cardiac ischemia. What should you do?

1. Ask the patient if he can keep going
2. Do nothing and continue to monitor the patient
3. Slow down the treadmill to a more comfortable speed
4. Speed up the treadmill
5. Stop the test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.15) Why do ECG electrodes have tabs?

1. So the nurse can write notes on them
2. To attach alligator clips
3. To make it easy to attach the electrode to the patient's skin
4. To make it easy to pull the electrode off the patient in case of an emergency
5. To prevent patient shocks

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.16) Why is paste or jelly applied to a patient before an ECG?

1. To facilitate conductivity between the skin and the electrode
2. To prevent the electrodes from overheating
3. To reduce the risk of damaging equipment
4. To reduce the risk of shocking the patient
5. To reduce the risk of shocking the technician

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.17) How long is a normal standardization mark on an ECG tracing?

1. 10 mm
2. 15 mm
3. 20 mm
4. 25 mm
5. 30 mm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.18) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V1 placed?

1. At the fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line
2. At the fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
3. At the fourth intercostal space, right sternal border
4. Midway between V3 and V5
5. Near the right shoulder, close to the junction of the right arm and torso.

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.19) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V2 placed?

1. At the fifth intercostal space to the left of the midclavicular line
2. At the fifth intercostal space to the right of the midclavicular line
3. At the fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
4. At the fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum
5. Midway between V3 and V5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.20) To prevent disease transmission during an ECG, you should:

1. apply plenty of gel to the patient's chest
2. check the ground prong
3. lower the bed
4. raise the side rail
5. wash your hands

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.21) While recording a 12-lead ECG, you notice leads I and II have a lot of artifacts. Which electrode is probably not placed appropriately?

1. Left arm
2. Left leg
3. Right arm
4. Right leg
5. V1

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.22) In the IEC (International Electrotechnical Commission) system of ECG lead colour coding, what colour is the neutral electrode?

1. Black
2. Green
3. Red
4. White
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.23) Lead III of an ECG records differences between the:

1. left leg and left arm electrodes
2. left leg and right arm electrodes
3. right leg and chest electrodes
4. right leg and left arm electrodes
5. right leg and right arm electrodes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.24) When placing ECG electrodes on the patient's body, it is helpful to be able to identify the angle of Louis. What is the angle of Louis also known as?

1. Anterior-posterior angle
2. Einthoven's triangle
3. Lead I
4. Posterior triangle
5. Sternal angle

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.25) Which lead of an electrocardiogram is needed for a rhythm strip?

1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV
5. V

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.26) What does the T wave on an ECG represent?

1. Depolarization of the atria
2. Depolarization of the ventricles
3. Relaxation of the atria
4. Repolarization of the atria
5. Repolarization of the ventricles

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.27) What does the horizontal axis on an ECG represent?

1. Blood pressure
2. Current
3. Resistance
4. Time
5. Voltage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.28) The S-T segment on ECG tracing represents the time interval between:

1. atrial depolarization and atrial repolarization
2. atrial depolarization and ventricular depolarization
3. atrial depolarization and ventricular repolarization
4. ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization
5. ventricular depolarization and ventricular repolarization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.29) While performing an ECG, you notice that the R wave on lead I has a negative deflection instead of a positive deflection. This means:

1. the V1 electrode has come loose
2. the chest leads are not attached correctly
3. the limb leads are reversed
4. the patient is has a pacemaker
5. there is electrical interference coming from another machine in the room

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.30) What causes somatic tremors on an ECG?

1. Incorrect placement of leads
2. Interference from another electrical device
3. Irregular heart rate
4. Leakage of electrical current
5. Patient movement

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.31) If there are 9 QRS complexes on a six-second ECG strip, then what is the patient's estimated heart rate in beats per minute?

1. 15 bpm
2. 54 bpm
3. 90 bpm
4. 154 bpm
5. 164 bpm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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