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CCBMA Basic Exam: Practice Questions

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About the CCBMA Basic Exam

The California Certified Medical Assistant (CCMA) exams are exams that test your knowledge of medical assisting. They are designed for entry-level medical assistants.

The exams are set by the California Certifying Board for Medical Assistants (CCBMA), a private non-profit corporation.

There are three CCMA exams: Basic, Administrative and Clinical. The Basic exam tests your knowledge of fundamental principles of medical assisting, such as medical law, medical ethics, human anatomy and physiology, and medical terminology.

To become certified, you must pass:

  1. the Basic examination and
  2. either the Administrative exam or Clinical exam.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the CCBMA Basic Exam.

This page contains 300 practice questions divided into the six sections of the exam: 1. Medical terminology, 2. Technical References, 3. Structure and Function of the Human Body, 4. Psychological Aspects of Medical Assisting, 5. Legal and Ethical Issues, and 6. Patient Education.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Sections

  1. Medical terminology
  2. Technical References
  3. Structure and Function of the Human Body
  4. Psychological Aspects of Medical Assisting
  5. Legal and Ethical Issues
  6. Patient Education

Section 1: Medical terminology

1.1) What is the term for the condition of equilibrium (balance) in the body's internal environment?
  1. Differentiation
  2. Homeostasis
  3. Metabolism
  4. Palpation
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1.2) A blood clot that forms in a vessel and remains there is called:
  1. a hematoma
  2. a thrombus
  3. an embolism
  4. an ischemia
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1.3) What does the term "thermolabile" mean?
  1. Changed by heat
  2. Insensitive to heat
  3. Produced by heat
  4. Produces heat
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1.4) The study of how the body functions is called:
  1. anatomy
  2. histology
  3. microbiology
  4. physiology
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1.5) Substances that prevent blood clotting are called:
  1. anticoagulants
  2. coagulants
  3. platelets
  4. thrombi
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1.6) What is macrocytosis?
  1. A blood cancer
  2. A high concentration of white blood cells
  3. A platelet deficiency
  4. Abnormally large red blood cells
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1.7) What is thiamine?
  1. A respiratory stimulant
  2. A vitamin
  3. An amino acid
  4. An antibiotic
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1.8) A thrombus is a:
  1. blood clot
  2. instrument for measuring blood pressure
  3. moving foreign body in the bloodstream
  4. type of needle for aspirating pleural fluid
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1.9) What is the negative log of hydrogen ion concentration better known as?
  1. SG
  2. pH
  3. pKa
  4. the T/S constant
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1.10) Motor neurons are also called __________ neurons.
  1. afferent
  2. association
  3. efferent
  4. nervous
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1.11) The heel bone is called the:
  1. calcaneus
  2. lamina
  3. malleolus
  4. xiphoid process
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1.12) What is the medical term for the bones of the fingers?
  1. Carpals
  2. Patellas
  3. Phalanges
  4. Tarsals
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1.13) Bone cells that absorb and remove unwanted bone tissue are called:
  1. calcani
  2. exocytes
  3. fossas
  4. osteoclasts
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1.14) What is the medical term for the shoulder blade?
  1. Clavicle
  2. Patella
  3. Scapula
  4. Sternum
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1.15) A health record maintained by a patient is called a(n):
  1. electronic health record
  2. electronic medical record
  3. personal health record
  4. portal health record
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1.16) What is a gastrectomy?
  1. An incision into the intestines
  2. An intestinal tumor
  3. The removal of part or all of the stomach
  4. The use of surgery to reshape the intestines
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1.17) Which term means "before meals"?
  1. Antenatal
  2. Postpartum
  3. Postprandial
  4. Preprandial
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1.18) An iatrogenic illness is an illness that:
  1. has no obvious symptoms
  2. is caused by medical treatment
  3. is triggered by stress
  4. only occurs in old age
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1.19) Adipose tissue is more commonly known as:
  1. bone
  2. cartilage
  3. fat
  4. skin
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1.20) What does hypertrophy mean?
  1. Excess energy
  2. Increase in cell numbers
  3. Increase in size
  4. Underdeveloped
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1.21) The absence of pigment in the skin is called:
  1. albinism
  2. dermatitis
  3. melanism
  4. xanthoderma
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1.22) Which word means "under a fingernail"?
  1. Epidermis
  2. Hypoglossal
  3. Subcutaneous
  4. Subungual
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1.23) What is the name of the saclike membrane surrounding the heart?
  1. Bundle of His
  2. Interatrial septum
  3. Pericardium
  4. Ventricle
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1.24) What type of bone is light and porous?
  1. Cancellous
  2. Compact
  3. Cortical
  4. Subchondral
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1.25) What is melena?
  1. A complete absence of the pigment melanin
  2. Black tarry stools
  3. Bleeding from the uterus
  4. Patches in different areas of the body
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1.26) What is nephrolithotomy?
  1. Surgery to remove a bladder
  2. Surgery to remove a kidney
  3. Surgery to remove a kidney stone
  4. Surgery to remove cancerous tissue from a kidney
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1.27) Swollen, twisted veins near the testes are called:
  1. herpes genitalis
  2. hydrocele
  3. hypospadias
  4. varicocele
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1.28) What is the medical term for the foreskin of the penis?
  1. Glans penis
  2. Perineum
  3. Phimosis
  4. Prepuce
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1.29) Which prefix means the liver?
  1. Adeno-
  2. Gastro-
  3. Hepato-
  4. Nephro-
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1.30) Enzymes end with which suffix?
  1. -ase
  2. -cyte
  3. -osis
  4. -phage
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1.31) Which does the prefix adeno- refer to?
  1. Glands
  2. Joints
  3. Kidney
  4. Liver
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1.32) What does the prefix epi- mean?
  1. Above
  2. Below
  3. Between
  4. Next to
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1.33) Which suffix means falling, drooping, or prolapse?
  1. -pathy
  2. -plasty
  3. -ptosis
  4. -trophy
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1.34) What does the suffix -emia refer to?
  1. Blood condition
  2. Enlargement
  3. Paralysis
  4. Surgical removal
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1.35) Which suffix means 'flow' or 'discharge'?
  1. -emesis
  2. -ptysis
  3. -rrhaphy
  4. -rrhea
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1.36) FBS stands for _________ blood sugar.
  1. fasting
  2. fatal
  3. final
  4. first
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1.37) What is a CCMSU?
  1. A blood test to diagnose cancer of the red blood cells
  2. A method of collecting urine samples
  3. A type of heart attack
  4. A type of x-ray
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1.38) In clinical chemistry, what does PSA stand for?
  1. Patient safety awareness
  2. Plasma-specific antibody
  3. Platelet-specific antigen
  4. Prostate-specific antigen
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1.39) ETS stands for ________ ________ system.
  1. electrical tube
  2. evacuated tube
  3. extravascular testing
  4. extravascular tube
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1.40) BT and CT stand for:
  1. bile test and culture test
  2. bleeding time and clotting time
  3. blood test and clotting test
  4. blood tube and clot tube
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1.41) In the context of healthcare, what does CBC stand for?
  1. Center for blood care
  2. Center for blood control
  3. Complete blood count
  4. Complete blood culture
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1.42) What is the term for an injury where ligaments stretch too far or tear?
  1. Compression
  2. Sprain
  3. Strain
  4. Subluxation
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1.43) Small red or purple spots caused by a minor hemorrhage are called:
  1. palachiae
  2. parachiae
  3. pasachiae
  4. petechiae
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1.44) What is edema?
  1. A bruise on the head
  2. A collection of blood outside blood vessels
  3. Swelling caused by fluid retention
  4. The final product of the blood coagulation step in hemostasis
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1.45) What is phlebitis?
  1. A type of blood cancer
  2. A viral infection that affects lymph nodes
  3. Clotting in an artery
  4. Inflammation of a vein
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1.46) What is hematuria?
  1. A skin rash
  2. Bacteria in the bloodstream
  3. Blood in the urine
  4. Kidney stones
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1.47) What is the medical term for swelling caused by fluid trapped in the body's tissues?
  1. Edema
  2. Hemoconcentration
  3. Icterus
  4. Syncope
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1.48) Urticaria is another name for:
  1. hives
  2. malignancy of the basal cells
  3. scales
  4. severe itching
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1.49) What is the medical term for a low level of glucose in the blood?
  1. Hyperglycemia
  2. Hyperinsulinemia
  3. Hyperlipidemia
  4. Hypoglycemia
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1.50) What is the medical term for fainting?
  1. Edema
  2. Exsanguination
  3. Syncope
  4. Vertigo
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1.51) What term describes localized tumor growth?
  1. Anaplastic
  2. Carcinoma in situ
  3. Metastasis
  4. Pleomorphic
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1.52) What is the medical term for itching?
  1. Alopecia
  2. Petechiae
  3. Pruritus
  4. Purpura
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1.53) A malignant tumor of smooth muscle is called:
  1. leiomyoma
  2. leiomyosarcoma
  3. rhabdomyoma
  4. rhabdomyosarcoma
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1.54) What is the medical term for difficulty swallowing?
  1. Dysphagia
  2. Eructation
  3. Flatus
  4. Nausea
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1.55) What is the medical term for an abnormal tingling or prickling sensation?
  1. Analgesia
  2. Anesthesia
  3. Neurasthenia
  4. Paresthesia
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1.56) What is the medical term for a bacterial infection of the middle ear?
  1. Barotitis
  2. Cholesteatoma
  3. Mastoiditis
  4. Otitis media
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1.57) What is the medical term for indigestion?
  1. Aphagia
  2. Dyspepsia
  3. Dysphagia
  4. Polyphagia
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1.58) A high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by disrupted airflow is called:
  1. asthma
  2. diphtheria
  3. epistaxis
  4. stridor
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1.59) What is hypercapnia?
  1. Decreased carbon dioxide in the blood
  2. High blood pressure
  3. High carbon dioxide levels in the blood
  4. Increased oxygen to the tissues
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1.60) What is the medical term for shortness of breath?
  1. Anosmia
  2. Ascites
  3. Dyspnea
  4. Phlebitis
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1.61) Hyperkalemia means high levels of which chemical element?
  1. Calcium
  2. Mercury
  3. Potassium
  4. Sodium
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1.62) What is the term for undescended testicles?
  1. Anorchism
  2. Cryptorchism
  3. Epispadias
  4. Phimosis
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1.63) The absence of one of both testes is called:
  1. anorchism
  2. aspermia
  3. cryptorchism
  4. oligospermia
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1.64) What is an in vivo test?
  1. Experiments are performed in a laboratory
  2. Experiments are performed in a living organism
  3. Radionuclide is incorporated into a chemical substance
  4. Radiopharmaceuticals are used
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1.65) A myelogram is an x-ray of:
  1. bone marrow
  2. lymphatic vessels
  3. muscles
  4. the spinal cord
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1.66) What does the term oliguria mean?
  1. A high urine volume
  2. A low urine volume
  3. The absence of urine
  4. The presence of crystals in the urine
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1.67) The mandible, vomer, maxilla, and zygomatic are all bones of the:
  1. cranium
  2. face
  3. pelvis
  4. spine
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1.68) What is the tube that connects the epididymis to the urethra?
  1. Cowper duct
  2. Seminiferous tubule
  3. Ureter
  4. Vas deferens
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1.69) Coagulation is more commonly known as:
  1. clotting
  2. dissolving
  3. mixing
  4. sweating
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1.70) What is the glomerulus?
  1. A collecting chamber in the kidney
  2. A tube in the bladder
  3. A tube leading from the kidney to the bladder
  4. Small balls of capillaries in the kidney
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1.71) What is the final part of the digestive system?
  1. Anus
  2. Duodenum
  3. Ileum
  4. Rectum
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1.72) Which type of anemia is due to excessive red blood cell destruction?
  1. Aplastic anemia
  2. Hemolytic anemia
  3. Iron-deficiency anemia
  4. Pernicious anemia
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1.73) Jaundice is the medical term for:
  1. inflammation
  2. liver disease
  3. skin disease
  4. yellow skin
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1.74) What is the medical term for an exaggerated feeling of well-being?
  1. Autism
  2. Euphoria
  3. Labile
  4. Paranoia
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1.75) What is the term for a fear of going outside?
  1. acrophobia
  2. agoraphobia
  3. claustrophobia
  4. necrophobia
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1.76) Which learning difficulty mainly causes problems with reading, writing, and spelling?
  1. Apraxia
  2. Bradykinesis
  3. Dyslexia
  4. Neurasthenia
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1.77) What is a meniscus?
  1. A type of balance
  2. The curved surface of a liquid
  3. The precipitate in a solution
  4. The tip of a pipette
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1.78) A solution that causes cells to shrink is called:
  1. hypertonic
  2. isotonic
  3. microtonic
  4. polytonic
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Section 2: Technical References

2.1) The presenting complaint pick list was developed by the:
  1. CEDIS working group
  2. CIHI subgroups
  3. DAD working group
  4. NACRS ambulatory working group
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2.2) When coding metastatic osteosarcoma of the lung, the primary site is:
  1. bone
  2. connective tissue
  3. lung
  4. unknown
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2.3) The ICPC is a classification method for:
  1. childhood illnesses
  2. chronic diseases
  3. interventions
  4. primary care encounters
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2.4) A patient with an enlarged thyroid was taken to the OR where a frozen section biopsy was performed, followed by total thyroidectomy. You would code the:
  1. diagnostic procedure first followed by the therapeutic procedure
  2. diagnostic procedure only
  3. therapeutic procedure first followed by the diagnostic procedure
  4. therapeutic procedure only
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2.5) Which of these statements about upcoding is false?
  1. Upcoding is a compliance risk
  2. Upcoding is considered health care fraud
  3. Upcoding is only an issue when it is intentional
  4. Upcoding is the act of using a higher-level CPT code in a claim
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2.6) What do CPT codes describe?
  1. Deaths
  2. Diagnoses
  3. Patients
  4. Procedures
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2.7) The two-digit additions to CPT codes that describe extra details of a procedure are called:
  1. ICD-10 codes
  2. modifiers
  3. service codes
  4. supplemental codes
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2.8) HCPCS Level I is the same as:
  1. CPT
  2. ICD
  3. ICHI
  4. SNOMED CT
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2.9) CPT codes have how many digits?
  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
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2.10) Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) is divided into how many categories of codes?
  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
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2.11) What do ICD codes represent?
  1. Diseases
  2. Hospital departments
  3. Insurance providers
  4. Procedures
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2.12) What drug class does carbamazepine belong to?
  1. Antibiotic
  2. Anticoagulant
  3. Anticonvulsant
  4. Antidepressant
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2.13) What is the term for a drug that contains the same chemical substance as a brand-name drug?
  1. Controlled
  2. Generic
  3. Over-the-counter
  4. Prescription
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2.14) Penicillin, amoxicillin and ciprofloxacin are examples of which type of drug?
  1. Antibiotics
  2. Anticoagulants
  3. Antihistamines
  4. Antivirals
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2.15) Which medication is used as an ACE inhibitor for hypertension and heart failure?
  1. Atorvastatin
  2. Levothyroxine
  3. Lisinopril
  4. Metoprolol
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Section 3: Structure and Function of the Human Body

3.1) Which term means away from the origin?
  1. Anterior
  2. Distal
  3. Lateral
  4. Posterior
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3.2) Which term of position literally means "toward the tail" and describes a position below another part of the body?
  1. Caudal
  2. Cephalic
  3. Distal
  4. Dorsal
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3.3) Which term means a location towards the front of the body?
  1. Anterior
  2. Distal
  3. Lateral
  4. Posterior
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3.4) What is the term for movement away from the midline of the body?
  1. Abduction
  2. Adduction
  3. Inversion
  4. Retrusion
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3.5) Which gland secretes cortisol?
  1. Adrenal cortex
  2. Adrenal medulla
  3. Pituitary gland
  4. Testes
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3.6) During exercise, blood flow within a muscle is increased by:
  1. homogenization
  2. hyalinization
  3. precipitation
  4. vasodilatation
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3.7) When a muscle contracts, it:
  1. lengthens and pulls a bone
  2. lengthens and pushes a bone
  3. shortens and pulls a bone
  4. shortens and pushes a bone
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3.8) Which muscles are the triangular muscles of the shoulder?
  1. Biceps
  2. Deltoids
  3. Long abductors
  4. Triceps
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3.9) Which fibrous connective tissue connects muscle to bone?
  1. Cartilage
  2. Ligament
  3. Muscle fiber
  4. Tendon
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3.10) What are the three types of muscle tissue?
  1. Cardiac, smooth, and skeletal
  2. Internal, external and connectors
  3. Peripheral, central and core
  4. Protractors, retractors and reactors
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3.11) Insulin is a(n):
  1. autocrine
  2. circulating hormone
  3. local hormone
  4. neurotransmitter
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3.12) Which of these glands is an exocrine gland?
  1. Adrenal
  2. Pineal
  3. Pituitary
  4. Sebaceous
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3.13) Which hormone lowers blood glucose levels?
  1. FSH
  2. Glucagon
  3. Insulin
  4. Progesterone
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3.14) Cortisol levels are generally highest at what time of day?
  1. 8 am
  2. 12 pm
  3. 4 pm
  4. 8 pm
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3.15) Which gland produces melatonin?
  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Pancreas
  3. Pineal gland
  4. Thymus
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3.16) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) stimulates the re-absorption of:
  1. hydrogen ions
  2. oxygen
  3. potassium
  4. water
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3.17) Which hormone is also known as epinephrine?
  1. Adrenaline
  2. Cortisol
  3. Testosterone
  4. Vasopressin
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3.18) Which hormone increases calcium levels?
  1. Calcitonin
  2. Corticotropin
  3. Epinephrine
  4. Parathyroid hormone
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3.19) Which of these hormones is produced by the pituitary gland?
  1. Insulin
  2. T4
  3. TRH
  4. TSH
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3.20) Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates milk production?
  1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
  2. Luteinizing hormone
  3. Melanocyte stimulating hormone
  4. Prolactin
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3.21) Which gland produces thyroid-stimulating hormone?
  1. Parathyroids
  2. Pituitary
  3. Testes
  4. Thyroid
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3.22) Which of these is an organ of the endocrine system?
  1. Brain
  2. Pancreas
  3. Spleen
  4. Stomach
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3.23) Which hormone controls sodium reabsorption?
  1. Aldosterone
  2. Angiotensin II
  3. Anti-diuretic hormone
  4. Renin
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3.24) Thyroid-stimulating hormone is also known as:
  1. thyroglobulin
  2. thyrotropin
  3. thyroxine
  4. triiodothyronine
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3.25) Which of these hormones is produced by the adrenal cortex?
  1. Cortisol
  2. Epinephrine
  3. Insulin
  4. Norepinephrine
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3.26) What is the functional unit of the kidney?
  1. Glomerular tuft
  2. Glomerulus
  3. Loop of Henle
  4. Nephron
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3.27) In the kidneys, substances travel from the glomerulus into the Bowman capsule by which process?
  1. Active transport
  2. Diffusion
  3. Filtration
  4. Osmosis
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3.28) What color is bilirubin?
  1. Blue
  2. Red
  3. White
  4. Yellow
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3.29) What gives urine its yellow color?
  1. Urea
  2. Uric acid
  3. Urobilin
  4. Urobilinogen
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3.30) Meiosis:
  1. consists of only one stage of cell division, not two
  2. happens in somatic cells
  3. involves the crossing over of genetic material
  4. is how the body grows and replaces worn-out cells
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3.31) What is the motile tail of sperm called?
  1. Dock
  2. Flagellum
  3. Microtubule
  4. Microvillus
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3.32) The sequence of blood cell development in the embryo and fetus is:
  1. bone marrow, liver/spleen, yolk sac
  2. liver/spleen, yolk sac, bone marrow
  3. yolk sac, bone marrow, liver/spleen
  4. yolk sac, liver/spleen, bone marrow
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3.33) Which monosaccharide is the main end product of carbohydrate digestion?
  1. Glucose
  2. Lactose
  3. Maltose
  4. Sucrose
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3.34) Which enzyme breaks down protein in the stomach?
  1. Amylase
  2. Lipase
  3. Pepsin
  4. Trypsin
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3.35) Bright red blood in stools is usually caused by bleeding in the:
  1. higher intestinal tract
  2. lower gastrointestinal tract
  3. small intestine
  4. stomach
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3.36) The small intestine consists of the duodenum, jejunum and:
  1. cecum
  2. colon
  3. ileum
  4. rectum
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3.37) What are the end products of protein digestion?
  1. Amino acids
  2. Fatty acids
  3. Monosaccharides
  4. Triglycerides
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3.38) The digestive tube from the mouth to the anus is called the:
  1. alimentary tract
  2. esophagus
  3. large intestine
  4. small intestine
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3.39) The end products of fat digestion are fatty acids and:
  1. alkaloids
  2. amino acids
  3. glycerol
  4. sebum
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3.40) After leaving the stomach, food next enters the:
  1. esophagus
  2. large intestine
  3. rectum
  4. small intestine
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3.41) Which part of the brain regulates muscle tone and coordination?
  1. Cerebellum
  2. Frontal lobes
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Medulla
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3.42) The brain is located in which cavity?
  1. Abdominal
  2. Cranial
  3. Pericardial
  4. Pleural
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3.43) Which part of the brain regulates heart rate and blood pressure?
  1. Cerebellum
  2. Frontal lobe
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Medulla
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3.44) Nerve cells are also called:
  1. axons
  2. glial cells
  3. neuroglial cells
  4. neurons
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3.45) Neurons that transmit nerve impulses toward the central nervous system are called ____________ neurons.
  1. bipolar
  2. intermediary
  3. motor
  4. sensory
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3.46) The somatic nervous system has which other name?
  1. Parasympathetic
  2. Peripheral
  3. Sympathetic
  4. Voluntary
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3.47) What electrically insulates the axon of a neuron?
  1. Astrocytes
  2. Gray matter
  3. Myelin
  4. White matter
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3.48) The impulse in a neuron moves from the ____________ to the ____________.
  1. Schwann cell, myelin
  2. axon, dendrite
  3. cell body, myelin
  4. dendrite, axon
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3.49) The central nervous system includes the:
  1. brain and spinal cord
  2. heart
  3. somatic nerves
  4. spinal nerves
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3.50) The axon terminal of a motor neuron releases:
  1. acetylcholine
  2. chlorine ions
  3. cholinesterase
  4. sodium ions
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3.51) Which part of a neuron carries impulses away from the cell body?
  1. Axon
  2. Cell body
  3. Dendrite
  4. Myelin sheath
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3.52) The parasympathetic nervous system:
  1. decreases the metabolic rate
  2. is also known as the enteric nervous system
  3. is part of the somatic nervous system
  4. is under voluntary control
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3.53) High levels of which blood gas cause respiratory acidosis?
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Methane
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Oxygen
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3.54) What is the function of the respiratory system?
  1. To make enzymes
  2. To regulate the endocrine system
  3. To regulate the heartbeat
  4. To supply oxygen to tissue
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3.55) Which of these fluids is associated with the lungs?
  1. Gastric
  2. Peritoneal
  3. Pleural
  4. Synovial
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3.56) From the left atrium, blood next flows into the:
  1. aorta
  2. left lung
  3. left ventricle
  4. right atrium
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3.57) Blood returning from the lungs enters which part of the heart?
  1. Left atrium
  2. Left ventricle
  3. Right atrium
  4. Right ventricle
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3.58) What are the smallest blood vessels in the body?
  1. Arteries
  2. Capillaries
  3. Lymph vessels
  4. Veins
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3.59) What is the largest vein in the body?
  1. Aorta
  2. Hepatic portal vein
  3. Inferior vena cava
  4. Pulmonary vein
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3.60) Which skin structure helps prevent water loss and inhibits bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?
  1. Arrector pili
  2. Hair follicles
  3. Oil glands
  4. Sweat glands
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3.61) Which organ system transports carbon dioxide to the lungs?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Lymphatic
  3. Respiratory
  4. Skeletal
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Section 4: Psychological Aspects of Medical Assisting

4.1) A patient is extremely anxious about having her blood drawn. She tells you that she is afraid of needles. You do not have much experience drawing blood. What should you do?
  1. Ask an experienced phlebotomist to perform the draw for you
  2. Explain to her that you will use a small needle that barely hurts
  3. Tell her that it's not a big deal and that she shouldn't be afraid
  4. Use an ice pack to numb the site before drawing the specimen
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4.2) A young woman comes to get her blood drawn. She looks nervous. She says this is her first venipuncture. You should:
  1. carefully explain the procedure to her
  2. give her a stick to bite down on
  3. ignore her nervousness
  4. tell her she is too old to be scared
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4.3) The knowledge, skill, ability, or characteristic associated with high performance on a job, such as problem-solving, analytical thinking, or leadership is called:
  1. competency
  2. human resource training
  3. performance development
  4. work ethic
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4.4) The legal obligation to provide a standard of reasonable care and to avoid careless actions is called:
  1. autonomy
  2. duty of care
  3. nonmaleficence
  4. the Good Samaritan law
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4.5) Pronouncing words clearly is called:
  1. articulation
  2. emphasis
  3. intonation
  4. modulation
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4.6) What is deportment?
  1. The failure to do the right thing
  2. The interference of a worker's personal life with their job
  3. The way a person behaves and presents themselves
  4. Unprofessional behavior at work
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4.7) Falling, rising and fall-rise are the three main patterns of:
  1. emphasis
  2. inflection
  3. intonation
  4. modulation
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4.8) In a business letter, the ______________ names the person the letter should be handed to.
  1. attention line
  2. return address
  3. signature line
  4. subject line
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4.9) How large is letter size paper?
  1. 5 by 8 inches
  2. 8.5 by 11 inches
  3. 11 by 17 inches
  4. 17 by 22 inches
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4.10) In which letter format is every line aligned to the left?
  1. Full block
  2. Modified block
  3. Modified block with indented paragraphs
  4. Modified semi-block
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4.11) Which of these is a correct dateline for a business letter?
  1. 8/20/2024
  2. Aug. 20 2024
  3. Aug. 20, 2024
  4. August 20, 2024
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4.12) In a business letter, the "inside address" is:
  1. the courier's address
  2. the receiver’s address
  3. the return address
  4. the sender's address
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4.13) In formal business letters, which punctuation mark follows the salutation?
  1. Colon
  2. Comma
  3. Period
  4. Semicolon
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4.14) Which of the following is correct phone etiquette?
  1. Ask before putting someone on hold
  2. Do not take notes
  3. Speak quickly
  4. Wait for the phone to ring at least four times before picking up
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4.15) When answering the phone, you should state your name and:
  1. "How are you today?"
  2. the name of your facility
  3. your facility's opening hours
  4. your phone number
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4.16) Which of these is proper phone etiquette?
  1. Introducing yourself upon picking up the phone
  2. Leaving the caller on hold for a long time
  3. Multi-tasking while listening to the caller
  4. Putting an irritated caller on hold
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Section 5: Legal and Ethical Issues

5.1) A term that means 'being held responsible' is:
  1. accountability
  2. communication
  3. competence
  4. safety
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5.2) A nurse misidentifies a patient and gives the patient the wrong medication. As a result, the patient is seriously injured. What type of crime has the nurse committed?
  1. Assault
  2. Battery
  3. Misdemeanour
  4. Negligence
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5.3) What is the term for mechanisms and processes protecting health information from unauthorized access?
  1. Accountability
  2. Confidentiality
  3. Isolation
  4. Security
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5.4) The process where an individual is informed of and agrees to the collection, use and disclosure of personal information is called:
  1. accountability
  2. consent
  3. openness
  4. safeguarding
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5.5) Which of these helps ensure patient confidentiality?
  1. Discarding old records by throwing them into the trash
  2. Giving out patient information to journalists
  3. Sending confidential material via e-mail
  4. Verifying a patient's identity before giving confidential data
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5.6) Patient personal information:
  1. may be discussed during coffee breaks
  2. may be discussed with other patients
  3. may be used for your personal advantage
  4. must never be discussed outside the hospital
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5.7) A lawyer asks a lab technician for copies of his client's test results. What should the lab technician do?
  1. Allow the lawyer to see the results on the computer
  2. Give the results to the lawyer immediately
  3. Have the lawyer sign a Medical Release Form and then release the results
  4. Tell the lawyer to contact the physician who ordered the tests
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5.8) The obligation of a person or organization to not disclose health information is known as:
  1. accountability
  2. confidentiality
  3. privacy
  4. security
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5.9) A patient asks a lab assistant for test results. What should the lab assistant do?
  1. Agree to call the patient at home
  2. Give the results to the patient
  3. Let the patient check their results on the lab computer
  4. Refer the request to the supervisor
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5.10) The process of getting permission from a patient before conducting a healthcare intervention is called:
  1. competency
  2. decision capacity
  3. informed consent
  4. risk management
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5.11) In which of these circumstances does a person's consent to have their information shared NOT need to be obtained?
  1. A media request
  2. A public health occurrence
  3. A request by family
  4. Facility fundraising
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5.12) Informed consent means:
  1. a doctor explains test results to the patient
  2. a patient's medical records are available for healthcare workers to review
  3. the patient agrees to a procedure after being told the consequences associated with it
  4. the patient has the right to see their medical records and test results
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5.13) Under which ethical principle do phlebotomists have a duty to obtain consent from patients before drawing blood?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Justice
  4. Nonmaleficence
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5.14) A patient rolls up his sleeve for a blood draw. Which type of consent is this?
  1. Active
  2. Expressed
  3. Implied
  4. Informed
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5.15) Informed consent is based on which ethical principle?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Fidelity
  4. Veracity
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5.16) If a patient becomes unable to handle their own healthcare decisions, which document allows a proxy to handle the patient's decisions for them?
  1. DNR orders
  2. Living will
  3. Medical power of attorney
  4. Organ donation
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5.17) Living wills concern which of the following?
  1. Division of assets
  2. Funeral costs
  3. Medical treatment
  4. Taxes
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5.18) Which of these is not a requirement for a living will?
  1. At least two adults must witness the declarant signing the will
  2. The declarant must be of sound mind
  3. The declarant must have an uncurable illness
  4. The will must be made in writing
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5.19) Which act requires health care agencies to inform patients with Medicare about advance directives?
  1. Affordable Care Act
  2. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
  3. Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act
  4. Patient Self Determination Act
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5.20) A legal document that specifies the nature and level of treatment that a person wants to receive if they are unable to make decisions for themselves is a(n):
  1. advance directive
  2. delegated act
  3. determination policy
  4. testamentary
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5.21) What is meant by a chain of custody?
  1. Chains used to restrain a prisoner during a forced medical procedure
  2. The hierarchy of caregivers who have custody of a child
  3. The management hierarchy in a hospital
  4. The process of documenting the handling of evidence
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5.22) California is an “at-will” state. This means:
  1. patients have the right to leave the hospital, even if the healthcare provider thinks they should stay
  2. terminally-ill adults can request a drug to end their life
  3. users must take deliberate action to agree to terms and conditions
  4. workers can quit or be fired for any reason, as long as the reason is not illegal
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5.23) A foodborne illness outbreak is when ________ or more people get the same illness from the same contaminated food or drink.
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 5
  4. 10
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5.24) Which Californian law makes it illegal for employers to fire employees for discriminatory reasons?
  1. BCCA
  2. CCPA
  3. CTSCA
  4. FEHA
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5.25) Law originating from court decisions is known as __________ law.
  1. common
  2. public
  3. statute
  4. tort
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5.26) Which type of law enforces legally-binding agreements between two parties?
  1. Contract law
  2. Corporate law
  3. Criminal law
  4. Statute law
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5.27) A law that restricts the time an action may be brought against another party is known as:
  1. a statute of limitations
  2. common law
  3. litigation
  4. summons
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5.28) Common law is also known as ________ law.
  1. case
  2. private
  3. public
  4. universal
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5.29) A phlebotomist collects blood from a 14-year-old girl without consent from her parents. The phlebotomist could be charged with:
  1. battery
  2. invasion of privacy
  3. res ipsa loquitur
  4. vicarious liability
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5.30) A document requiring a person to give testimony at court is called a(n):
  1. affidavit
  2. search warrant
  3. subpoena
  4. summons
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5.31) A failure to take proper care over a task is called:
  1. culpability
  2. fraud
  3. negligence
  4. restitution
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5.32) Who enforces HIPAA?
  1. The Attorney General
  2. The Department of Health and Human Services
  3. The Surgeon General
  4. The US Senate
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5.33) Which act prevents employers from retaliating against workers for complaining about unsafe working conditions?
  1. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
  2. Federal Employees' Compensation Act (FCCA)
  3. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
  4. Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA)
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5.34) In HIPAA, PHI stands for __________ health information.
  1. patient
  2. personal
  3. private
  4. protected
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5.35) What does HIPAA prohibit?
  1. Diverting legal prescriptions for illegal uses
  2. Refusing treatment to patients based on personal dislike
  3. Sharing health information without the patient's consent
  4. Submitting multiple bills for the same service
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5.36) In California, laboratories must report an acute HIV infection to the local health officer within:
  1. eight hours
  2. one working day
  3. 24 hours
  4. 3 days
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5.37) In California, in which situation can a pharmacist fill a prescription written by an unlicensed person?
  1. When the patient has an infectious disease
  2. When the pharmacy is in the hospital where the unlicensed person works
  3. When the prescription is signed by the patient's nurse
  4. When the prescrption contains the name and address of a licensed person
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5.38) In California, all discovery must be completed no later than _______ days before the arbitration hearing.
  1. 3
  2. 7
  3. 15
  4. 28
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5.39) Doctors in California are subject to the standards set forth by the:
  1. AAP
  2. ACA
  3. MPA
  4. MTA
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5.40) California law under 22 CCR §72543 states that patient records should be kept for a minimum of how many years?
  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 8
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5.41) California State law H&SC 118286 makes it illegal to dispose of which type of waste in the trash?
  1. Adult diapers
  2. Home-generated sharps
  3. Medical waste
  4. Unused medications
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5.42) Under the California Business and Professions Code, “patient abandonment” is defined as terminating patient care without written notice that treatment will be discontinued, and without:
  1. ensuring the patient has enough medication for the next 30 days
  2. giving at least 30 days' notice
  3. giving the patient ample time to find another doctor
  4. sending the patient's records to the new doctor
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5.43) The California Sharps and Drug Takeback Bill requires manufacturers:
  1. to offer safe disposal methods for their products
  2. to refund consumers for faulty sharps and drug products
  3. to take back faulty sharps and drug products
  4. to take full responsibility for products disposed of irresponsibly
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5.44) According to the California Health and Safety Code, a practitioner may dispense a controlled substance classified in Schedule II directly to a user in an amount not to exceed a ____ hours supply.
  1. 24
  2. 48
  3. 72
  4. 96
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5.45) In California, laboratories must report a case of malaria to the local health officer within one:
  1. hour
  2. working day
  3. week
  4. month
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5.46) In California, what color are biohazard bags for medical waste?
  1. Orange
  2. Red
  3. Yellow
  4. Black
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5.47) California living will law is encoded in which act?
  1. Final Wishes Act
  2. Natural Death Act
  3. Right to Civil Death Act
  4. Right to Peaceful Death Act
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5.48) California Senate Bill 41 (SB41) is an HIV prevention that allows pharmacists to sell how many syringes to a person without a prescription?
  1. 10
  2. 15
  3. 25
  4. 30
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5.49) In California, laboratories must report a case of smallpox to the local health officer within one:
  1. hour
  2. working day
  3. week
  4. month
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5.50) What is the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act?
  1. An act that protects the privacy of people who undergo blood testing for HIV
  2. An act that provides universal health care to Californians
  3. An act that regulates involuntary commitment to mental health institutions
  4. An act that requires healthcare providers to give a free copy of medical records to patients
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5.51) What is the age of consent in California for the treatment of sexually transmitted diseases?
  1. 12
  2. 13
  3. 14
  4. 15
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5.52) The words "11159.2 exemption" on a prescription in California indicate that a patient is:
  1. HIV-positive
  2. incarcerated
  3. terminally ill
  4. unable to make their own healthcare decisions
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5.53) Which of these complaints would the California medical board NOT investigate?
  1. Billing disputes
  2. Cases of unlicensed practice
  3. Inappropriate prescribing
  4. Sexual misconduct
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5.54) The End of Life Option Act allows terminally ill patients expected to die within six months to end their lives with the assistance of a:
  1. insurer
  2. lawyer
  3. physician
  4. spouse
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5.55) In California, the maximum punishment for illegally prescribing a controlled substance is up to __________ year(s) imprisonment and a fine of up to __________.
  1. 1, $20,000
  2. 2, $40,000
  3. 3, $60,000
  4. 4, $80,000
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5.56) Medical malpractice requires four elements for the plaintiff to recover damages. These elements are duty of care, breach of duty, harm, and:
  1. causation
  2. ethical dilemma
  3. justice
  4. responsibility
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5.57) A terminally ill patient is unable to make her own healthcare decisions. Her living will states that she does not want life-prolonging procedures and she wants to die a natural death. Her physician says she needs a nasogastric tube, which will give her three months more to live. The patient's surrogate decision-maker does not want the tube inserted. Californian law requires the hospital to:
  1. find a new surrogate decision-maker
  2. insert the tube
  3. not insert the tube and let the patient die
  4. wait seven days to make a decision
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5.58) Who does the Good Samaritan Act protect?
  1. Doctors performing euthanasia
  2. Patients giving gifts to doctors
  3. People giving first aid
  4. People who find lost property
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5.59) What is drug diversion?
  1. The deflection of prescription medications into the illegal market
  2. The gradual reduction of a patient's dependence on an addictive drug
  3. The transition of a patient from a brand-name medication to a generic medication
  4. The transition of a patient from an addictive drug to a less addictive drug
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5.60) The Affordable Care Act is also known as:
  1. Medicaid
  2. Medicare
  3. Medicare Advantage
  4. Obamacare
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Section 6: Patient Education

6.1) What blood test does PPT stand for?
  1. Partial thrombin time
  2. Partial thromboplastin time
  3. Proportional thrombin time
  4. Proportional thromboplastin time
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6.2) A lack or shortage of a vitamin or mineral is called a:
  1. anemia
  2. deficiency
  3. scarcity
  4. toxicity
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6.3) Night blindness is caused by a deficiency in which vitamin?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B12
  3. Vitamin B6
  4. Vitamin C
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6.4) In which disease is the body unable to use glucose for energy?
  1. Diabetes
  2. Hyperglycemia
  3. Hypoglycemia
  4. Stroke
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6.5) Which of these fibers is insoluble?
  1. Cellulose
  2. Mucilage
  3. Psyllium
  4. Wheat dextrin
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6.6) What dietary advice should be given to hypertensive patients?
  1. Eliminate lactose from the diet
  2. Increase saturated fats by 30%
  3. Limit salt intake to 2 to 3 g per day
  4. Restrict potassium intake
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6.7) A patient needs to eat 25 grams of fiber per day. If she starts the day with two 2 pieces of toast, and each piece of toast contains 2.2 g of fiber, then how many grams of fiber does she still need to eat that day?
  1. 20.6
  2. 22.2
  3. 23.8
  4. 24.2
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6.8) Which of these foods is a good source of vitamin E?
  1. Citrus fruits
  2. Lean meats
  3. Milk and dairy products
  4. Vegetable oils
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6.9) What is the difference between vitamins and minerals?
  1. Vitamins are always needed in larger amounts than minerals
  2. Vitamins are essential whereas nutrients are not essential
  3. Vitamins are organic whereas minerals are inorganic
  4. Vitamins provide energy whereas minerals help the body to use energy
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6.10) Which of these is colloquially known as bad cholesterol?
  1. Fat
  2. HDL
  3. LDL
  4. Triglyceride
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6.11) Food labels list ingredients in which order?
  1. Alphabetical order
  2. By the manufacturer's order of preference
  3. Descending order by weight
  4. The most harmful ingredients first
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6.12) To establish an estimated energy requirement (EER) for a patient, you need to know their age, gender, weight, height, and:
  1. bone mineral density
  2. heart rate
  3. income
  4. level of physical activity
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6.13) Basal metabolic rate accounts for approximately ________ of total daily energy expenditure in individuals with a sedentary occupation.
  1. 20–35%
  2. 40–55%
  3. 60–75%
  4. 80–95%
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6.14) What is the recommended daily calorie intake for men?
  1. 500 calories
  2. 1,500 calories
  3. 2,500 calories
  4. 3,500 calories
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6.15) What is the main carbohydrate in milk?
  1. Glycogen
  2. Lactose
  3. Starch
  4. Sucrose
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6.16) Patients who eat little fiber, drink inadequate fluids, and have sedentary lifestyles are likely to experience which dietary symptom?
  1. Constipation
  2. Diarrhea
  3. Heartburn
  4. Vomiting
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6.17) Which of the following is one of the six classes of nutrients?
  1. Antioxidants
  2. Fiber
  3. Starch
  4. Water
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6.18) Calculate the glycemic load of 50 g of white rice. Assume white rice has a glycemic index of 70.
  1. 0.714
  2. 1.4
  3. 3,500
  4. 35
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6.19) To provide protection against neural tube defects, when should a woman start taking folate?
  1. After the pregnancy has been confirmed
  2. At the start of the second trimester
  3. At the start of the third trimester
  4. At the time of conception
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6.20) Menstruating women need more _________ than men and older women.
  1. calories
  2. iron
  3. protein
  4. vitamin K
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6.21) Which of these is an essential amino acid?
  1. Alanine
  2. Asparagine
  3. Lysine
  4. Serine
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6.22) Which of these foods can be eaten on a low-fat diet?
  1. Cake with icing
  2. Chicken with skin attached
  3. Skinless chicken breast
  4. Whole milk
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6.23) Calculate the glycemic load of 50 g of bread, assuming bread has a glycemic index of 90.
  1. 45
  2. 50
  3. 90
  4. 140
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6.24) What are the three major disaccharides?
  1. Glucose, galactose, and fructose
  2. Glucose, lactose, and sucrose
  3. Lactose, fructose, and galactose
  4. Sucrose, lactose, and maltose
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6.25) Which of these foods has the lowest glycemic index?
  1. Broccoli
  2. Meat
  3. Potatoes
  4. Rice
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6.26) Which of these foods is highest in folate?
  1. Green, leafy vegetables
  2. Meats
  3. Mlik
  4. Vegetable oil
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6.27) Which of the following does not contain calories?
  1. Beer
  2. Soluble fiber
  3. Vodka
  4. Water
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6.28) Which of these foods should a lactose-intolerant patient avoid?
  1. Apples
  2. Feta
  3. Potatoes
  4. Rice
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6.29) Which of the following lipids is an essential nutrient?
  1. Cholesterol
  2. Lecithin
  3. Linoleic acid
  4. Stearic acid
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6.30) Which of these statements about carbohydrate loading is true?
  1. It is a strategy used by diabetics
  2. It is key for weight loss activities
  3. It is recommended for anyone exercising
  4. It is used to build glycogen stores
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6.31) A patient is 2 meters tall and weighs 100 kg. Calculate the patient's body mass index.
  1. 15
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. 40
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6.32) Which of these foods is high in omega-3 fatty acids?
  1. Beef
  2. Chicken
  3. Fish
  4. Lamb
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6.33) Which vitamin do pregnant women take to help prevent neural tube defects in the fetus?
  1. Biotin
  2. Folic acid
  3. Niacin
  4. Pantothenic acid
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6.34) What is the recommended daily calorie intake for women?
  1. 1,500 calories
  2. 2,000 calories
  3. 2,500 calories
  4. 3,000 calories
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6.35) Which of the following is low in sodium?
  1. Bacon
  2. Bread
  3. Cheese
  4. Milk
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6.36) A 750 mL bottle of red wine is 18% alcohol. How much alcohol does the bottle contain?
  1. 95 mL
  2. 135 mL
  3. 175 mL
  4. 215 mL
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6.37) Which of these foods contains no sugar?
  1. Milk
  2. Nuts
  3. Olive oil
  4. Seeds
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6.38) Which lipoprotein is the smallest?
  1. Chylomicron
  2. High-density lipoprotein
  3. Low-density lipoprotein
  4. Very-low-density lipoprotein
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6.39) Which body tissue stores unneeded, extra energy?
  1. Bone
  2. Fat
  3. Muscle
  4. Skin
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6.40) Which of these is included in a complete blood count?
  1. Cholesterol levels
  2. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  3. Hematocrit
  4. pH
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6.41) Urine samples for culture should be collected in containers that:
  1. are narrow-mouthed
  2. are sterile
  3. contain an anticoagulant
  4. have been cleaned with disinfectant
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6.42) Identify the false statement regarding 24-hour urine collection.
  1. A preservative may be used for some tests
  2. Collections during the night are discarded
  3. Testing is done in clinical chemistry
  4. The first timed specimen is discarded
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6.43) Which urine collection technique involves collecting the urine by inserting a sterile needle into the patient's bladder through the abdominal wall?
  1. Biopsy
  2. Necropsy
  3. Suprapubic aspiration
  4. Urinary catheter
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6.44) Clean-catch urine specimens are necessary when testing urine for:
  1. bacteria
  2. glucose
  3. occult blood
  4. protein
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6.45) A patient with GERD should avoid which of these foods?
  1. Chocolate
  2. Egg whites
  3. Ginger
  4. Oatmeal
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6.46) Which of these is a non-modifiable risk factor for heart disease?
  1. Age
  2. Obesity
  3. Physical inactivity
  4. Tobacco use
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6.47) Which of these terms would patients most easily understand?
  1. Dilation
  2. Erythema
  3. Purpura
  4. Redness
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6.48) Which of these could cause high blood glucose levels in a diabetic patient?
  1. A low-carb diet
  2. Missed insulin injections
  3. Missed meals
  4. Too much insulin
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6.49) What type of exercise is running?
  1. High impact
  2. Low impact
  3. Medium impact
  4. No impact
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6.50) Which of these health problems is related to poor nutrition and lifestyle factors?
  1. Hemochromatosis
  2. Hypertension
  3. Lyme disease
  4. Thalassemia
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6.51) Diabetics should eat a diet low in:
  1. dairy products
  2. gluten
  3. salt
  4. sugar
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6.52) What does the acronym FITT stand for?
  1. Fitness, intensity, time, and type
  2. Fitness, intensity, total, and type
  3. Frequency, intensity, time, and type
  4. Frequency, intensity, total, and type
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6.53) A diabetic patient experiencing hypoglycemia should:
  1. check their urine for ketones
  2. eat sugar
  3. inject themselves with insulin
  4. run on the spot
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6.54) A diabetic patient eats a meal containing 70 g of carbohydrate. Their insulin-to-carbohydrate ratio is 1 unit of bolus insulin for every 10 g of carbohydrate. How many units of bolus insulin do they need to take?
  1. 1 unit
  2. 7 units
  3. 10 units
  4. 70 units
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6.55) Patients with heart disease should lower their intake of:
  1. fish
  2. fruit
  3. potassium
  4. salt
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6.56) What supplement is recommended for osteoporosis?
  1. Calcium
  2. Iron
  3. Thiamine
  4. Vitamin K
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6.57) What type of exercise produces the most stress on the joints?
  1. High impact
  2. Low impact
  3. Medium impact
  4. No impact
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6.58) Patches, ointments, creams, liquids and sprays are given via which route of drug administration?
  1. Otic
  2. Sublingual
  3. Topical
  4. Urethral
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6.59) A patient requires 600 mg of Tagamet but only 300 mg tablets are available. How many tablets should the patient take?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
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6.60) Which route of drug administration uses ear drops?
  1. Buccal
  2. Otic
  3. Parenteral
  4. Sublingual
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6.61) Which of these medications lowers the level of LDL cholesterol in the blood?
  1. Beta-blockers
  2. Corticosteroid
  3. Diuretics
  4. Statins
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6.62) A medication indicated as PRN should be taken:
  1. by mouth
  2. once a day
  3. rectally
  4. when needed
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6.63) What is the pharmacy abbreviation for "once per day"?
  1. q.d.
  2. q.h.
  3. q.i.d.
  4. q.o.d.
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6.64) What is the pharmacy abbreviation for the right ear?
  1. AD
  2. AS
  3. ASA
  4. AU
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6.65) A patient has a prescription that says "1 tab PO qd". What does this mean?
  1. Take 1 tablet after meals and 1 tablet at bedtime
  2. Take 1 tablet every day by mouth
  3. Take 1 tablet four times a day with meals
  4. Take 1 tablet rectally at bedtime
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6.66) What does the pharmaceutical abbreviation "pc" mean?
  1. After meals
  2. At bedtime
  3. Before meals
  4. In the morning
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6.67) What does the pharmaceutical abbreviation "qid" mean?
  1. Every day
  2. Every hour
  3. Four days a week
  4. Four times a day
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6.68) What is the pharmacy abbreviation for "by mouth"?
  1. ou
  2. po
  3. pr
  4. pv
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6.69) Which of these is a kidney function test?
  1. BUN
  2. CBC
  3. HCT
  4. INR
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6.70) Which of these cholesterol results indicates an increased risk for cardiovascular disease?
  1. Low HDL and high LDL
  2. Low LDL and high HDL
  3. Low VLDL and high HDL
  4. Low chylomicrons and high HDL
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