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AMT CMLA Practice Questions

Number of questions: 300

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About the AMT CMLA exam

The AMT CMLA (Certified Medical Laboratory Assistant) certification exam is set by the American Medical Technologists (AMT). Passing the exam proves to employers that you can work in a laboratory as a medical laboratory assistant.

The exam contains 200 questions. All questions are multiple-choice.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the AMT CMLA exam.

This page contains 300 practice questions divided into the four sections of the exam: 1. Laboratory Safety and Quality, 2. Pre-examination (Preanalytical) Considerations, 3. Examination (Analytical) Considerations, and 4. Patient Test Management, Communications, and Foundations.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Sections

  1. Laboratory Safety and Quality
  2. Pre-examination (Preanalytical) Considerations
  3. Examination (Analytical) Considerations
  4. Patient Test Management, Communications, and Foundations

Section 1: Laboratory Safety and Quality

1.1) For data distributed normally, how many values are within one standard deviation from the mean?
  1. 50%
  2. 68%
  3. 83%
  4. 95%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) For data distributed normally, how many values are within three standard deviations from the mean?
  1. 68%
  2. 83%
  3. 95%
  4. 99.7%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) For data distributed normally, how many values are within two standard deviations from the mean?
  1. 50%
  2. 68%
  3. 83%
  4. 95%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) What does the standard deviation tell you?
  1. How many errors are in the data set
  2. How spread out the data is
  3. The average value in the data set
  4. The number the data tends to cluster around
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) What is the final step in calculating the standard deviation?
  1. Calculate the mean
  2. Calculate the mean of the squared differences
  3. Find the square root of the variance
  4. For each number, subtract the mean and square the result
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) Which formula calculates the coefficient of variation?
  1. (Mean × 100) / standard deviation
  2. (Standard deviation × 100) / standard error
  3. (Standard deviation) / mean × 100
  4. (Variance × 100) / mean
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) Which statistic is a measure of the amount of variation or dispersion of a set of values?
  1. Mean
  2. Median
  3. Mode
  4. Standard deviation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) If you add up all the values in a set and then divide the total by the number of values, you get the:
  1. coefficient of variation
  2. mean
  3. median
  4. mode
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) In which of these situations should a lab technician remove their gloves?
  1. Before carrying specimens through a designated clean area
  2. Before loading the autoclave
  3. Before using a restroom
  4. For cleaning a chemical spill
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) Insidious hazards are hazards that:
  1. are easily overlooked
  2. happen quickly
  3. involve chemicals
  4. involve fumes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) Which link in the chain of infection is a skin cut?
  1. Mode of transmission
  2. Portal of entry
  3. Reservoir
  4. Susceptible host
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) What is the first action that should be taken if a patient's body fluid splashes into the eyes?
  1. Call 911
  2. Determine whether the patient has an infectious disease
  3. Flush the eyes with water
  4. Make an entry in the accident log book
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) What is the single most important method of preventing infection?
  1. Proper handwashing
  2. Sneezing into your arm
  3. Thorough cleaning of equipment
  4. Wearing a lab coat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) Universal precautions apply to which type of hazard?
  1. Bloodborne pathogens
  2. Dangerous chemicals
  3. Environmental hazards
  4. Radiation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) Universal precautions are based on what assumption?
  1. All laboratory chemicals may be carcinogenic
  2. All specimens are potentially infectious
  3. Equipment is not sterile
  4. Handwashing is the best way to prevent the spread of infection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) The responsibility for identifying employees at risk of exposure to blood or OPIM lies with the:
  1. employer
  2. government
  3. patient
  4. union
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) What is post-exposure prophylaxis?
  1. An auto-immune disease
  2. The inability to breathe after exposure to an allergen
  3. The protocol for cleaning a laboratory after the release of a dangerous pathogen
  4. Treatment after exposure to a pathogen to prevent infection from occurring
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) Which of these is an OPIM (other potentially infectious material)?
  1. Saliva
  2. Semen
  3. Urine
  4. Vomit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) How many sections are in a standard GHS safety data sheet?
  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 16
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) What does this pictogram mean?
  1. Flammable
  2. Oxidizing
  3. Self-heating
  4. Self-reactive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) What does this pictogram mean?
  1. Biohazard
  2. Carcinogenic
  3. Corrosive
  4. Toxic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) Bottles of organic peroxides require which two pictograms?
  1. Flame and exploding bomb
  2. Flame and flame over a circle
  3. Health hazard and exclamation mark
  4. Health hazard and gas cylinder
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) Gases under pressure require a pictogram of:
  1. a flame
  2. a flame over a circle
  3. a gas cylinder
  4. an exploding test tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.24) External quality assessment schemes are also known as:
  1. compliance
  2. proficiency testing
  3. quality assurance
  4. quality management systems
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.25) ___________ structures emphasize the lateral relationships in an organization and allow the organization to use resources for customer satisfaction. These structure focus on the system driving the structure and the customer defining the performance.
  1. Matrix
  2. Network
  3. Process-based
  4. Self-contained unit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.26) Which leadership model was proposed by Douglas McGregor in 1960 and suggests that managers operate from two sets of expectations about employees' attitudes and abilities that ultimately influence their work performance?
  1. Matear's model
  2. The Blake-Mouton model
  3. The Lorenzi-Riley model
  4. Theory X-Theory Y model
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.27) Specific statements of anticipated results that further define the organization's objectives are:
  1. goals
  2. key issues
  3. tactics
  4. the mission
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.28) What are the four steps of the Shewhart Cycle?
  1. Analyze, create, inspect, create again
  2. Initiate, plan, execute, close
  3. Plan, do, check, act
  4. Specify, produce, inspect, change
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.29) ____________ develops creative solutions by focusing on the problem, coming up with many unbounded solutions, and then pushing the ideas as far as possible.
  1. Benchmarking
  2. Brainstorming
  3. PMI (plus/minus/interesting)
  4. Pareto charts
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.30) Which problem-solving methodology consists of the phases Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control?
  1. Lean
  2. Pareto charts
  3. Shewhart cycle
  4. Six Sigma
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.31) The purpose of a ____________________ is to document the characteristics of the job and the requirements of the candidate.
  1. competency evaluation
  2. job analysis
  3. job description
  4. performance evaluation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.32) Which of these situations would cause random errors?
  1. A lab assistant who reads the volume of liquids in flasks at a different angle every time
  2. A plastic tape measure that has become slightly stretched over the years
  3. A scale that has been incorrectly calibrated and always gives a value 10 g lighter than the real weight
  4. A thermometer that always reads 2 degrees too high
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.33) Random errors mainly affect:
  1. accuracy
  2. external validity
  3. internal validity
  4. precision
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.34) Precise values:
  1. are caused by random errors
  2. are close to the true value
  3. are the same as the true value
  4. fall within a narrow range
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.35) Which term means the extent to which measurements agree with the true value?
  1. Accuracy
  2. Precision
  3. Reliability
  4. Reproducibility
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.36) The quality control chart of an instrument shows ten consecutive data points on one side of the mean. What should you do?
  1. Accept the run
  2. Reject the run and follow the method's troubleshooting procedures
  3. Repeat the control sera on the next run
  4. Report the results with a disclaimer that they may be erroneous
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.37) Designing the laboratory workspace to improve workflow and ergonomics is part of which quality system essential (QSE)?
  1. Facilities and Safety Management
  2. Nonconforming Event Management
  3. Personnel Management
  4. Process Management
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.38) In OSHA's hierarchy of controls, what is the least effective type of hazard control?
  1. Administrative controls
  2. Engineering controls
  3. Personal protective equipment
  4. Substitution
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.39) If a worker suffers an accident at work and has to be hospitalized, how soon must the employer notify OSHA?
  1. Immediately
  2. Within 12 hours
  3. Within 24 hours
  4. Within 8 hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.40) In OSHA, a(n) __________ person is defined as "one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has the authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them."
  1. authorized
  2. capable
  3. competent
  4. qualified
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.41) In OSHA's hierarchy of controls, what is the most effective type of hazard control?
  1. Administrative controls
  2. Elimination
  3. Engineering controls
  4. Substitution
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.42) Under the Occupational Safety and Health Act, employers have a responsibility to provide:
  1. a safe workplace
  2. extra training for disabled workers
  3. health insurance
  4. work breaks
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.43) Which GHS pictogram is optional?
  1. Environment
  2. Exclamation mark
  3. Flame over circle
  4. Gas cylinder
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.44) What federal agency monitors the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
  1. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
  2. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
  3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
  4. United States Public Health Service (USPHS)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.45) What act gives workers the right to know about hazards in the workplace?
  1. Health Care Consent Act
  2. Occupational Safety and Health Act
  3. Privacy Act
  4. SAFETY Act
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.46) What worldwide system gives recommendations on how to label hazardous chemicals?
  1. GHS
  2. HCS
  3. HPR
  4. HazCom
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.47) The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals has two signal words for hazardous chemicals: "Danger" and:
  1. Attention
  2. Caution
  3. Notice
  4. Warning
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.48) What are the three GHS hazard classes?
  1. Biological, chemical, and radiation
  2. Health, physical, and environmental
  3. Physical, psychosocial, and psychological
  4. Slips, trips, and falls
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.49) According to the GHS Hazard Classification, which of these is a type of physical hazard?
  1. Carcinogenicity
  2. Eye effects
  3. Flammable gases
  4. Skin irritation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.50) Which level of Bloom's taxonomy is the ability to break learned material into its parts to understand its organizational structure better?
  1. Analysis
  2. Application
  3. Comprehension
  4. Synthesis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Pre-examination (Preanalytical) Considerations

2.1) Which of these specimens has the highest priority?
  1. Fasting
  2. Post-op
  3. Stat
  4. Urgent
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) Which of these status designations has the same priority as Stat?
  1. Med Emerg
  2. Postop
  3. Preop
  4. Timed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) A patient is extremely anxious about having her blood drawn. She tells you that she is afraid of needles. You do not have much experience drawing blood. What should you do?
  1. Ask an experienced phlebotomist to perform the draw for you
  2. Explain to her that you will use a small needle that barely hurts
  3. Tell her that it's not a big deal and that she shouldn't be afraid
  4. Use an ice pack to numb the site before drawing the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) A young woman comes to get her blood drawn. She looks nervous. She says this is her first venipuncture. You should:
  1. carefully explain the procedure to her
  2. give her a stick to bite down on
  3. ignore her nervousness
  4. tell her she is too old to be scared
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) Which of these actions can help a phlebotomist find a difficult vein?
  1. Ask the patient to hold their arm up in the air
  2. Ask the patient to make a fist
  3. Cool the area with an ice pack
  4. Tell the patient to drink nothing and come back in a few hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) A patient has an IV in his left wrist and a cast on his right arm. Which site should be used to obtain a blood sample?
  1. A vein in the left hand
  2. An earlobe
  3. The left median cubital vein
  4. The right median cubital vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) Tourniquets should be:
  1. applied very tightly to the arm
  2. left on the arm for at least three minutes
  3. tight enough to slow arterial flow
  4. tight enough to slow venous flow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) What is the purpose of a tourniquet in venipuncture?
  1. To decrease the oxygen level
  2. To make the veins more prominent
  3. To monitor blood pressure
  4. To prevent hematoma
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) What should you do if a patient faints during a venipuncture?
  1. Continue the procedure until all blood is collected
  2. Leave the needle in the vein and call the physician
  3. Remove the needle and attend to the patient
  4. Yell loudly at the patient to keep him conscious
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) During phlebotomy, in which direction should the bevel be facing when the needle enters the arm?
  1. Downwards
  2. To the left
  3. To the right
  4. Upwards
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) Which of these is a sign that an artery has been punctured instead of a vein during phlebotomy?
  1. The blood is dark blue
  2. The blood spurts into the tube
  3. The patient feels intense pain
  4. The patient has trouble breathing
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) A phlebotomist is performing a venipuncture. The needle is in place but no blood is entering the tube. What is the first thing the phlebotomist should do?
  1. Change to pediatric tubes
  2. Discontinue the draw and cancel the requisition
  3. Switch to a winged blood collection set
  4. Try adjusting the needle slightly
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) When a phlebotomist inserts a needle into the patient's arm, bright red blood spurts into the vacutainer. What does this indicate?
  1. A high hematocrit
  2. A low blood pH
  3. An arterial puncture
  4. Carbon monoxide poisoning
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) Which vacutainer tube is for collecting a blood sample for a Factor IX assay?
  1. Gray
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) Which of these vacutainer tubes does NOT contain an anticoagulant?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) A phlebotomist has to collect a purple top tube, green top tube, and light blue top tube from the same patient. In which order should the phlebotomist fill the tubes?
  1. Green, light blue, purple
  2. Green, purple, light blue
  3. Light blue, green, purple
  4. Purple, green, light blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) Westergren tubes are used for which test?
  1. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Microhematocrit
  4. Reticulocyte count
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) Which tube would be drawn for an antinuclear antibody test (ANA)?
  1. Gray
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) What are cross-match tubes used for?
  1. Blood compatibility testing
  2. Coagulation studies
  3. Glucose tests
  4. Trace element studies
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) EDTA prevents clotting by binding to:
  1. anti-hemophilia factor
  2. calcium ions
  3. fibrinogen
  4. prothrombin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) What anticoagulant is in a green top vacutainer?
  1. Citrate
  2. EDTA
  3. Fluoride
  4. Heparin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) A phlebotomist needs to collect blood samples from a patient for a blood glucose test and a hemoglobin test. What color tubes should the phlebotomist use?
  1. Gray and green
  2. Gray and lavender
  3. Gray and red
  4. Red and green
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) Gray-top vacutainers contain which anticoagulant?
  1. Heparin
  2. Potassium oxalate
  3. SPS
  4. Sodium polyanethole sulfonate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) What color Vacutainer tube is used for erythrocyte sedimentation rates?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) Some royal blue top tubes contain _____________ as an anticoagulant.
  1. EDTA
  2. lithium heparin
  3. sodium citrate
  4. sodium heparin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) What vacutainer tube is used for coagulation studies?
  1. Black
  2. Gray
  3. Green
  4. Light blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) What color tube is used for stat chemistry tests?
  1. Green
  2. Light blue
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) Light blue top tubes are used for what tests?
  1. Chemistry
  2. Coagulation
  3. Hematology
  4. Serology
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) What additive prevents glycolysis in blood samples?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Potassium oxalate
  4. Sodium fluoride
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) Which of these tubes contains EDTA?
  1. Gray
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Light green
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) What color is the top of a plasma separator tube?
  1. Green
  2. Light blue
  3. Purple
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) Which of these additives provides a physical barrier to prevent glycolysis?
  1. EDTA
  2. Silica
  3. Sodium fluoride
  4. Thixotropic gel
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) Which vacutainer tube has a light yellow top?
  1. PST
  2. SPS
  3. SST
  4. Sodium heparin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) Venipuncture needles are color-coded according to their:
  1. expiration date
  2. gauge
  3. length
  4. manufacturer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) Which tool is needed to collect blood by syringe?
  1. Multisample needle
  2. Transfer device
  3. Tube holder
  4. Winged infusion set
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) A winged infusion set is also called a:
  1. Milliner's needle
  2. butterfly needle
  3. straight needle
  4. universal needle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) When should you label a blood collection tube?
  1. As soon as you receive the test order
  2. Just before the patient arrives
  3. Before you collect the specimen
  4. After you collect the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) Plasma is obtained by:
  1. centrifuging a clotted tube
  2. using a red stoppered tube
  3. using a tube containing an anticoagulant
  4. using a tube that does not contain an anticoagulant
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) When a blood specimen in a gray-top tube is centrifuged, what does it separate into?
  1. Plasma, buffy coat and red blood cells
  2. Plasma, buffy coat and white blood cells
  3. Serum, buffy coat and red blood cells
  4. Serum, buffy coat and white blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) What is a buffy coat made of?
  1. Granulocytes and fibrin
  2. Red blood cells and granulocytes
  3. Reticulocytes and granulocytes
  4. White blood cells and platelets
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) A lab technician is performing a microhematocrit. She collects a blood sample in a microhematocrit tube and inverts the tube carefully to mix the blood with the heparin. What must the she do next before putting the tube in the centrifuge?
  1. Add controlled volumes of saline to the tube
  2. Add washed sensitized cells to the tube
  3. Remove gloves and wash hands
  4. Seal one end of the tube with clay
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.42) When preparing a blood smear, which of these could cause the blood smear to be too thin?
  1. A small drop size
  2. Holding the spreader at a high angle
  3. Spreading the blood too slowly
  4. Using transfused blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.43) Why is it important to control the depth of the lancet insertion during heel puncture?
  1. To avoid puncturing a vein
  2. To prevent bacterial contamination
  3. To prevent bone injury
  4. To prevent excessive bleeding
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.44) Which specimen is used for coagulation testing?
  1. Plasma
  2. Serum
  3. Urine
  4. Whole blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.45) Which sample does the glycosylated hemoglobin test require?
  1. Plasma
  2. Serum
  3. Urine
  4. Whole blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.46) The sweat test is used to diagnose which disease?
  1. Cystic fibrosis
  2. Infection
  3. Muscular dystrophy
  4. Pneumonia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.47) What area should you swab to obtain a throat culture?
  1. Larynx
  2. Oral mucosa
  3. Pharynx
  4. Trachea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.48) The sweat test measures the amount of _________ in sweat.
  1. chloride
  2. copper
  3. lead
  4. phosphatase
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.49) There are two reasons why phlebotomists should wipe away the first drop of blood when performing a capillary puncture. The first reason is to remove traces of alcohol. What is the second reason?
  1. The first drop of blood contains excess tissue fluid
  2. The first drop of blood is high in clotting factors
  3. To increase blood flow to the area
  4. To remove pathogens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.50) What is the main reason a capillary puncture site is warmed beforehand?
  1. To delay clotting
  2. To increase blood flow
  3. To minimize contamination
  4. To reduce hemoconcentration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.51) Which of these tests is collected first during a single capillary puncture?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Electrolytes
  3. Glucose
  4. Phosphorus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.52) Which test requires avoiding foods high in serotonin such as avocados, bananas, and pineapple?
  1. 5-H1AA urine test
  2. 72- hour fecal fat test
  3. Lipid profile
  4. Stool culture and sensitivity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.53) Which reagent tablet tests for the presence of glucose in urine?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. TCA
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.54) Clean-catch urine specimens are necessary when testing urine for:
  1. bacteria
  2. glucose
  3. occult blood
  4. protein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.55) 2-hr PC means 2 hours:
  1. after a meal
  2. after an operation
  3. before a meal
  4. before an operation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.56) Why are finger punctures made at right angles to fingerprint striations?
  1. To facilitate blood sample collection
  2. To prevent excessive bleeding
  3. To prevent scar formation
  4. To reduce pain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.57) A fasting patient has cloudy white serum. What condition does the patient have?
  1. Hemolysis
  2. Hyperbilirubinemia
  3. Hyperthyroidism
  4. Hypertriglyceridemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.58) Which of these specimens needs to be kept at 35–37°C?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Feces
  3. Throat swab
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.59) A buffer is made by mixing a weak acid or weak base with:
  1. a salt solution
  2. a strong acid or strong base
  3. acetic acid
  4. its conjugate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Examination (Analytical) Considerations

3.1) What is normal flora?
  1. A contagious disease passed from physician to patient
  2. A disease that affects the skin
  3. Fungi that will only grow on MacConkey agar
  4. Harmless microorganisms that live on the body
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) _________________ inhabit a body surface or cavity for only a brief period.
  1. Normal flora
  2. Resident flora
  3. Skin flora
  4. Transient flora
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) Which of these is an enzyme?
  1. Glucagon
  2. Glucose
  3. Lipase
  4. Lipid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) What is the basic structural and functional unit of the human body?
  1. The cell
  2. The organ
  3. The system
  4. Tissue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) The study of how the body functions is called:
  1. anatomy
  2. histology
  3. microbiology
  4. physiology
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) Which element is the basis of organic chemistry?
  1. Carbon
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Oxygen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Which of these is a type of connective tissue?
  1. Areolar
  2. Cuboidal
  3. Squamous
  4. Transitional
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) Oxygen and nutrients pass from the blood to the tissues via the:
  1. arteries
  2. arterioles
  3. capillaries
  4. lymphatic vessels
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) Which of these tests would most be affected if a patient was taking an anticoagulant medication?
  1. Prothrombin time
  2. Red blood cell count
  3. White blood cell count
  4. Hematocrit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) When a blood vessel is damaged, what is the first process that occurs?
  1. Coagulation
  2. Hemolysis
  3. Platelet plug formation
  4. Vasoconstriction
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Grade 1 tumors grow ________ and have cells that look _________.
  1. quickly, abnormal
  2. quickly, normal
  3. slowly, abnormal
  4. slowly, normal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) Congenital toxoplasmosis can cause:
  1. a urinary tract infection
  2. congenital heart disease
  3. malformation of the central nervous system
  4. muscular disorders
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) Around ________ of an adult's body weight is blood.
  1. 2%
  2. 8%
  3. 16%
  4. 22%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) Formed elements are:
  1. blood plasma
  2. blood serum
  3. the clotting factors in blood
  4. white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) Hemoglobin A consists of:
  1. five alpha chains
  2. one alpha chain, one beta chain, and one delta chain
  3. three delta chains
  4. two alpha chains and two beta chains
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) How many oxygen molecules can bind to a hemoglobin molecule?
  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) Which blood component is the body's major defense against invading bacteria and viruses?
  1. Plasma
  2. Platelets
  3. Red blood cells
  4. White blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) 55% of the volume of blood is:
  1. plasma
  2. platelets
  3. red blood cells
  4. white blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) What is erythropoiesis?
  1. Decreased tissue demand for oxygen
  2. Hypoxia of cells that produce erythropoietin
  3. The destruction of red blood cells
  4. The process of red blood cells production
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) Bilirubin is a product of the breakdown of which compound?
  1. Albumin
  2. Heme
  3. Urobilin
  4. Urobilinogen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) Most iron in the body is bound to which protein?
  1. Ferritin
  2. Fibrin
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Myoglobin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) Bilirubin is a waste product produced by the breakdown of which cells?
  1. Mast cells
  2. Platelets
  3. Red blood cells
  4. White blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Natural killer cells are what type of white blood cell?
  1. Basophil
  2. Eosinophil
  3. Lymphocyte
  4. Monocyte
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) Occipital, sphenoid, frontal, temporal, and ethmoid are all bones of the:
  1. cranium
  2. face
  3. pelvis
  4. spine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) Which of these is an organ of the endocrine system?
  1. Brain
  2. Pancreas
  3. Spleen
  4. Stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) Which hormone lowers blood glucose levels?
  1. FSH
  2. Glucagon
  3. Insulin
  4. Progesterone
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) Which hormone is also known as epinephrine?
  1. Adrenaline
  2. Cortisol
  3. Testosterone
  4. Vasopressin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) In the kidneys, substances travel from the glomerulus into the Bowman capsule by which process?
  1. Active transport
  2. Diffusion
  3. Filtration
  4. Osmosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) The end products of fat digestion are fatty acids and:
  1. alkaloids
  2. amino acids
  3. glycerol
  4. sebum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) The digestive tube from the mouth to the anus is called the:
  1. alimentary tract
  2. esophagus
  3. large intestine
  4. small intestine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) The impulse in a neuron moves from the ____________ to the ____________.
  1. Schwann cell, myelin
  2. axon, dendrite
  3. cell body, myelin
  4. dendrite, axon
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) The somatic nervous system has which other name?
  1. Parasympathetic
  2. Peripheral
  3. Sympathetic
  4. Voluntary
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) Which part of the brain regulates muscle tone and coordination?
  1. Cerebellum
  2. Frontal lobes
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Medulla
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) Which part of a neuron carries impulses away from the cell body?
  1. Axon
  2. Cell body
  3. Dendrite
  4. Myelin sheath
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) Which skin structure helps prevent water loss and inhibits bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?
  1. Arrector pili
  2. Hair follicles
  3. Oil glands
  4. Sweat glands
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) In which organelle does ATP production occur?
  1. Flagellum
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Mitochondrion
  4. Nucleus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) What is the largest cell in the body?
  1. Liver cell
  2. Ovum
  3. Sperm
  4. White blood cell
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) Which organ system detects changes to the internal and external environments of the body and directs a response?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Endocrine
  3. Nervous
  4. Respiratory
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.39) Which organ balances sodium and potassium in the body?
  1. Bladder
  2. Kidney
  3. Lungs
  4. Stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.40) Which enzyme joins fragments of DNA together?
  1. DNase
  2. Hexonuclease
  3. Ligase
  4. Primase
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.41) DNA polymerase can synthesize:
  1. DNA in the 3' to 5' direction
  2. DNA in the 5' to 3' direction
  3. RNA in the 3' to 5' direction
  4. RNA in the 5' to 3'direction
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.42) What is this blood cell?
  1. Macrophage
  2. Neutrophil
  3. Platelet
  4. Red blood cell
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.43) An immature neutrophil is called a:
  1. LE cell
  2. band cell
  3. blast cell
  4. reticulocyte
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.44) Platelets are:
  1. also known as erythrocytes
  2. also known as leukocytes
  3. formed from megakaryocytes
  4. nucleated
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.45) Bacteria are brought into cells by the process of:
  1. cytokinesis
  2. hemolysis
  3. phagocytosis
  4. thrombosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.46) Which white blood cell is the largest?
  1. Basophil
  2. Lymphocyte
  3. Monocyte
  4. Neutrophil
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.47) What is the most abundant white blood cell in adults?
  1. Basophil
  2. Lymphocyte
  3. Monocyte
  4. Neutrophil
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.48) Platelets:
  1. are also known as antithrombins
  2. are enzymes
  3. convert prothrombin to thrombin
  4. form a plug in the hole of damaged blood vessels
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.49) Lymphocytes are blood cells that:
  1. are involved in the body's immune response
  2. contain hemoglobin
  3. mature and proliferate in the bone marrow
  4. mature into macrophages
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.50) Killer T cells:
  1. attack virus-invaded cells
  2. sensitize the activity of macrophage
  3. suppress the activity of B cells
  4. terminate the normal immune response
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.51) Which of these cells is a granulocyte?
  1. Dendritic cell
  2. Macrophage
  3. Natural killer cell
  4. Neutrophil
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.52) A normal healthy individual has how many grams of hemoglobin per 100 mL of blood?
  1. 6–12 g
  2. 12–18 g
  3. 15–20 g
  4. 30–35 g
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.53) Which cell acts as a plug at the site of bleeding?
  1. Eosinophil
  2. Neutrophil
  3. Platelet
  4. Red blood cell
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.54) What is the lifespan of a red blood cell?
  1. 10–20 days
  2. 20–40 days
  3. 40–80 days
  4. 100–120 days
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.55) What are the five types of leukocytes in normal blood?
  1. lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophils, basophils, and lymphoblast
  2. lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils and basophils
  3. myeloblasts, monocytes, neutrophils, basophils, and lymphoblasts
  4. myeloblasts, neutrophils, monocytes, myeloblasts, and eosinophils
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.56) Monocytes can develop into which two types of cells?
  1. B cells and T cells
  2. Macrophages and dendritic cells
  3. Neutrophils and basophils
  4. Neutrophils and eosinophils
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.57) Serum and plasma both contain:
  1. clotting factors
  2. plasma proteins
  3. platelets
  4. red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.58) Which term means the total binding strength between an antibody with an antigen?
  1. Affinity
  2. Agility
  3. Apogamy
  4. Avidity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.59) What is another name for the innate immune system?
  1. Adaptive
  2. Cellular
  3. Humoral
  4. Nonspecific
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.60) Which antibody is the most abundant in the body?
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.61) Which antibody is the largest?
  1. IgD
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.62) Which part of a microscope adjusts the light intensity?
  1. Iris diaphragm
  2. Numerical aperture
  3. Ocular lens
  4. Stage clip
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.63) What does the term 'gross examination of tissue' mean?
  1. Cutting tissue into very thin sections
  2. Examination of dead or decaying tissue
  3. Examination of tissue with a microscope
  4. Examination of tissue with the naked eye
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.64) What is tissue fixation?
  1. Dehydrating tissue
  2. Heating tissue in an autoclave
  3. Preserving tissue in a life-like manner
  4. Removing calcium ions from tissue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.65) In histology, which of these chemicals is used for fixation?
  1. Formalin
  2. Increasing strengths of alcohol
  3. Paraplast
  4. Xylene
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.66) Smears for cytology must be fixed:
  1. immediately
  2. within 2 hours
  3. within 8 hours
  4. within 16 hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.67) Which of these is a compound fixative?
  1. Acetic acid
  2. Bouin's fluid
  3. Formaldehyde
  4. Picric acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.68) Which of these actions will prevent the formation of acid formaldehyde hematin in formaldehyde solutions?
  1. Adding drops of cytochrome b5 reductase
  2. Keeping the solutions refrigerated
  3. Using buffered formalin
  4. Washing excess fixative overnight with water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.69) Specimens should be placed in a fixative that is ______ times greater than the volume of the tissue.
  1. 10–20
  2. 20–30
  3. 30–40
  4. 40–50
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.70) Which chemical is added to formalin as a buffer?
  1. Half-normal saline
  2. Iodine
  3. Methanol
  4. Sodium phosphate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.71) How is a 10% solution of stock formalin made?
  1. 1 part stock formalin with 10 parts water
  2. 1 part stock formalin with 9 parts water
  3. 9 parts stock formalin with 1 part water
  4. 10 parts stock formalin with 1 part water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.72) Which of these factors would increase the tissue processing time for a histology specimen?
  1. Dense tissue
  2. Few pieces of tissue in the tissue cassette
  3. Porous tissue
  4. Small specimen size
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.73) Which of these is a decalcifying agent?
  1. Calcium acetate
  2. Chloroform
  3. EDTA
  4. Ethanol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.74) In tissue processing for paraffin sections, which step comes after dehydration?
  1. Clearing
  2. Decalcification
  3. Embedding
  4. Staining
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.75) What is the most common clearing agent?
  1. Aniline oil
  2. Cedarwood oil
  3. Oil of wintergreen
  4. Xylene
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.76) What is used to dehydrate tissue samples?
  1. Alcohol solutions
  2. Hot air
  3. Sunlight
  4. Xylene
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.77) If paraffin is not infiltrated properly, the tissue will:
  1. become soft and crumbly
  2. become too hard to cut properly
  3. liquefy
  4. lose its color
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.78) Paraffin wax should be used at ___________ its melting point.
  1. 5–10°C below
  2. 2–3°C below
  3. the same temperature as
  4. 2–3°C above
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.79) Sectioning is the process of:
  1. cutting tissue into thin slices
  2. infiltrating tissue samples with paraffin
  3. preserving biological tissues from decay
  4. removing dehydrating agents from tissues
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.80) Microtome blades should generally be angled at around:
  1. 5 degrees
  2. 15 degrees
  3. 25 degrees
  4. 35 degrees
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.81) What is the most common type of microtome in laboratories?
  1. Cryostat
  2. Rotary microtome
  3. Sledge microtome
  4. Ultramicrotome
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.82) For electron microscopy, sections must be about _______ times thinner than sections for light microscopy.
  1. 2
  2. 20
  3. 200
  4. 2,000
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.83) Which of these stains is supravital?
  1. New methylene blue
  2. Romanowsky stain
  3. Wright's stain
  4. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.84) In regressive staining, tissue sections are ___________ and then differentiated with dilute acid until the optimal endpoint is reached.
  1. dehydrated
  2. hydrated
  3. overstained
  4. sectioned
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.85) Before staining, paraffin sections must be:
  1. dewaxed
  2. left underwater for at least an hour
  3. refrigerated
  4. submerged in a chlorine solution
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.86) In the hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) staining method, the eosin stains:
  1. connective tissue blue
  2. cytoplasms pink
  3. microorganisms blue
  4. nuclei pink
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.87) Which type of bacteria does the Ziehl-Neelsen stain identify?
  1. Acid-fast
  2. Facultative anaerobic
  3. Gram-negative
  4. Spore-forming
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.88) What is the counterstain in Gram's technique?
  1. Acetone-alcohol
  2. Crystal violet
  3. Iodine
  4. Safranin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.89) Which of these is a Romanowsky stain?
  1. Gram stain
  2. Jefferson stain
  3. Leishman stain
  4. Sudan stain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.90) What cell structure turns blue in H&E staining?
  1. Cytoplasm
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Nuclei
  4. Reticulum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.91) What is the decolorizer in H&E staining?
  1. Acid-alcohol
  2. Eosin
  3. Orange G
  4. Peroxide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.92) The Pap stain stains which structure blue, purple or black?
  1. Cytoplasm
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Nuclei
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.93) Which of these dyes is alkaline?
  1. Acid fuchsin
  2. Carbol fuchsin
  3. Eosin
  4. Orange G
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.94) Which of these dyes is acidic?
  1. Basic fuchsin
  2. Crystal violet
  3. Eosin
  4. Safranin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.95) Mucicarmine is used primarily to stain:
  1. elastic fibers
  2. epithelial mucin
  3. fat
  4. nervous tissue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.96) Which element does Perls Prussian blue detect?
  1. Iron
  2. Lead
  3. Mercury
  4. Potassium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.97) Amyloid staining uses which red dye?
  1. Biebrich scarlet
  2. Congo red
  3. Eosin
  4. Xylidine ponceau
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.98) Alcian blue stains what part of goblet cells?
  1. DNA
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Mucins
  4. RNA
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.99) Which cytological technique involves passing a urine sample through a biological filter containing pores of a specific diameter?
  1. Centrifugation
  2. Clean-catch
  3. Flow cytometry
  4. Millipore filtration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.100) Cytological smears are usually fixed with:
  1. 10% alcohol
  2. 2% formalin
  3. 20% formalin
  4. 95% alcohol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.101) Helminthology is the study of:
  1. bacteria
  2. parasitic worms
  3. protozoa
  4. spiral microbes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.102) Erysipelothrix infections in humans characteristically produce:
  1. abscesses in visceral organs
  2. central nervous system disease
  3. disease in the lower respiratory tract
  4. raised lesions on skin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.103) In a patient with HIV, which of these samples would have the highest concentration of the virus?
  1. Feces
  2. Serum
  3. Sweat
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.104) Which of these bacteria is a gram-negative, aerobic, oxidase-positive, motile rod?
  1. E. coli
  2. Proteus
  3. Pseudomonas
  4. Salmonella
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.105) Hepatitis A:
  1. can be cured with antibiotics
  2. has no vaccine to prevent it
  3. is the most common type of hepatitis
  4. primarily infects the liver
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.106) Which species of bacteria causes tuberculosis?
  1. Corynebacterium
  2. Lactobacillus
  3. Mycobacterium
  4. Streptococcus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.107) Where should agar plates be stored before use?
  1. In a cupboard
  2. In a dry oven
  3. In the freezer
  4. In the fridge
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.108) Which of these will NOT grow on agar plates?
  1. Bacteria
  2. Mold
  3. Protozoa
  4. Viruses
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.109) Mueller-Hinton agar isolates which type of bacteria?
  1. Mycobacterium
  2. Neisseria
  3. Salmonella
  4. Staphylococcus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.110) Which culture medium would be most appropriate to isolate Haemophilus influenza?
  1. Blood
  2. Chocolate
  3. MacConkey
  4. Nutrient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.111) What color are gram-positive organisms after a Gram stain?
  1. Orange
  2. Purple
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.112) What is the term for a rod-shaped microorganism that appears red after Gram staining?
  1. Gram-negative bacillus
  2. Gram-negative cocci
  3. Gram-positive bacillus
  4. Gram-positive cocci
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.113) Identify the false statement about plating bacteria.
  1. The Petri lid is placed upright on the bench to prevent contamination
  2. The loop is sterilized before inoculation
  3. The media is brought to room temperature before use
  4. The media selected depends on the type of specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.114) Agar plates are placed upside down in the incubator to prevent:
  1. contamination from other agar plates
  2. moisture from accumulating on the agar surface
  3. pathogens from overgrowing
  4. the medium from drying out
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.115) Which virus is the most common cause of congenital infections?
  1. Cytomegalovirus
  2. Measles
  3. Rubella
  4. Smallpox
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.116) What does the blood differential test measure?
  1. The number of all cells
  2. The number of red blood cells
  3. The percentage of each type of white blood cell
  4. The volume percentage of red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.117) Why is it important to mix a blood sample before performing a cell count?
  1. To ensure all blood components are evenly distributed
  2. To oxygenate the sample
  3. To prevent clots
  4. To prevent platelets from clumping together
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.118) The Coulter principle is based on the detection of:
  1. changes in cell electrical currents
  2. color absorption changes
  3. diffusion
  4. high-frequency sound waves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.119) Which test measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells?
  1. CBC
  2. ESR
  3. Hct
  4. Hgb
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.120) What is the department for a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test?
  1. Chemistry
  2. Coagulation
  3. Hematology
  4. Microbiology
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.121) Which of these enzymes is assayed in a heart attack?
  1. Acetylcholinesterase
  2. Creatine kinase
  3. DNA polymerase
  4. Trypsin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.122) Which of these diseases causes a low erythrocyte sedimentation rate?
  1. Bone marrow disease
  2. Carcinoma
  3. Leukemia
  4. Polycythemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.123) What does the international normalized ratio (INR) measure?
  1. How long blood takes to form a clot
  2. How long erythrocytes take to separate from plasma
  3. The average blood glucose level over the past 3 months
  4. The ratio of oxygen to carbon dioxide in the blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.124) What is the preferred source of DNA for DNA testing?
  1. Plasma proteins
  2. Platelets
  3. Red blood cells
  4. White blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.125) Which routine hematology test includes hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood count, and white blood count determinations?
  1. CBC
  2. CDC
  3. CPK
  4. CRP
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.126) What does an antiglycolytic agent do?
  1. Enhance coagulation
  2. Inhibit thrombin formation
  3. Prevent a specimen from clotting
  4. Prevent the breakdown of glucose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.127) The hematocrit test is also known as the:
  1. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  2. hemoglobin test
  3. packed-cell volume test
  4. red blood cell count
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.128) When setting up erythrocyte sedimentation rates, take care to ensure:
  1. a fasting specimen is used
  2. the ESR tubes are vertical
  3. the sample is completely thawed
  4. the water bath is exactly 37°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.129) A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell is:
  1. hydrostatic
  2. hypertonic
  3. hypotonic
  4. isotonic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.130) What unit are hemoglobin values expressed in?
  1. %
  2. g/dL
  3. mm/hour
  4. mol/L
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.131) Bromocresol purple and bromocresol green are dyes used to measure the levels of:
  1. Bence Jones protein
  2. albumin
  3. globulins
  4. immunoproteins
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.132) The prothrombin time test is often used for patients taking which medication?
  1. Atorvastatin
  2. Metformin
  3. Sertraline
  4. Warfarin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.133) What does the prothrombin time test evaluate?
  1. Blood clotting
  2. Blood glucose levels
  3. Kidney function
  4. Liver function
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.134) The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test requires what type of blood sample?
  1. Coagulated
  2. Decalcified
  3. Defibrinated
  4. Frozen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.135) Hematocrit = _____________ × 3
  1. hemoglobin
  2. mean corpuscular volume
  3. red blood cell count
  4. white blood cell count
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.136) Which two genes code the MNS antigens?
  1. Cysteine-rich protein 1 and cysteine-rich protein 2
  2. Glycophorin A and glycophorin B
  3. Lamin A/C and lamin B1
  4. VASH1 and VASH2
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.137) A B− patient requires a blood transfusion but no B− blood is available. From which of these donors could the patient safely receive blood?
  1. A+
  2. AB+
  3. B+
  4. O−
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.138) Which blood type is the universal recipient?
  1. A+
  2. AB+
  3. B+
  4. O+
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.139) A person with type A blood has what on their red blood cells?
  1. A antigens
  2. B antigens
  3. Anti-A antibodies
  4. Anti-B antibodies
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.140) Which blood type is the universal donor?
  1. AB–
  2. A–
  3. B+
  4. O–
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.141) Which vein is located on the thumb side of the arm?
  1. Cephalic
  2. External iliac
  3. Femoral
  4. Posterior tibial
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.142) When used for detecting urinary tract infections, urine dipsticks test for:
  1. nitrates
  2. nitrites
  3. phosphates
  4. sugars
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.143) A patient tests positive for bilirubin on a urine strip. Which test can rule out a false positive result?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. SSA
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.144) Urine that smells like ammonia may be a sign the patient has:
  1. a Proteus infection
  2. a yeast infection
  3. diabetes
  4. hepatitis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.145) Adults normally produce around how many liters of urine per day?
  1. 1 to 2
  2. 3 to 4
  3. 5 to 6
  4. 7 to 8
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.146) What is the normal range for the pH of urine?
  1. 0.6–4.0
  2. 2.6–6.0
  3. 4.6–8.0
  4. 6.6–10.0
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.147) Skin grafted from which donor has the lowest risk of immunologic rejection?
  1. The patient himself
  2. The patient's father
  3. The patient's fraternal twin brother
  4. The patient's fraternal twin sister
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.148) Which enzyme would NOT be increased in a patient with acute myocardial infarction?
  1. Acid phosphatase
  2. Aspartate aminotransferase
  3. Creatine kinase
  4. Troponin T
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.149) What does the PKU test detect?
  1. A genetic defect in metabolism
  2. A sex-linked anemia
  3. A viral disease
  4. Severe kidney disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.150) Which test monitors the treatment of colorectal cancer?
  1. Blood urea nitrogen test
  2. Carcinoembryonic antigen test
  3. Circulating tumor cells test
  4. Lactate dehydrogenase test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.151) Estrogen and progesterone receptor testing are used to assess the prognosis and guide the treatment of:
  1. breast cancer
  2. endometriosis
  3. hepatoma
  4. ovarian cancer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.152) At what pH are barbital buffers used in the serum protein electrophoresis test?
  1. 5.0
  2. 5.6
  3. 6.5
  4. 8.6
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.153) Which tests are elevated in acute pancreatitis?
  1. ALP and GGT
  2. AST and LDH
  3. Amylase and lipase
  4. Pepsin and enterokinase
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.154) The Friedewald equation estimates the level of:
  1. LDL cholesterol
  2. lipoproteins
  3. total cholesterol
  4. triglycerides
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.155) When is a blood sample drawn for determination of the trough level of a drug?
  1. 2-3 hours after drug administration
  2. 24-48 hours after drug administration
  3. Just after drug administration
  4. Just before drug administration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.156) What is the primary screening test for thyroid dysfunction?
  1. Free T3 test
  2. Free T4 test
  3. TSH test
  4. Total T4 test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.157) Vitamin K:
  1. converts prothrombin to thrombin
  2. destroys fibrin which allows a clot to dissolve gradually
  3. is essential for the liver's production of prothrombin
  4. is water soluble
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Patient Test Management, Communications, and Foundations

4.1) When drawing blood from a frightened child, which of these is the right thing to do?
  1. Explain the procedure to the child in simple terms
  2. Say nothing to the child and just perform the procedure
  3. Tell the child that the needle won't hurt
  4. Tell the child to be brave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) What does "primum non nocere" mean?
  1. First, do good
  2. First, do no harm
  3. Follow the patient's requests
  4. The patient always comes first
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) A nurse misidentifies a patient and gives the patient the wrong medication. As a result, the patient is seriously injured. What type of crime has the nurse committed?
  1. Assault
  2. Battery
  3. Misdemeanour
  4. Negligence
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) Patient personal information:
  1. may be discussed during coffee breaks
  2. may be discussed with other patients
  3. may be used for your personal advantage
  4. must never be discussed outside the hospital
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) A patient asks a lab assistant for test results. What should the lab assistant do?
  1. Agree to call the patient at home
  2. Give the results to the patient
  3. Let the patient check their results on the lab computer
  4. Refer the request to the supervisor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) A lawyer asks a lab technician for copies of his client's test results. What should the lab technician do?
  1. Allow the lawyer to see the results on the computer
  2. Give the results to the lawyer immediately
  3. Have the lawyer sign a Medical Release Form and then release the results
  4. Tell the lawyer to contact the physician who ordered the tests
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) Which of these helps ensure patient confidentiality?
  1. Discarding old records by throwing them into the trash
  2. Giving out patient information to journalists
  3. Sending confidential material via e-mail
  4. Verifying a patient's identity before giving confidential data
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) What is the term for mechanisms and processes protecting health information from unauthorized access?
  1. Accountability
  2. Confidentiality
  3. Isolation
  4. Security
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) A lab assistant overhears two clinicians talking about a patient. What kind of risk is this?
  1. Accountability
  2. Infection
  3. Privacy
  4. Security
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) The obligation of a person or organization to not disclose health information is known as:
  1. accountability
  2. confidentiality
  3. privacy
  4. security
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) Which of these is an example of non-verbal communication?
  1. Asking a patient to confirm her name
  2. Nodding to show you agree with someone
  3. Saying "No" to a patient
  4. Writing a note to your manager
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.12) Which of these is a formal way to end an email?
  1. Bye for now
  2. See you soon
  3. Thanks
  4. Yours sincerely
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.13) The attributes of good judgment, respecting patients' rights, and not harming anyone intentionally are all examples of:
  1. competency statements
  2. ethical standards
  3. morals
  4. rules
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.14) In which of these circumstances does a person's consent to have their information shared NOT need to be obtained?
  1. A media request
  2. A public health occurrence
  3. A request by family
  4. Facility fundraising
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.15) Informed consent is based on which ethical principle?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Fidelity
  4. Veracity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.16) Under which ethical principle do phlebotomists have a duty to obtain consent from patients before drawing blood?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Justice
  4. Nonmaleficence
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.17) Informed consent means:
  1. a doctor explains test results to the patient
  2. a patient's medical records are available for healthcare workers to review
  3. the patient agrees to a procedure after being told the consequences associated with it
  4. the patient has the right to see their medical records and test results
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.18) Which of these is proper phone etiquette?
  1. Introducing yourself upon picking up the phone
  2. Leaving the caller on hold for a long time
  3. Multi-tasking while listening to the caller
  4. Putting an irritated caller on hold
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.19) You are a phlebotomist drawing blood from a woman for a pregnancy test. After the woman has left the room, a colleague approaches you and asks what test was ordered. He explains he wants to know because he is the woman's ex-boyfriend. You should:
  1. call the police
  2. inform him you are unable to tell him anything
  3. lie and tell him the test was a complete blood count
  4. reassure him that he has nothing to worry about
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.20) You are performing a rapid strep test on an eight-year-old girl. However, when you try to swab the back of her throat, she refuses to open her mouth. She says the swab scares her. What should you do?
  1. Force the swab into her mouth
  2. Scold her for behaving badly
  3. Swab her nose instead
  4. Talk to her about the test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.21) What is meant by a chain of custody?
  1. Chains used to restrain a prisoner during a forced medical procedure
  2. The hierarchy of caregivers who have custody of a child
  3. The management hierarchy in a hospital
  4. The process of documenting the handling of evidence
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.22) With the terminal digit filing system:
  1. misfiles are more common
  2. records are more evenly distributed
  3. records have to be moved around frequently to make space for incoming files
  4. the middle digits are known as the tertiary digits
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.23) What is the primary digit of 50-63-23 in a terminal digit filing system?
  1. 5
  2. 23
  3. 50
  4. 63
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.24) In which filing system is the heaviest filing activity concentrated in the area with the most new records?
  1. Alphabetical
  2. Middle digit
  3. Straight numeric
  4. Terminal digit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.25) What is the name of a filing system where files are kept in different places?
  1. Centralized
  2. Decentralized
  3. Off-site storage
  4. Serial-unit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.26) In which type of filing system are all files kept together in the same place?
  1. Alphanumeric
  2. Centralized
  3. Decentralized
  4. Duplex
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.27) Which filing system is also known as reverse filing?
  1. Consecutive numeric
  2. Middle digit
  3. Straight
  4. Terminal digit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.28) A hospital uses a terminal digit filing system. To find record 12-08-10, which numbers would you use first?
  1. 08
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 20
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.29) A phlebotomist collects blood from a 14-year-old girl without consent from her parents. The phlebotomist could be charged with:
  1. battery
  2. invasion of privacy
  3. res ipsa loquitur
  4. vicarious liability
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.30) Which legal doctrine means an employer can be held legally accountable for the negligent acts of an employee?
  1. Non compus mentis
  2. Res ipsa loquitur
  3. Respondeat superior
  4. Subpoena duces tecum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.31) Another term for professional negligence is:
  1. malfeasance
  2. malpractice
  3. misfeasance
  4. nonfeasance
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.32) What is medical negligence?
  1. A situation where an injured patient has no evidence of how the injury occurred
  2. An agreement for a doctor to provide treatment
  3. The failure to provide a patient with a reasonable standard of care
  4. The submission of insurance claims for services never provided
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.33) Who enforces HIPAA?
  1. The Attorney General
  2. The Department of Health and Human Services
  3. The Surgeon General
  4. The US Senate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.34) In HIPAA, PHI stands for __________ health information.
  1. patient
  2. personal
  3. private
  4. protected
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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