Search

X

Report a problem

Question ID:

Sections

1. Blood banking
2. Urinalysis and other body fluids
3. Chemistry
4. Hematology
5. Immunology
6. Microbiology
7. Laboratory operations

Section 1: Blood banking

1.1) Antibodies from which antigen system do NOT cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?

1. ABO
2. Duffy
3. Lewis
4. RhD

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) Which antibody is only found in people with the Bombay blood group?

1. Anti-D
2. Anti-F
3. Anti-H
4. Anti-I

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) Which immunoglobulin has the most number of subclasses?

1. IgA
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) Most antibodies produced against Rh antigens are of which class?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) The A antigen is composed of the H antigen and which sugar molecule?

1. D-galactose
2. Lactose
3. N-acetylgalactosamine
4. N-acetyllactosamine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) Which test detects weak-D antigens?

1. Dᵘ test
2. Kleihauer-Betke Test
3. Microplate test
4. Warm autoadsorption test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) Why is hydroxyethyl starch used in leukocytapheresis procedures?

1. To help separate white blood cells from red blood cells
2. To increase the donor’s blood volume
3. To increase the production of white blood cells in the bone marrow
4. To pull granulocytes from the marginal pool into the general circulation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) Which concentrate carries the lowest risk of HIV and hepatitis?

1. Erythrocyte concentrate
2. Normal serum albumin
3. Platelets concentrate
4. Whole blood transfusion

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) HELLP syndrome is a complication of:

1. cancer
2. measles
3. pregnancy
4. recreational drug use

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) The absence of which antigen makes red blood cells resistant to Plasmodium vivax malaria?

1. Duffy
2. Kidd
3. Lewis
4. Rhesus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) For kidney transplants, matching of which three HLA molecules is most important?

1. HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C
2. HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-DR
3. HLA-A, HLA-DP, and HLA-DQ
4. HLA-A, HLA-DP, and HLA-DR

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Which of these situations could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

1. Rh+ mother, Rh+ fetus
2. Rh+ mother, Rh− fetus
3. Rh− mother, Rh+ fetus
4. Rh− mother, Rh− fetus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Low ionic strength saline (LISS) is a potentiator that acts by reducing the _______ potential of red blood cells.

1. alpha
2. beta
3. gamma
4. zeta

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) When administering immune serum globulin therapy, healthcare professionals should be cautious with patients with:

1. AIDS
2. a history of IgA deficiency
3. an immunodeficiency disease
4. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) Which of these people is eligible to donate whole blood?

1. A 19-year-old taking antibiotics for acne
2. A man who donated whole blood a month ago
3. A woman who donated whole blood two weeks ago
4. Someone who is HIV positive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) If a patient with severe chronic anemia receives a transfusion of whole blood, which acute transfusion complication is most likely to occur?

1. Acute intravascular hemolysis
2. Anaphylactic reaction
3. Fluid overload
4. Septic shock

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) Putting the patient in an upright seated position and providing supplementary oxygen can help for which of the following transfusion reactions?

1. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR)
2. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)
3. Transfusion-associated sepsis (TAS)
4. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) By how many g/dL will one unit of whole blood raise the hemoglobin level of a standard adult patient?

1. 1 g/dL
2. 2 g/dL
3. 3 g/dL
4. 4 g/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) Transfusion of red blood cells with low 2,3-DPG levels causes which pathophysiological effect?

1. Decreased carbon dioxide levels
2. Increased cardiac output
3. Increased mixed venous oxygen tension
4. Lower blood viscosity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) A 35-year-old woman needs three units of red blood cells. The laboratory performs an antibody screen to identify any blood group antibodies. The antibody screen is positive. According to the results of the antibody panel below, which antibody most likely caused the positive result?

1. Anti-C
2. Anti-D
3. Anti-E
4. Anti-K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) An AB− patient requires a blood transfusion but no AB− is available. Blood from which of these blood types could be given to the patient instead?

1. A+
2. AB+
3. A−
4. O+

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) An apheresis donation is a donation:

1. from a donor on a dialysis machine
2. performed under general anesthetic
3. taken from a leg vein instead of an arm vein
4. where the donor gives specific blood components

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) Which of these questions is found on blood donor questionnaires?

1. Have you been on a plane in the past 6 months?
2. Have you eaten any canned food in the past 48 hours?
3. Have you eaten red meat in the past 12 hours?
4. Have you had a tattoo in the past 3 months?

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.24) A certain gene has two alleles: a dominant allele (A) and a recessive allele (a). If 36% of people in a random population have the homozygous recessive genotype (aa), what is the frequency of the recessive allele in this population?

1. 18%
2. 24%
3. 36%
4. 60%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.25) The U antigen is part of which antigen system?

1. Duffy
2. Kidd
3. Lewis
4. MNS

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.26) What is the rarest phenotype of the Kidd blood group?

1. Jk(a+b+)
2. Jk(a+b-)
3. Jk(a-b+)
4. Jk(a-b-)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.27) What percentage of Caucasians are positive for the c antigen?

1. 20%
2. 40%
3. 60%
4. 80%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.28) Which of these would result in direct exclusion in paternity testing?

1. Group AB child, group A mother, and group O man
2. Group AB child, group B mother, and group A man
3. Group B child, group B mother, and group AB man
4. Group B child, group O mother, and group AB man

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.29) If the frequency of a dominant allele in a population is 50%, then what percentage of people are heterozygous?

1. 5%
2. 25%
3. 50%
4. 75%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.30) If the frequency of a dominant allele in a population is 20%, then what is the frequency of the recessive allele?

1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 40%
4. 80%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.31) People with the Jk(a-b-) phenotype are unable to:

1. breathe without the aid of a respirator
2. have children
3. make hemoglobin
4. maximally concentrate urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.32) Anti-G would react with red blood cells with which of these phenotypes?

1. A+ B− C+ D− E−
2. A− B+ C− D− E+
3. A− B+ C− D− E−
4. A− B− C− D− E−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.33) Besides the ABO and Rh antibodies, what is the most common antibody seen in blood banking?

1. Anti-Fya
2. Anti-Fyb
3. Anti-H
4. Anti-K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.34) You suspect a patient has the Bombay blood group. To test your suspicion, you would mix the patient's red blood cells with a reagent containing which antigen?

1. Anti-D
2. Anti-E
3. Anti-H
4. Anti-K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.35) Antibodies to which of these blood group systems show dosage?

1. Duffy
2. Kell
3. Lutheran
4. P

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.36) Fresh frozen plasma is stored at ____ or colder.

1. −30°C
2. −10°C
3. −6°C
4. 6°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.37) Why are blood products irradiated?

1. To ensure the blood products remain stable
2. To prevent TA-GVHD
3. To prolong their duration
4. To sterilize them

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.38) Which cryoprotective agent is most commonly used for red blood cells in blood banking?

1. Glycerol
2. Mannitol
3. Sorbitol
4. Thiol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.39) For how long can donated platelets be stored at room temperature?

1. 1 hour
2. 4 hours
3. 24 hours
4. 5 days

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.40) Which donated blood component carries the highest risk for bacterial contamination?

1. Cryoprecipitate
2. Plasma
3. Platelets
4. Red blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.41) Which type of antibody causes hemolytic disease of the newborn?

1. IgA
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.42) Coombs control cells are red blood cells coated with which antibody?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.43) A laboratory technician is running a daily positive control to verify the reactivity of Coombs’ control cells. The technician mixes one drop of Coombs’ control cells with anti-IgG and then centrifuges the mixture. The result is an agglutination of 4+. What does this result indicate?

1. The result is abnormal; discard the Coombs’ control cells and prepare a new batch
2. The result is abnormal; discard the anti-IgG and order a new batch
3. The result is abnormal; rerun the control at a faster centrifugation speed
4. The result is normal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.44) A patient's blood sample has a negative result on a direct antiglobulin test. To verify the result, the technician adds Coombs control cells to the test. When the Coombs control cells are added, no agglutination is observed. Which of these is a correct interpretation?

1. The original negative test result is valid
2. The patient has antibodies against their own red blood cells
3. The saline washings were adequate
4. The test needs to be repeated

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.45) A patient with type B+ blood requires an emergency blood transfusion. He receives three units of packed red blood cells from an O– donor. Shortly after the transfusion, he starts experiencing fever, nausea, hypotension, and shock. His condition worsens and he begins showing signs of hemoglobinuria, DIC, and kidney failure. Which transfusion reaction is the patient experiencing?

1. Anaphylactic
2. Circulatory overload
3. Febrile
4. Septic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.46) Which of these transfusion reactions is delayed?

1. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload
2. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
3. Transfusion-associated sepsis
4. Transfusion-related acute lung injury

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.47) A patient's temperature rises by 2°C while receiving a blood transfusion. There are no abnormal results in the transfusion reaction investigation. Which transfusion reaction is the patient experiencing?

1. Allergic
2. Anaphylactic
3. Febrile non-hemolytic
4. Hemolytic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.48) The administration of chelating agents can prevent which type of delayed transfusion reaction?

1. Delayed serologic/hemolytic transfusion reaction
2. Iron overload
3. Post-transfusion purpura
4. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.49) Six hours after a blood transfusion, a patient presents with pain at the infusion site, back, chest, and flank. The patient's urine is dark brown. Tests reveal the patient has hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria, and hypotension. What is the likely cause?

1. Acute hemolytic reaction
2. TRALI
3. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
4. Transfusion-associated sepsis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.50) RhAG and RhCE are proteins on which cells?

1. Erythrocytes
2. Mast cells
3. T-Lymphocytes
4. T-lymphocytes & Erythrocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.51) What is the most common Rh phenotype in African Americans?

1. DCe/dce
2. DcE/DcE
3. Dce/dce
4. dce/dce

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.52) A patient has the Rh genotype R¹R¹. What is the patient's genotype in the Fisher-Race nomenclature?

1. CDe/CDe
2. Cde/Cde
3. cdE/cdE
4. cde/cde

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.53) Which red blood cell abnormality is associated with the Rh-null phenotype?

1. Acanthocytosis
2. Elliptocytosis
3. Schistocytosis
4. Stomatocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.54) What percentage of people in the United States are Rh-negative?

1. 15%
2. 30%
3. 50%
4. 70%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.55) Which Rh antigen has the highest frequency in Blacks and Caucasians?

1. D
2. E
3. c
4. e

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.56) On which chromosome are the RHD and RHCE genes?

1. Chromosome 1
2. Chromosome 3
3. Chromosome 5
4. Chromosome 7

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.57) A patient with an Rh genotype of DCe/DCe is transfused with red blood cells with an Rh genotype of Dce/Dce. Which alloantibody will the patient's body likely produce in response to the donor's blood?

1. Anti-C
2. Anti-D
3. Anti-E
4. Anti-c

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.58) A patient's ABO testing results are as follows:

Red cell grouping				Serum grouping
anti-A	anti-B	anti-A₁		A₁ cells	B cells
4+	0	0		2+	4+

What is the patient's ABO subtype?

1. A₁
2. A₂
3. A₁B
4. A₂B

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.59) What is the most common blood type in the US?

1. AB+
2. B−
3. O−
4. O+

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.60) A patient's blood type testing results are as follows:

Red cell grouping				Serum grouping
anti-A	anti-B	anti-D		A₁ cells	B cells
0	4+	0		4+	0

What is the patient's blood group?

1. A+
2. A−
3. B+
4. B−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.61) A patient's ABO testing results are as follows:

Red cell grouping			Serum grouping
anti-A	anti-B		A cells	B cells
4+	1+		0	4+

What is the likely cause of these results?

1. Acquired B
2. Chimerism
3. Hypogammaglobulinemia
4. Immunosuppression

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.62) The pedigree chart below shows a type AB father, a type O mother, and their four children: How many of the four children would be expected to have type A blood?

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.63) A man has the genotype AO and a woman has the genotype AB. What are the possible phenotypes of their offspring?

1. A and B
2. AB and B
3. AB, A and B
4. AB, B and A

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.64) A blood donor is tested with Rh antisera. The results are as follows:

anti-D	anti-C	anti-E	anti-c	anti-e
+	+	+	+	+

What is the donor's most probable Rh genotype?

1. DCe/DcE
2. DCe/dCE
3. DcE/DCE
4. Dce/dCE

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.65) A blood donor is tested with Rh antisera. The results are as follows:

anti-D	anti-C	anti-E	anti-c	anti-e
+	+	0	+	+

What is the donor's most probable Rh genotype?

1. CDe/CDe
2. CDe/cDE
3. CDe/cde
4. cDe/Cde

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.66) A blood donor is tested with Rh antisera. The results are as follows:

anti-D	anti-C	anti-E	anti-c	anti-e
0	0	+	+	+

What is the donor's Rh genotype?

1. r'r'
2. rr"
3. rry
4. ryry

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.67) A blood donor is tested with Rh antisera. The results are as follows:

anti-D	anti-C	anti-E	anti-c	anti-e
+	0	+	+	0

What is the donor's most probable Rh genotype?

1. R²r''
2. R¹r
3. R¹R¹
4. R²R²

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Urinalysis and other body fluids

2.1) The genetic disease alkaptonuria is caused by the body's inability to fully break down which two amino acids?

1. Histidine and methionine
2. Threonine and tryptophan
3. Tyrosine and phenylalanine
4. Valine and isoleucine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) Bence Jones proteins are:

1. monoclonal free heavy chains
2. monoclonal free light chains
3. polyclonal free heavy chains
4. polyclonal free light chains

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) People with maple syrup urine disease cannot break down which amino acids?

1. Alanine, tyrosine, and histidine
2. Glycine, glutamine, and serine
3. Leucine, isoleucine, and valine
4. Proline, threonine, and phenylalanine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) Which kind of centrifuge has good cellular morphology preservation?

1. Angle head
2. Cytocentrifuge
3. Microhematocrit
4. Refrigerated

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) How often should reagent strips be tested with controls?

1. Daily
2. Weekly
3. Monthly
4. Every three months

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) A patient tests positive for bilirubin on a urine strip. Which test can rule out a false positive result?

1. Acetest
2. Clinitest
3. Ictotest
4. SSA

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) When preparing a urine specimen for microscopic analysis, which of these steps comes first?

1. Add one drop of stain to the tube
2. Centrifuge the urine sample
3. Place a coverslip over the sample
4. Transfer one drop of the sediment to a microscope slide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) The presence of Bence Jones protein in urine is most commonly associated with which disease?

1. Fanconi syndrome
2. Multiple myeloma
3. Renal osteodystrophy
4. Uremic syndrome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) The presence of which of these substances is abnormal in synovial fluid?

1. Fibrin
2. Hyaluronan
3. Lubricin
4. Proteinase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) What is the specific gravity of isosthenuric urine?

1. 0.998–1.002
2. 1.000–1.004
3. 1.004–1.008
4. 1.008–1.012

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) Which urinary cast is associated with strenuous exercise?

1. Granular
2. Hyaline
3. Red blood cell
4. Waxy

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) A urine specimen that is positive for white blood cells and white blood cell casts but negative for bacteria most likely indicates:

1. diabetes mellitus
2. interstitial nephritis
3. nephrotic syndrome
4. pyelonephritis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) The presence of red blood cell casts in urine is most indicative of which disease?

1. Glomerulonephritis
2. Lower urinary tract obstruction
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Pyelonephritis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) Urine that smells like ammonia may be a sign the patient has:

1. a Proteus infection
2. a yeast infection
3. diabetes
4. hepatitis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) A patient's urine sample is positive for ketones. The patient probably has:

1. advanced liver disease
2. heart disease
3. pernicious anemia
4. uncontrolled diabetes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) The following results were obtained from the urine of a 45-year-old male:

Parameter	Result
Color	Pale yellow
Appearance	Foamy
Specific gravity	1.030
pH	6.5
Glucose	Negative
Protein	2+
Bacteria	Negative
WBC	Negative
Fatty casts	Many
Oval fat bodies	Many

What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Acute pyelonephritis
2. Cystitis
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Polycystic kidney disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) In which kidney disease are large numbers of neutrophils seen in the kidney tubules, interstitium, and collecting ducts?

1. Acute pyelonephritis
2. Chronic glomerulonephritis
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Renal agenesis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) A urine's specific gravity is directly proportional to its:

1. dissolved solids
2. salt content
3. sugar content
4. turbidity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) A patient with fatigue and nausea has the following urinalysis results:

Test	Result
pH	5.5
Glucose	0 mg/dL
GFR	31
UACR	61 mg/g

No blood or abnormal cells can be seen in the urine. Based on these results, which disease does the patient most likely have?

1. Bladder cancer
2. Diabetes
3. Kidney disease
4. Prostate cancer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) Which of these tests does NOT require a 24-hour urine specimen?

1. Creatinine clearance
2. Ketones
3. Ketosteroids
4. Quantitative drug analysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) The presence of epithelial cell casts in urine indicates:

1. liver disease
2. nephrotic syndrome
3. pyelonephritis
4. renal tubular damage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) In serum protein electrophoresis tests, M spikes are most commonly seen in which region?

1. Alpha 2
2. Beta 1
3. Beta 2
4. Gamma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) Rice bodies are most commonly found in which health disorder?

1. Crohn's disease
2. Iron deficiency
3. Lung carcinoma
4. Rheumatoid arthritis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) Oligoclonal bands in cerebrospinal fluid suggest which health problem?

1. Acromegaly
2. Acute myeloid leukemia
3. Hydrocephalus
4. Multiple sclerosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) The red blood cell count in the first tube of cerebrospinal fluid collected is significantly higher than in the last tube collected. Which complication should be suspected?

1. Infection
2. Nerve damage
3. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
4. Traumatic tap

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) What does green amniotic fluid indicate?

1. Cervical stenosis
2. Failure of the cervical mucus to develop into a plug
3. Meconium in the womb
4. Premature detachment of the placenta from the uterus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) What is the active ingredient in Clinitest reagent tablets?

1. Calcium carbonate
2. Copper sulfate
3. Nitric acid
4. Potassium permanganate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) Ictotest reagent tablets are based on which reaction?

1. Benedict's copper reduction
2. Diazotization
3. Hypersensitivity
4. Nitroprusside

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) Which of these crystals is abnormal in urine?

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) The following crystals were found in a patient's urine: What are these crystals?

1. Acyclovir
2. Cystine
3. Indinavir
4. Struvite

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) Tiny, colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals in a urine sample are most likely:

1. ammonium biurate
2. calcium oxalate
3. hippuric acid
4. uric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) Microscopic examination of the urine of a patient with kidney stones reveals amber, barrel-shaped crystals. The pH of the urine is 5.5. What are the crystals?

1. Calcium carbonate
2. Calcium phosphate
3. Triple phosphate
4. Uric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) If a patient is admitted with ethylene glycol poisoning, what crystals would you expect to find in the patient's urine?

1. Ammonium biurate
2. Calcium oxalate
3. Hippuric acid
4. Uric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) The following crystal was found in a patient's urine: From this finding, which medication can you assume the patient is taking?

1. Fluticasone
2. Sulfadiazine
3. Testosterone
4. Tizanidine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) Identify these urine crystals:

1. Calcium phosphate
2. Cystine
3. Hippurate
4. Uric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) Benzoylecgonine is a metabolite of which drug?

1. Benzodiazepine
2. Cocaine
3. Marijuana
4. Methamphetamine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) Which type of microscope is best for viewing crystals in a sample of joint fluid?

1. Fluorescent light
2. Light
3. Polarized light
4. Ultraviolet

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Chemistry

3.1) Hyperkalemia means high levels of which chemical element?

1. Calcium
2. Mercury
3. Potassium
4. Sodium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) What autoimmune disorder results in hypothyroidism?

1. Celiac disease
2. Hashimoto's disease
3. Multiple sclerosis
4. Myasthenia gravis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) Kernicterus is caused by an abnormal accumulation of bilirubin in which organ?

1. Brain
2. Heart
3. Liver
4. Lung

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Which type of jaundice is due to a blockage in the bile duct?

1. Hepatocellular
2. Neonatal
3. Post-hepatic
4. Pre-hepatic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism is also called:

1. delayed puberty
2. precocious puberty
3. primary hypogonadism
4. secondary hypogonadism

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) Most cases of tetany are caused by a deficiency of which mineral?

1. Calcium
2. Phosphorous
3. Potassium
4. Sodium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Most iron in the body is bound to which protein?

1. Ferritin
2. Fibrin
3. Hemoglobin
4. Myoglobin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) Bilirubin is a product of the breakdown of which compound?

1. Albumin
2. Heme
3. Urobilin
4. Urobilinogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) What is the role of the buffering system in the blood?

1. Control blood glucose levels
2. Maintain pH balance
3. Regulate hormone levels
4. Transport oxygen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) IgE antibodies mediate which type of hypersensitivity?

1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) CK-MB is found mostly in which organ?

1. Brain
2. Heart
3. Liver
4. Lungs

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) Which gland produces melatonin?

1. Hypothalamus
2. Pancreas
3. Pineal gland
4. Thymus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) Which of these hormones is produced by the adrenal cortex?

1. Cortisol
2. Epinephrine
3. Insulin
4. Norepinephrine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) Which hormone increases calcium levels?

1. Calcitonin
2. Corticotropin
3. Epinephrine
4. Parathyroid hormone

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) Which form of thyroid hormone is the most biologically active?

1. T0
2. T1
3. T2
4. T3

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) Which lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme is found mainly in the lungs?

1. LDH-1
2. LDH-2
3. LDH-3
4. LDH-4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) Which of these is colloquially known as bad cholesterol?

1. Fat
2. HDL
3. LDL
4. Triglyceride

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) During pregnancy, estriol is synthesized from:

1. 16a-hydroxyl-DHEA-s
2. pregnenolone
3. cholesterol sulfate
4. estrogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) Which is the main type of estrogen during pregnancy?

1. Estrone
2. Estradiol
3. Estriol
4. Estetrol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is secreted primarily by which organ?

1. Heart
2. Kidneys
3. Liver
4. Lungs

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) Vitamin B9 and B12 deficiencies cause the body to produce what type of abnormal red blood cells?

1. Megaloblasts
2. Sickle cells
3. Spherocytes
4. Stomatocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) A 22-year-old man complains of anxiety, weight loss, and fatigue. The results of a thyroid function test are as follows:

Test	Result	Reference range
TSH	<0.1 mIU/L	0.5–5.0 mIU/L
T4	32.0 pmol/L	8.0–18.0 pmol/L

Which thyroid problem best fits these results?

1. Primary hyperthyroidism
2. Primary hypothyroidism
3. Secondary hyperthyroidism
4. Secondary hypothyroidism

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Women who have had gestational diabetes have an increased risk of developing:

1. ovarian cysts
2. shingles
3. type I diabetes
4. type II diabetes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) Patients with symptoms of thirst and frequent urination should receive which of the following tests?

1. Basic metabolic panel
2. Fasting blood glucose
3. Prothrombin time
4. Tissue transglutaminase IgA test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) High levels of which lipoprotein are associated with a decreased risk of accelerated atherosclerosis?

1. Chylomicrons
2. HDL
3. LDL
4. VLDL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) Calculate the pH value of a buffer solution composed of 0.20 M acetic acid and 0.50 M acetate ion, given that the acid dissociation constant for acetic acid is 1.8 x 10⁻⁵.

1. 2.55
2. 3.48
3. 4.82
4. 5.14

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) A patient has the following test results:

Test	Result
Total protein level	8.3 g/dL
Albumin level	3.4 g/dL

What is the patient's calculated globulin?

1. 0.4 g/dL
2. 2.4 g/dL
3. 4.9 g/dL
4. 11.7 g/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) A patient has the following test results:

Test	Result
Sodium	140 mEq/L
Glucose	360 mg/dL
BUN	5.6 mg/dL

Using the Dorwart and Chalmers formula, calculate the patient's serum osmolality.

1. 107.4 mOsm/kg
2. 193.9 mOsm/kg
3. 282.4 mOsm/kg
4. 382.9 mOsm/kg

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) A patient has a CK-MB of 25.0 ng/mL and a total CK of 500 U/L. Calculate the relative index.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) A patient has an A1c of 10.0%. To the nearest mg/dL, calculate an estimate of the patient's average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months.

1. 220 mg/dL
2. 240 mg/dL
3. 260 mg/dL
4. 280 mg/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) Which stain is used to stain lipids?

1. Gram's stain
2. H&E
3. Periodic Acid-Schiff
4. Sudan IV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) Refer to the serum protein electrophoresis pattern below. Which serum protein is the arrow pointing to?

1. Albumin
2. Alpha-1 globulin
3. Alpha-2 globulin
4. Gamma globulin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) Which of these conditions can cause hyperalbuminemia?

1. Dehydration
2. Kidney disease
3. Liver cirrhosis
4. Thyroid disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) Refer to the serum protein electrophoresis patterns below. Which disease does the abnormal pattern indicate?

1. Hepatic cirrhosis
2. Hypogammaglobulinemia
3. Monoclonal gammopathy
4. Nephrotic syndrome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) Refer to the serum protein electrophoresis patterns below. Which disease does the abnormal pattern indicate?

1. Hepatic cirrhosis
2. Hypogammaglobulinemia
3. Monoclonal gammopathy
4. Nephrotic syndrome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) The prothrombin time test is often used for patients taking which medication?

1. Atorvastatin
2. Metformin
3. Sertraline
4. Warfarin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) If a potassium calibration standard is under-diluted, patient results would be:

1. falsely high
2. falsely low
3. less precise
4. more precise

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) A patient with leukocytosis has a high serum potassium result of 15.5 mEq/L. An ECG shows none of the abnormalities that would be expected for hyperkalemia. What is the most likely cause of the abnormal potassium result?

1. Contamination with a gadolinium MRI contrast agent
2. Interference from a blood pressure medication such as furosemide
3. Low level of magnesium in the blood
4. Rupture of blood cells in the blood sample

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.39) The troponin test is used to help diagnose which condition?

1. Brain damage
2. Diabetes
3. Heart attack
4. Kidney failure

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.40) What does a hemoglobin A1c test measure?

1. The amount of hemoglobin in the patient's blood
2. The concentration of red blood cells in the patient's blood
3. The patient's average blood glucose levels over the last three months
4. The patient's blood glucose level at the time the sample drawn

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.41) Which of these biochemistry tests should be kept away from the light?

1. Bilirubin
2. Calcium
3. Glucose
4. Urea

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.42) A 40-year-old man weighing 70 kg has a serum creatinine level of 1.00 mg/dL. Using the Cockroft-Gault equation, estimate the man's creatinine clearance in mL per minute.

1. 97.2
2. 102.7
3. 107.3
4. 112.9

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.43) What is the normal range for blood sodium levels?

1. 76–85 mEq/L
2. 96–105 mEq/L
3. 116–125 mEq/L
4. 136–145 mEq/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.44) The results of which patient are consistent with fluid overload?

Patient	Gender	Creatinine	BUN
1	Male	1.5 mg/dL	33 mg/dL
2	Female	0.4 mg/dL	1.4 mg/dL
3	Female	1.1 mg/dL	9.5 mg/dL
4	Male	0.8 mg/dL	19.9 mg/dL

1. Patient 1
2. Patient 2
3. Patient 3
4. Patient 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.45) What is the normal range for thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?

1. 0.4–5 mU/L
2. 5.4–10 mU/L
3. 10.4–15 mU/L
4. 15.4–20 mU/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.46) The normal level of oxygen in blood is ____ or higher.

1. 50%
2. 66%
3. 90%
4. 95%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.47) Which of these blood test results is abnormal and could indicate dehydration?

1. Glucose: 95 mg/dL
2. BUN: 15 mg/dL
3. Chloride: 135 mEq/L
4. Sodium: 140 mEq/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.48) Which of these serum electrolyte results is abnormal?

1. Calcium: 9.1 mg/dL
2. Chloride: 110 mEq/L
3. Potassium: 6.5 mEq/L
4. Sodium: 140 mEq/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.49) Which condition best explains the arterial blood gas results below?

Test	Result
pH	High
PaCO₂	Low
Bicarbonate	Low
Base excess	Low

1. Decreased bicarbonate absorption
2. Hyperventilation
3. Hypoventilation
4. Increased bicarbonate absorption

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.50) What blood gas results would be expected for a patient with kidney failure?

1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Metabolic alkalosis
3. Respiratory acidosis
4. Respiratory alkalosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.51) What is the Henderson-Hasselbach equation?

1. ph = pKa + log(conjugate base/acid)
2. PAO₂ = PiO₂ − PaCO₂/R
3. O₂ saturation = Hb × 1.34 + pO₂ × 0.003
4. pCO₂ = 1.5 [HCO₃] + 8

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.52) Which type of alkalosis best explains the arterial blood gas results below?

Test	Result
pH	8.15
PaCO₂	41.3 mmHg
Bicarbonate	49 mEq/L

1. Compensated metabolic
2. Compensated respiratory
3. Uncompensated metabolic
4. Uncompensated respiratory

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.53) An arterial blood specimen submitted for blood gas analysis was obtained at 8:30 AM but was not received in the laboratory until 11:00 AM. What should the laboratory do?

1. Perform the test ASAP
2. Perform the test only if the specimen was submitted in ice water
3. Request a new arterial sample to be obtained
4. Request a venous blood specimen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.54) An arterial blood sample has a pCO₂ of 50 mm Hg and a bicarbonate level of 20 mmol/L. Calculate the pH of the sample.

1. 7.1
2. 7.3
3. 7.5
4. 7.7

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.55) Carcinoembryonic antigen is a protein primarily associated with:

1. cancer
2. heart disease
3. liver failure
4. pregnancy

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.56) The bile acid test assesses the functioning of which organ?

1. Bladder
2. Kidney
3. Liver
4. Stomach

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.57) For a solution, percent transmittance =

1. antilog (1 – absorbance)
2. antilog (2 – absorbance)
3. log (1 + absorbance)
4. log (2 + absorbance)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.58) How does Beer's Law calculate absorbance?

1. Concentration × (molar attenuation coefficient / path length)
2. Concentration × (path length / molar attenuation coefficient)
3. Molar attenuation coefficient × (concentration / path length)
4. Molar attenuation coefficient × concentration × path length

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.59) A 35-year-old man undergoes an annual blood test. H/is results are as follows:

Test	Result
Glucose	93 mg/dL
Creatinine	1.6 mg/dL
Urea	14 mg/dL
Sodium	141 mEq/L
Potassium	3.9 mEq/L
AST	276 U/L
ALT	134 U/L
GGT	51 U/L
PAL	91 U/L

These results suggest:

1. diabetes mellitus
2. hemorrhagic rectocolitis
3. hepatic cytolysis
4. muscular cytolysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.60) Which enzyme, found mainly in skeletal muscle, the heart, and the brain, is associated with muscle damage and heart attack?

1. ALT
2. AST
3. Creatine kinase
4. Lipase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.61) In total bilirubin assays, bilirubin reacts with diazotized sulfanilic acid to form:

1. azobilirubin
2. bilirubin glucuronide
3. biliverdin
4. diazobilirubin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.62) Refer to the illustration below: What is the name of this type of plot?

1. Eadie-Hofstee plot
2. Hanes–Woolf plot
3. Lineweaver-Burk plot
4. Michaelis-Menten plot

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.63) A patient has low cortisol. After an injection of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). the patient's cortisol levels are still low. The patient most likely has:

1. Addison's disease
2. Cretinism
3. Cushing‘s syndrome
4. Cushing’s disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.64) What does a high value on the anion gap test indicate?

1. Acidosis
2. Alkalosis
3. Anemia
4. Polycythemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.65) A patient's cholesterol test results are as follows:

Test	Result
Triglycerides	230 mg/dL
Cholesterol	280 mg/dL
HDL	55 mg/dL

Calculate the patient's LDL.

1. 119 mg/dL
2. 149 mg/dL
3. 159 mg/dL
4. 179 mg/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.66) Use the results below to calculate the osmolal gap.

Test	Result
Sodium	140 mEq/L
Glucose	90 mg/dL
BUN	28 mg/dL
Measured osmolality	301 mOsm/kg

1. 1 mOsm/kg
2. 3 mOsm/kg
3. 6 mOsm/kg
4. 9 mOsm/kg

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.67) Which of these analytes can be analyzed by headspace gas chromatography?

1. Folate
2. Hemoglobin
3. Methanol
4. Oestrogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.68) The cancer antigen 27-29 test is used to monitor which type of cancer?

1. Breast
2. Liver
3. Ovarian
4. Thyroid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.69) Which of these is a liver function test?

1. AST test
2. Creatine kinase test
3. Creatinine test
4. Troponin test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.70) Glomerular filtration rate measures the health of which organ?

1. Liver
2. Kidneys
3. Gallbladder
4. Bladder

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.71) What does the PKU test detect?

1. A genetic defect in metabolism
2. A sex-linked anemia
3. A viral disease
4. Severe kidney disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.72) The Friedewald equation estimates the level of:

1. LDL cholesterol
2. lipoproteins
3. total cholesterol
4. triglycerides

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.73) The graph below shows the levels of phosphatidylinositol and phosphatidylglycerol in the amniotic fluid of a 32-year-old pregnant woman from weeks 20 to 40 of her pregnancy. The graph indicates that the fetus:

1. has omphalocele
2. has Down syndrome
3. has lung immaturity
4. is normal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.74) At what pH are barbital buffers used in the serum protein electrophoresis test?

1. 5.0
2. 5.6
3. 6.5
4. 8.6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.75) When is a blood sample drawn for determination of the trough level of a drug?

1. 2-3 hours after drug administration
2. 24-48 hours after drug administration
3. Just after drug administration
4. Just before drug administration

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.76) A blood sample has an elevated result when tested with the Jaffe reaction. This indicates:

1. arrhythmia
2. kidney function impairment
3. pregnancy
4. prolonged hypothermia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.77) High levels of troponin indicate damage to which organ of the body?

1. Heart
2. Kidneys
3. Liver
4. Lungs

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.78) Creatinine kinase is composed of which two subunits?

1. B and A
2. K and C
3. M and B
4. S and C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.79) A 36-year-old woman complains of fatigue, depression, and weight gain. The results of a thyroid function test are as follows:

Test	Result	Reference range
TSH	10.2 mIU/L	0.5–5.0 mIU/L
T4	2.1 pmol/L	8.0-18.0 pmol/L

Which thyroid problem best fits these results?

1. Primary hyperthyroidism
2. Primary hypothyroidism
3. Secondary hyperthyroidism
4. Secondary hypothyroidism

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.80) Bromcresol purple is used in the colorimetric method to measure:

1. albumin
2. calcium
3. globulin
4. magnesium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.81) Calculate the anion gap from the following results:

Test	Result
Sodium	130 mEq/L
Potassium	5 mEq/L
Chloride	100 mEq/L
Bicarbonate	25 mEq/L

1. 5 mEq/L
2. 10 mEq/L
3. 15 mEq/L
4. 20 mEq/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.82) In the illustration below, which type of chemical bond is the arrow pointing to?

1. Disulfide bridge
2. Hydrogen bond
3. Ionic bond
4. Peptide bond

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.83) Thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin are all types of which vitamin?

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.84) High doses of which supplement can cause blood folate levels to appear falsely high?

1. Biotin
2. Cobalamin
3. Thiamine
4. Vitamin D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.85) Which vitamins are fat-soluble?

1. A, B, C, D, and K
2. A, C, and E
3. A, D, E, and K
4. B, C, D, and K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.86) Which vitamin is essential for blood coagulation?

1. A
2. C
3. E
4. K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.87) Niacin deficiency results in which disease?

1. Ariboflavinosis
2. Pellagra
3. Rickets
4. Scurvy

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.88) Which B vitamin is involved in the transamination of amino acids?

1. B1
2. B2
3. B6
4. B9

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Hematology

4.1) What is the term for red blood cells that are different in size?

1. Anisocytosis
2. Erythrocytosis
3. Heterocytosis
4. Pinocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) What is the term for a sodium level of 130 mEq/L?

1. Hyperkalemia
2. Hypernatremia
3. Hypokalemia
4. Hyponatremia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) In a platelet aggregation study, a patient's platelets aggregate normally in response to adenosine diphosphate, epinephrine, and collagen. However, the platelets do not aggregate in response to ristocetin, even after normal plasma is added. Which clotting disorder does the patient have?

1. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
2. Hereditary factor Xa deficiency
3. Parahemophilia
4. Von Willebrand disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) Which protein binds to free hemoglobin?

1. Cryoglobulin
2. Erythropoietin
3. Haptoglobin
4. Methemoglobin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) How many oxygen molecules can bind to a hemoglobin molecule?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) Blood clots are made of:

1. fibrin
2. fibrinogen
3. prothrombin activator
4. thrombin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) Plasma makes up around _____ of the total blood.

1. 55%
2. 65%
3. 75%
4. 95%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) Hemoglobin A consists of:

1. five alpha chains
2. one alpha chain, one beta chain, and one delta chain
3. three delta chains
4. two alpha chains and two beta chains

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) What is the main function of C3b?

1. Cytotoxicity
2. Immune adherence
3. Inflammation induction
4. Opsonization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) Which marker is used to help distinguish acute lymphocytic leukemia from malignant lymphoma?

1. Acid phosphatase
2. Human chorionic gonadotropin
3. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
4. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) Which leukemia correlates best with the following results?

Test	Result
WBC	23 x 10⁹/L
RBC	3.2 x 10¹²/L
Platelets	35 x 10⁹
Blasts in bone marrow:	41%

1. Acute lymphoblastic
2. Acute monoblastic
3. Chronic myelogenous
4. Chronic myelomonocytic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.12) A patient is positive for the Philadelphia chromosome and negative for acute lymphoblastic leukemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia
2. Chronic myeloid leukemia
3. Pernicious anemia
4. Thalassemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.13) Blood tests reveal high levels of lymphocytes. Under a microscope, these cells look small and abnormal. Which type of leukemia best fits these results?

1. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
2. Acute myeloid leukemia
3. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
4. Chronic myeloid leukemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.14) Blood tests reveal high levels of immature white blood cells, many of which are myeloblasts. Red blood cell levels are low and platelet levels are low. Which type of leukemia best fits these results?

1. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
2. Acute myeloid leukemia
3. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
4. Chronic myeloid leukemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.15) Which FAB group of acute lymphoblastic leukemias has basophilic cells with prominent cytoplasmic vacuoles?

1. L1
2. L2
3. L3
4. L4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.16) Which factor contributes to severe anemia in people with chronic renal failure?

1. Blockage of the blood supply to the brain
2. Decreased renal production of erythropoietin
3. The inability of the intestines to absorb vitamin B12 and iron
4. The inability of the pancreas to produce insulin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.17) Along with the mean cell volume, which other test is used to morphologically classify anemias?

1. Hematocrit
2. Hemoglobin
3. Red blood count
4. Red cell blood distribution width

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.18) Which of the following results best correlates with sickle cell anemia?

1. Hgb 10.0 g/dL, Hct 10%, WBC 8.0×10⁹/L
2. Hgb 11.0 g/dL, Hct 31%, WBC 11.0×10⁹/L
3. Hgb 5.0 g/dL, Hct 17%, WBC 13.0×10⁹/L
4. Hgb 8.0 g/dL, Hct 42%, WBC 10.0×10⁹/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.19) Which of the following hematocrit values would be expected in a patient with untreated pernicious anemia?

1. 29%
2. 43%
3. 64%
4. 81%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.20) Which morphological classification best describes hemolytic anemia?

1. Macrocytic and hypochromic
2. Macrocytic and normochromic
3. Microcytic and hypochromic
4. Normocytic and normochromic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.21) What causes anemia in chronic kidney disease patients?

1. Atypical hemoglobin shape
2. Destruction of red blood cells earlier than normal
3. Inadequate erythropoietin production
4. Iron deficiency

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.22) A 23-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weakness, and heart palpitations. The results of a serum iron test are as follows:

Test	Result	Normal range
Serum iron concentration	28 mcg/dL	60–170 mcg/dL
Total iron-binding capacity	789 mcg/dL	240–450 mcg/dL

Based on these results, which type of anemia does the patient most likely have?

1. Hemolytic
2. Iron deficiency
3. Sickle cell
4. Vitamin deficiency

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.23) A 36-year-old man complains of tiredness and headaches. Blood tests reveal low vitamin B12 levels, low erythrocyte levels, and the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor. The patient's MCHC is normal but the MCV is high. Which disease does the patient most likely have?

1. Aplastic anemia
2. Pernicious anemia
3. Polycythemia
4. Sickle-cell anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.24) Which hemoglobin provides a measure of average blood glucose levels over the past three months?

1. HbA1c
2. HbA2c
3. HbC
4. HbS

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.25) A patient's serum iron test results are as follows:

Test	Result
Serum iron concentration	110 mcg/dL
Total iron-binding capacity	440 mcg/dL

Using this information, calculate the percentage transferrin saturation.

1. 4%
2. 5%
3. 10%
4. 25%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.26) Which test measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells?

1. CBC
2. ESR
3. Hct
4. Hgb

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.27) Which of these is a plasma protein involved in coagulation?

1. Albumin
2. Erythropoietin
3. Fibrinogen
4. Gamma globulin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.28) What color is lipemic plasma?

1. Brownish-yellow
2. Clear red
3. Milky
4. Straw-colored

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.29) What does the term "left shift" mean in hematology?

1. A decrease in the average size of red blood cells
2. A genetic disorder affecting the structure of hemoglobin
3. An increase in the number of immature neutrophils in the blood
4. The presence of glomerular-type red blood cells in the blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.30) Which of these enzymes is assayed in a heart attack?

1. Acetylcholinesterase
2. Creatine kinase
3. DNA polymerase
4. Trypsin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.31) Blood test results from an automated analyzer show a low red blood cell count, a low hematocrit, and a high MCV, MCH, and MCHC. Under a microscope, agglutination of red blood cells is observed. What step should be taken next?

1. Add kanamycin to the specimen and rerun the analysis
2. Dilute the specimen with isotonic diluent by a factor of 1:2 and rerun the analysis
3. Incubate the blood specimen at 37°C for 10–15 minutes and rerun the analysis
4. Mix the blood by vortex at the highest setting for 1–2 minutes and rerun the analysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.32) Calculate the reticulocyte production index from the following information:

Hct	15%
Normal Hct	45%
Maturation correction	2.5
Reticulocyte percentage	9%

1. 1.2%
2. 1.5%
3. 1.8%
4. 2.1%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.33) Which of these is needed to prepare defibrinated blood?

1. Filter paper
2. Glass beads
3. UV light
4. Vacuum pump

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.34) Capillary blood composition most closely resembles:

1. arterial blood
2. lymph fluid
3. tissue fluid
4. venous blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.35) Hematology analyzers use which principle for counting red blood cells?

1. Campbell
2. Coulter
3. Stewart
4. Thompson

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.36) The Coulter principle is based on the detection of:

1. changes in cell electrical currents
2. color absorption changes
3. diffusion
4. high-frequency sound waves

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.37) While separating serum, you notice that it is yellow, indicating that it contains excess bilirubin. What is the term for this finding?

1. Hemolysis
2. Icterus
3. Intergeneric
4. Lipemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.38) Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) staining was performed on a blood specimen. The specimen was scored as follows:

Score	Neutrophils
0	10
+1	40
+2	30
+3	10
+4	10

Which condition most likely explains the result?

1. Chronic myeloid leukemia
2. Leukemoid reaction
3. Leukocytosis
4. Leukopenia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.39) Platelet satellitism can occur in blood samples containing which additive?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Sodium fluoride
4. Sodium oxalate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.40) Which disorder correlates with these findings?

Test	Result
PLT	35 × 10⁹/L
HGB	72 g/L
INR	1.5
D-Dimer	22 mg/L

1. Acquired B
2. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
3. Folate deficiency anemia
4. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.41) When preparing a blood smear, which of these could cause the blood smear to be too thin?

1. A small drop size
2. Holding the spreader at a high angle
3. Spreading the blood too slowly
4. Using transfused blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.42) Which of these is a sign of a blood film that has been prepared poorly?

1. Consistent thickness throughout
2. Covers the majority of the slide
3. Feathered edges
4. Half to three-quarters the length of the slide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.43) A patient has a high red blood cell count, a high hematocrit, a high hemoglobin level, and a low erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Which of the following terms best describes the patient's condition?

1. Anemia
2. Polycythemia
3. Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Tuberculosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.44) A woman has a leukocyte count of 3.6 × 10⁹/L. What is the term for this type of cell count?

1. Leukemia
2. Leukocytosis
3. Leukodystrophy
4. Leukopenia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.45) A woman has the following blood test results:

Test	Result
Red cell count	7.8 × 10¹²/L
White cell count	7.5 × 10⁹/L
Platelets	242 × 10⁹/L

What term applies to these results?

1. Hypererythrocytosis
2. Leukocytosis
3. Leukopenia
4. Polycythemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.46) Hematocrit = _____________ × 3

1. hemoglobin
2. mean corpuscular volume
3. red blood cell count
4. white blood cell count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.47) Which red blood cell index is a measurement of the average amount of hemoglobin in red blood cells?

1. MCH
2. MCV
3. RBC
4. RDW

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.48) Which microscope objective is used first when examining a stained blood film?

1. 10x
2. 40x
3. 50x
4. 70x

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.49) A blood smear is performed for a neonate with low hemoglobin levels: Based on the blood smear, which disease does the neonate have?

1. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
2. Hemophilia A
3. Multiple myeloma
4. Sickle cell anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.50) Which type of abnormal red blood cell is in the blood smear below?

1. Burr
2. Sickle
3. Spur
4. Target

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.51) In the blood smear below, which type of red blood cell is the arrow pointing to?

1. Burr
2. Sickle
3. Spur
4. Target

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.52) Which white blood cell has granules that stain orange?

1. Eosinophil
2. Mature neutrophil
3. Monocyte
4. Small lymphocyte

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.53) Which type of abnormal red blood cells is in the blood smear below?

1. Acanthocytes
2. Dacrocytes
3. Echinocytes
4. Schistocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.54) A 42-year-old man with liver cirrhosis presents to the emergency ward with confusion and anemia. A peripheral blood smear is performed: Which type of abnormal red blood cells can be seen in the blood smear?

1. Burr
2. Sickle
3. Spur
4. Target

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.55) A 70 kg non-bleeding man has a hematocrit of 31%. How many units of red blood cells are needed to raise his hematocrit to 40%?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.56) Which of these statements about capillary punctures is true?

1. It is better to clean the skin with iodine than with alcohol
2. The first drop of blood is the best to use
3. The puncture must hit bone for it to be deep enough
4. The puncture should be made at right angles to the fingerprint striations

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.57) A fasting patient has cloudy white serum. What condition does the patient have?

1. Hemolysis
2. Hyperbilirubinemia
3. Hyperthyroidism
4. Hypertriglyceridemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.58) Which of these blood tests is outside the normal range?

1. PLT: 257 × 10⁹/L
2. RBC: 7.2 × 10¹²/L
3. WBC: 5.4 × 10⁹/L
4. WBC: 8.1 × 10⁹/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.59) Which of these is a normal result for RBC for men?

1. 5.6 × 10⁶ cells/μL
2. 6.9 × 10⁶ cells/μL
3. 7.5 × 10⁶ cells/μL
4. 8.3 × 10⁶ cells/μL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.60) The normal adult range for platelet count is ______________ per nanoliter of blood.

1. 150–450
2. 250–550
3. 350–650
4. 450–750

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.61) Which of these results indicates anemia in a male patient?

1. Hematocrit: 36%
2. MCH: 32 pg
3. MCV: 90 80 fL
4. RBC: 5.9 × 10¹²/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.62) What is the normal adult range for leukocyte count?

1. 0.5–7.0 × 10⁹/L
2. 2.5–9.0 × 10⁹/L
3. 4.5–11.0 × 10⁹/L
4. 6.5–13.0 × 10⁹/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.63) Hemoglobin A2 is elevated in which disease?

1. Alpha-thalassemia
2. Alport Syndrome
3. Beta-thalassemia
4. Hemolytic anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.64) A patient has an anion gap of 10.0 mEq/L. This is indicative of:

1. alkalosis
2. hypercalcemia
3. hypocalcemia
4. normal health

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.65) High amounts of which vitamin can cause false negatives in the fecal occult blood test?

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B6
3. Vitamin B12
4. Vitamin C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 5: Immunology

5.1) What is the main molecule responsible for transplant rejection?

1. Interferon alpha
2. Interleukin-8
3. Major histocompatibility complex
4. Transforming growth factor alpha

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) What is the most common type of lupus?

1. Drug-induced lupus
2. Lupus dermatitis
3. Neonatal lupus
4. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) Natural killer cells are what type of white blood cell?

1. Basophil
2. Eosinophil
3. Lymphocyte
4. Monocyte

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) Negative selection and positive selection of T cells occur in which part of the body?

1. Bone marrow
2. Lymph node
3. Spleen
4. Thymus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) Which process involves coating pathogens with antibodies to increase their susceptibility to phagocytosis?

1. Agglutination
2. Antioperisis
3. Chemotaxis
4. Opsonization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) Which type of hypersensitivity is also known as delayed-type and involves T-cells and/or macrophages releasing cytokines, leading to tissue damage?

1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) Complement can be activated through three pathways: classical, lectin, and:

1. alternative
2. contemporary
3. modern
4. tertiary

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) Which of these laboratory results is consistent with systemic lupus erythematosus?

1. Platelet count: 700 × 10⁹/L
2. Red blood cell count: 7.5 × 10¹²/L
3. Serum creatinine: 1.9 mg/dL
4. White blood cell count: 625 × 10⁹/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.9) Antibodies bind to which part of the antigen?

1. Effector region
2. Epitope
3. Hinge
4. Variable region

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.10) Which type of immunity produces antibodies in response to antigens?

1. Active
2. Innate
3. Maternal
4. Passive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.11) If skin is cut with a piece of glass contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus, which component of the immune system responds first?

1. B cells
2. Neutrophils
3. Platelets
4. T cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.12) What type of immunity occurs when a person is injected with someone else's antibodies?

1. Artificial active
2. Artificial passive
3. Natural active
4. Natural passive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.13) Which antibody can cross the placenta?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.14) Which antibody is abnormal in Waldenström macroglobulinemia?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.15) What is the main antibody in mucus?

1. lgA
2. lgD
3. lgE
4. lgG

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.16) What is the main antibody in blood?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.17) A peripheral pattern on the antinuclear antibody (ANA) test suggests which autoimmune disease?

1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Scleroderma
3. Sjögren syndrome
4. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.18) The antinuclear antibody (ANA) pattern below suggests which autoimmune disease?

1. Limited scleroderma
2. Rheumatoid arthritis
3. Sjögren syndrome
4. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.19) Which white blood cell condition often indicates an allergy?

1. Eosinophilia
2. Leukemia
3. Lymphocytosis
4. Neutrophilia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.20) An immunoassay produces a false-negative result due to an excess of antibodies. This is called the __________ effect.

1. dosage
2. excess
3. hook
4. recrement

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.21) The CD4 test is used to check the health of which type of patient?

1. Cancer
2. Elderly
3. HIV-positive
4. Terminally ill

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.22) Given the following data, calculate the absolute lymphocyte count.

Test	Result
% lymphocytes	30%
WBC	2.5 × 10⁹ cells/L

1. 0.75 cells/µL
2. 1.25 cells/µL
3. 750 cells/µL
4. 1,250 cells/µL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.23) A lab technician is running controls for a complement fixation test. The technician wants to check for the absence of anti-complementary activity of the antigen in the test. To do this, the technician should perform the test:

1. with a serum diluted to 2-5 of the usual concentration
2. with unsensitised red blood cells
3. without red blood cells
4. without the serum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.24) Which of these enzymes is a marker for acute lymphocytic leukemia?

1. Adenosine deaminase
2. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
3. Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
4. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.25) Which type of hypersensitivity is autoimmune hemolytic anemia, Goodpasture's syndrome, and Graves' disease?

1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.26) The precipitin pattern below was obtained using the Ouchterlony double immunodiffusion technique: The pattern shows:

1. identity
2. non-identity
3. partial identity
4. the presence of three different antigens

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.27) T cells exert their actions by secreting soluble proteins named:

1. antigens
2. complement factors
3. cytokines
4. interferons

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 6: Microbiology

6.1) In the hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) staining method, the eosin stains:

1. connective tissue blue
2. cytoplasms pink
3. microorganisms blue
4. nuclei pink

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) When a smear is too red, neutrophil granules look:

1. blue-red
2. brilliant red
3. indistinct
4. light blue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) What is the counterstain in Gram's technique?

1. Acetone-alcohol
2. Crystal violet
3. Iodine
4. Safranin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) What is the correct order of reagents used for Gram staining?

1. Crystal violet, iodine, acetone-alcohol, safranin
2. Crystal violet, safranin, acetone-alcohol, iodine
3. Iodine, crystal violet, acetone-alcohol, safranin
4. Safranin, iodine, crystal violet, acetone-alcohol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) What is the ratio of eosin to methylene blue in eosin methylene blue?

1. 1:1
2. 1:2
3. 3:1
4. 6:1

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) Van Gieson's stain is a mixture of picric acid and:

1. acid fuchsin
2. methylene blue
3. thionine
4. toluidine blue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) What color are red blood cells after Giemsa staining?

1. Dark blue
2. Pale blue
3. Pale pink
4. Violet

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.8) Why are bacterial smears heat-fixed before staining?

1. To make the cell walls visible under the microscope
2. To prevent the cells from washing off the slide during staining
3. To provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow
4. To remove alcohol from the slide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.9) Which of these is a Romanowsky stain?

1. Gram stain
2. Jefferson stain
3. Leishman stain
4. Sudan stain

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.10) Which stain can differentiate collagen fibers from other fibers?

1. Hematoxylin and eosin stain
2. Masson's trichrome stain
3. Reticular stain
4. Sudan stain

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.11) The Pap stain stains which structure blue, purple or black?

1. Cytoplasm
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Mitochondria
4. Nuclei

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.12) What cell structure turns blue in H&E staining?

1. Cytoplasm
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Nuclei
4. Reticulum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.13) Mucicarmine is used primarily to stain:

1. elastic fibers
2. epithelial mucin
3. fat
4. nervous tissue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.14) A lab technician stains a blood film using Wright's stain. However, under the microscope, the red blood cells appear excessively red and the nuclei are poorly stained. What could be the cause?

1. Inadequate washing
2. Prolonged staining
3. The pH of the buffer was too high
4. The stain/buffer mixture was too acidic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.15) What is the best time to collect specimens for pinworm ova?

1. Before going to bed
2. Before the morning bowel movement
3. Immediately following a bowel movement
4. In the early afternoon

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.16) An organism from a lung biopsy grows as a mold at room temperature and as yeast at 37°C. What is the most appropriate way to interpret these results?

1. Dimorphic fungus present
2. The specimen is contaminated, ask for a repeat collection
3. Two pathogens are present
4. Two pathogens are present but only the mold is significant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.17) Skin scrapings are set up in microbiology to identify:

1. Corynebacterium
2. Escherichia coli
3. Neisseria
4. fungi

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.18) What is the term for an organism that only grows when specific nutrients are included in its medium?

1. Anaerobe
2. Captious
3. Fastidious
4. Obligate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.19) The urease test determines whether an organism can:

1. digest urease
2. produce urea
3. split urea
4. transport urea into its cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.20) A negative result on the nitrate reduction test is demonstrated when the broth ________________ when nitrate I and nitrate II are added and ________________ when zinc is added.

1. remains colorless, remains colorless
2. remains colorless, turns blue
3. remains colorless, turns red
4. turns red, turns blue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.21) The presence of a black precipitate on the Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) test indicates the bacteria produced:

1. carbon dioxide
2. glucose
3. hydrogen sulfide
4. lactose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.22) The cell wall of bacteria is made predominantly of which substance?

1. Cellulose
2. Chitin
3. Peptidoglycan
4. Starch

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.23) Bartonella henselae causes which disease?

1. Cat scratch disease
2. Diphtheria
3. Oroya fever
4. Verruga peruana

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.24) What animal is the vector for arboviruses?

1. Birds
2. Cats
3. Dogs
4. Insects

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.25) Which of these organisms can be used as a positive control for the spot indole test?

1. Enterobacter cloacae
2. Escherichia coli
3. Salmonella enterica
4. Shigella sonnei

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.26) What is the function of reverse transcriptase in viruses?

1. To activate 2'-5' oligoadenylate synthetase
2. To cleave polyprotein
3. To cleave sialic acid residue from glycoprotein
4. To transcribe RNA into DNA

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.27) Which group of viruses is the most frequent cause of viral meningitis in the United States?

1. Adenoviruses
2. Enteroviruses
3. Rhabdoviruses
4. Rhinoviruses

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.28) Which of these is a prokaryotic organism?

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa
4. Viruses

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.29) Which species of bacteria causes tuberculosis?

1. Corynebacterium
2. Lactobacillus
3. Mycobacterium
4. Streptococcus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.30) Enterobius vermicularis is more commonly known as:

1. pinworm
2. roundworm
3. threadworm
4. whipworm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.31) Which organism causes rose gardener's disease?

1. Blastomyces dermatitidis
2. Coccidioides immitis
3. Histoplasma capsulatum
4. Sporothrix schenckii

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.32) Which parasite causes kala-azar?

1. Leishmania donovani
2. Plasmodium
3. Trypanosoma cruzi
4. Wuchereria bancrofti

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.33) Which species of Rickettsia do lice transmit?

1. R. prowazekii
2. R. rickettsii
3. R. tsutsugamushi
4. R. typhi

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.34) Streptococci are arranged in which shape?

1. Boxes
2. Chains
3. Clusters
4. Tetrads

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.35) The Epstein-Barr virus causes which disease?

1. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
2. Mononucleosis
3. Roseola
4. Smallpox

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.36) Which of these bacteria causes Q fever?

1. Bartonella henselae
2. Bartonella quintana
3. Coxiella burnetii
4. Rickettsia rickettsii

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.37) Corynebacterium diphtheria is a:

1. gram-negative cocci
2. gram-negative rod
3. gram-positive cocci
4. gram-positive rod

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.38) Which virus causes chickenpox?

1. Adenovirus A
2. Human herpesvirus 6
3. Human papilomavirus
4. Varicella-zoster virus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.39) Which bacteria is shaped like a corkscrew?

1. Actinomycetes
2. Bacilli
3. E. coli
4. Spirochaetes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.40) What causes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

1. JC virus
2. Prions
3. Pumuula virus
4. SV40 virus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.41) Which parasite causes amoebic dysentery?

1. Ascaris lumbricoides
2. Entamoeba histolytica
3. Giardia lamblia
4. Shigella

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.42) Mueller-Hinton agar isolates which type of bacteria?

1. Mycobacterium
2. Neisseria
3. Salmonella
4. Staphylococcus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.43) Which of the following bacteria can be grown on Colistin-nalidixic acid agar?

1. Haemophilus influenzae
2. Neisseria gonorrhea
3. Salmonella
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.44) Löwenstein-Jensen media is used to isolate which type of bacteria?

1. Escherichia
2. Haemophilus
3. Listeria
4. Mycobacteria

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.45) Which of these will NOT grow on agar plates?

1. Bacteria
2. Mold
3. Protozoa
4. Viruses

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.46) Thayer-Martin agar is used to culture and isolate which bacteria?

1. E. coli
2. Neisseria
3. Staphylococcus
4. Streptococcus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.47) TCBS agar isolates what pathogen from stool cultures?

1. Plesiomonas
2. Salmonella
3. Shigella
4. Vibrio

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.48) Bacteria are grown on a blood agar plate. The lab technician observes a clear zone of hemolysis under and around the bacterial colonies. What type of hemolysis is this?

1. Alpha
2. Alpha-prime
3. Beta
4. Gamma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.49) What type of culture media promotes the growth of one type of organism while slowing the growth of others?

1. Differential
2. Enriched
3. Natural
4. Selective

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.50) Which culture medium would be most appropriate to isolate Haemophilus influenza?

1. Blood
2. Chocolate
3. MacConkey
4. Nutrient

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.51) Blood for blood agar plates is usually obtained from which animal?

1. Dogs
2. Goats
3. Rabbits
4. Sheep

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.52) MacConkey agar differentiates bacteria based on their:

1. ability to ferment lactose
2. ability to hydrolyze starch
3. ability to utilise the safranin dye
4. hemolytic activity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.53) After Gram staining, what color are gram-negative organisms?

1. Dark blue
2. Light blue
3. Purple or brown
4. Red or pink

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.54) What is the term for a rod-shaped microorganism that appears red after Gram staining?

1. Gram-negative bacillus
2. Gram-negative cocci
3. Gram-positive bacillus
4. Gram-positive cocci

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.55) The cell walls of gram-positive bacteria have what property that enables them to resist decolorization during Gram staining?

1. A high mycolic acid content
2. A lipid bilayer
3. A thick layer of peptidoglycan
4. Multiple endoflagella

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.56) Agar plates are placed upside down in the incubator to prevent:

1. contamination from other agar plates
2. moisture from accumulating on the agar surface
3. pathogens from overgrowing
4. the medium from drying out

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.57) A 29-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a fever. He recently finished a course of chemotherapy for acute leukemia. The doctor performs two blood cultures, a sputum culture, a urine culture, and a chest x-ray. All tests are negative except for one blood culture, which grows a gram-negative bacillus. This bacillus is:

1. an indication that the patient has meningitis
2. most likely a contaminant
3. most likely an organism the patient acquired from the hands of a healthcare provider the last time he was in the hospital
4. the most likely cause of the fever

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.58) A 50-year-old inpatient develops a catheter-associated urinary tract infection while in hospital. The urine culture grows >100,000 oxidase-positive gram-negative bacilli. What is the most likely organism?

1. E. coli
2. Enterococcus
3. Klebsiella
4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.59) A 41-year-old woman who breeds pigeons as a hobby has a fever, a headache, a dry hacking cough, and muscle aches. A lung exam reveals bilateral crackles. A physical exam reveals hepatomegaly. Which pathogen is the most likely cause?

1. Chlamydia pneumoniae
2. Chlamydia psittaci
3. Franciscella tularensis
4. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.60) A 22-year-old woman complains of yellow discharge from her vagina and pain when urinating. Her urethral discharge Gram stain is shown below: What is the most likely causative organism?

1. Corynebacterium argentoratense
2. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
3. Neisseria gonorrhea
4. Neisseria meningitidis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.61) A patient has a gangrenous leg wound. The wound is infected with an anaerobic, spore-forming, gram-positive bacillus. What organism is this likely to be?

1. Bacillus subtilis
2. Bacteroides fragilis
3. Clostridium perfringens
4. Francisella tularensis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.62) A Neisseria species is isolated from a patient sample. A carbohydrate utilization test is performed. The results are as follows:

Test	Result
Glucose	+
Maltose	−
Fructose	−
Sucrose	−
Lactose	−

Based on these results, which Neisseria species is in the sample?

1. N. gonorrhea
2. N. lactamica
3. N. meningitidis
4. N. sicca

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.63) Which bacteria can hydrolyze hippurate, is beta-hemolytic, is a major cause of neonatal meningitis and sepsis, and produces CAMP factor?

1. Enterococcus faecalis
2. Streptococcus agalactiae
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
4. Streptococcus pyogenes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.64) A patient has a high fever and a headache and seems confused. From the blood, a small, gram-positive, catalase-positive rod-shaped organism is isolated. There is a narrow zone of beta hemolysis. What is the organism most likely to be?

1. Bordetella pertussis
2. Clostridium tetani
3. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
4. Listeria monocytogenes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.65) A patient passes a worm in her stool. The worm is large, white, and round. It is about 20 cm long and has three “lips” at the anterior end of its body. Which parasite matches this description?

1. Ascaris lumbricoides
2. Necator americanus
3. Toxocara canis
4. Wuchereria bancrofti

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.66) A three-day-old neonate exhibits lethargy, fever, and vomiting. A lumbar puncture reveals bacterial meningitis. A Gram stain of the neonate's spinal fluid shows short gram-positive rods. This organism is most likely:

1. Group B Streptococcus
2. Listeria monocytogenes
3. Neisseria meningitidis
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.67) A 17-year-old boy presents with red, painful, swollen sores on his face. A specimen is taken from one of the sores. A catalase-positive, spot indole-positive, aerotolerant anaerobic organism is isolated from the specimen. Below is the result of a Gram stain: Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of the sores?

1. Cutibacterium acnes
2. Neisseria meningitidis
3. Staphylococcus aureus
4. Staphylococcus epidermidis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.68) A rat bites a 5-year-old boy. A few days later, the boy develops headaches, fever, and muscle pain. An anaerobic blood culture is positive for gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteria. What are these bacteria most likely to be?

1. Bacillus mycoides
2. Escherichia coli
3. Neisseria meningitidis
4. Streptobacillus moniliformis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.69) A 6-year-old child presents with nausea and diarrhea. The physician orders an O&P stool examination. The following organism is found in the child's stool: Which organism is in the image?

1. Cryptosporidium meleagridis
2. E. coli
3. Giardia duodenalis
4. Shigella dysenteriae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.70) A 32-year-old woman presents with pain on the right side of her abdomen and a fever of 100.2°F. At first, the physician suspects acute appendicitis, but then the patient says she ate raw pork yesterday as part of a new diet. This leads the physician to suspect food poisoning instead. A Gram stain of a stool sample is performed. The Gram stain is shown below: What is the most likely identification of this organism?

1. Clostridium perfringens
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Trichinella
4. Yersinia enterocolitica

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.71) What is the expected quality control result on the nitrate reduction test for P. aeruginosa? Assume P. aeruginosa can reduce nitrate to nitrogen gas.

1. Blue after nitrate A and B reagents are added
2. Colorless after nitrate A and B reagents are added, colorless after zinc is added
3. Colorless after nitrate A and B reagents are added, red after zinc is added
4. Red after nitrate A and B reagents are added

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.72) A lab technician runs controls for the L-pyrrolidonyl-β-naphthylamid (PYR) test. The results are as follows:

Organism	Result
Streptococcus pyogenes	Positive
Streptococcus agalactiae	Negative
Enterococcus faecalis	Positive

What action should the lab technician take?

1. Discard the reagent
2. Replace the dye
3. Retest the control organisms
4. Start testing patient samples since the test is functioning correctly

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.73) Which of these media is used to transport and preserve stool specimens?

1. Blood agar
2. Cary-Blair media
3. Lowenstein-Jensen agar
4. MacConkey agar

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 7: Laboratory operations

7.1) A lab assistant makes a 1/6 dilution of serum in water. The assistant then performs a glucose test on the diluted serum. The result is 72 mg/dL. What result should the lab assistant report to the doctor?

1. 12 mg/dL
2. 72 mg/dL
3. 432 mg/dL
4. 720 mg/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) If 0.2 mL of a sample is added to 5 mL of diluent, what is the dilution factor?

1. 4.8
2. 5.2
3. 25
4. 26

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) A dilution ratio of 1:15 means what part specimen and what part diluent?

1. 1 part specimen, 15 parts diluent
2. 1 part specimen, 16 parts diluent
3. 15 parts specimen, 1 part diluent
4. 16 parts specimen, 1 part diluent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) A lab technician is preparing a serial dilution with eight tubes. The first tube contains a 1/2 dilution. If the dilution factor doubles with each transfer, what would be the dilution in the eighth tube?

1. 1/128
2. 1/256
3. 1/512
4. 1/1024

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) A lab technician makes a solution by mixing 1 liter of water with 9 g of salt. What is the salt concentration of the solution?

1. 0.9 g/L
2. 8 g/L
3. 8.9 g/L
4. 9 g/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) How would you prepare a 50 mL 1/10 dilution of bleach?

1. 1 mL of bleach to 10 mL of water
2. 5 mL of bleach to 50 mL of water
3. 5 mL of bleach to 45 mL of water
4. 10 mL of bleach to 100 mL of water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) A lab technician adds 0.2 mL of a stock solution to 3.8 mL of diluent. What is the dilution factor?

1. 4
2. 5
3. 19
4. 20

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.8) Which of these is a 1/8 dilution of urine?

1. 1 part urine and 7 parts water
2. 1 part urine and 8 parts water
3. 1 part water and 7 parts urine
4. 1 part water and 8 parts urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.9) A control has a mean of 2.8 with a standard deviation of 0.3. This means 68% of the values should fall within a range of:

1. 2.0−3.1
2. 2.2−3.4
3. 2.2−3.4
4. 2.5−3.1

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.10) If a control has a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 1, then 95% of the values obtained should fall within what range?

1. 1–9
2. 2–8
3. 3–7
4. 4–6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.11) For data distributed normally, how many values are within one standard deviation from the mean?

1. 50%
2. 68%
3. 83%
4. 95%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.12) Automated white blood cell counts were performed on 29 blood samples. The mean value was 8.0 cells/nL and the standard deviation was 1.2 cells/nL. What is the coefficient of variation?

1. 15%
2. 30%
3. 45%
4. 60%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.13) A biochemistry analyzer measures a parameter across seven serum samples. The results are 9, 4, 8, 10, 17, 5, and 10. Which statistic is the largest: the mean, mode, median or range?

1. Mean
2. Median
3. Mode
4. Range

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.14) Find the mode and median of the sequence 3, 8, 9, 1, 9, 7, 3, 8, 9.

1. Mode: 8, median: 7
2. Mode: 8, median: 8
3. Mode: 9, median: 7
4. Mode: 9, median: 8

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.15) A lab technician needs 450 mL of a 2% acid solution for a manual dilution of white blood cells but only a 6% solution of acetic acid is available. How would the lab technician prepare the 2% solution?

1. Mixing 9 mL of 6% solute in 441 mL of diluent
2. Mixing 27 mL of 6% solute in 423 mL of diluent
3. Mixing 150 mL of 6% solute in 300 mL of diluent
4. Mixing 200 mL of 6% solute in 250 mL of diluent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.16) What does 3% v/w mean?

1. 3 grams of solute dissolved in 100 grams of solution
2. 3 grams of solute dissolved in 100 mL of solvent
3. 3 mL of solute dissolved in 100 grams of solution
4. 3 mL of solute dissolved in 100 mL of solvent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.17) Which of these is an example of regulated waste?

1. Empty medicine bottles
2. Patient gowns
3. Sterile dressings
4. Used blood tubes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.18) Class A fires involve:

1. combustible metals
2. electrical equipment
3. flammable liquids
4. paper and wood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.19) Which rating of fire extinguisher is used in chemical fires?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.20) Class D fires involve:

1. combustible metals
2. electrical equipment
3. flammable liquids
4. paper and wood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.21) What is the first step when using a fire extinguisher?

1. Aim the fire extinguisher at the fire
2. Pull the pin
3. Squeeze the handle
4. Sweep the hose from side to side at the base of the fire

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.22) What type of fire extinguisher can be used on a methane gas fire?

1. ABC powder
2. AFFF foam
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.23) What is the term for chemicals that burn or destroy tissue?

1. Acyclic
2. Caustic
3. Galvanic
4. Stereogenic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.24) A lab assistant accidentally drinks a beaker of Zenker's fluid. He says he feels a burning sensation in his mouth and throat. The lab manager phones 911. While waiting for the ambulance to arrive, which of these other first-aid measures should be taken?

1. Give the lab assistant water to drink
2. Place the lab assistant in the recovery position
3. Take the lab assistant outside for fresh air
4. Tell the lab assistant to rinse his eyes with water for several minutes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.25) Which of these gloves would offer the most protection in a laboratory?

1. 1 mil nitrile gloves
2. 3 mil latex gloves
3. 5 mil latex gloves
4. 5 mil nitrile gloves

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.26) In which of these situations should safety goggles be worn?

1. During blood collections
2. During reagent and specimen preparation
3. While inspecting reagent supplies
4. While transporting sealed waste containers

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.27) What does this pictogram mean?

1. Flammable
2. Oxidizing
3. Self-heating
4. Self-reactive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.28) What does this pictogram mean?

1. Biohazard
2. Carcinogenic
3. Corrosive
4. Toxic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.29) In the NFPA hazard diamond, which quadrant indicates special hazards?

1. Blue
2. Red
3. White
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.30) On the NFPA hazard diamond below, what do the letters SA mean?

1. Can shock and/or cause acid damage
2. Safety assessed
3. Simple asphyxiant
4. Substance abuse

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.31) Always keep picric acid:

1. dry
2. refrigerated
3. ventilated
4. wet

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.32) Superheating steam in an autoclave:

1. diminishes its sterilizing capacity
2. helps to dry out the equipment
3. increases its sterilizing power
4. will make the centrifuge spin faster

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.33) A reagent requires 1.26 grams of sodium carbonate. The lab technician should measure it with a:

1. analytical balance
2. desiccator
3. pH meter
4. single pan balance

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.34) Stray light can be measured in spectrophotometers with:

1. a cut-off filter
2. a mercury-vapor lamp
3. a potassium dichromate solution
4. holmium oxide glass

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.35) The ___________ is a measure of a microscope's ability to gather light and resolve fine specimen detail.

1. contrast
2. empty magnification
3. numerical aperture
4. objective

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.36) Which pipette has a bulged-out portion in the middle?

1. Mohr
2. Pasture
3. Serological
4. Volumetric

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.37) Which device measures the RPM of a centrifuge?

1. Ohmmeter
2. Rheostat
3. Tachometer
4. Voltmeter

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.38) The following chart compares an old method of performing a hematologic test (X-axis) with a new method (Y-axis). The squares represent samples tested with both methods and the black line is the line of best fit. The new method shows what kind of bias?

1. Negative constant
2. Negative proportional
3. Positive constant
4. Variable proportional

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.39) Which ISO standard specifies requirements for quality and competence in medical laboratories?

1. ISO 15106
2. ISO 15189
3. ISO 15503
4. ISO 15513

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.40) Which of these four pictures demonstrates high precision but low accuracy?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.41) Below is a Levey-Jennings quality control chart that represents the control values for 20 consecutive analyzes for serum albumin levels. Based on the chart, which of the following actions should be taken?

1. Reject the run
2. Repeat the control
3. Check the blood analyzer for a malfunctioning component
4. Continue to run samples as normal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.42) A test tube solution has a concentration of 0.26 M, a path length of 2 cm, and an absorbance of 0.072 at 530 nm. To two significant digits, calculate the molar absorptivity.

1. 0.04
2. 0.14
3. 1.61
4. 1.81

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.43) Under the Occupational Safety and Health Act, employers have a responsibility to provide:

1. a safe workplace
2. extra training for disabled workers
3. health insurance
4. work breaks

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

About us

Contact us

FAQ

Sitemap