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ASCP MLS Exam: Practice Questions

Number of questions: 400

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About the ASCP MLS exam

The ASCP Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) exam assesses the knowledge required for advanced-level medical laboratory roles. The American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP) administers the exam.

The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions and has a 2.5-hour time limit. Exam topics include blood banking, urinalysis, chemistry, hematology, immunology, microbiology, and laboratory procedures.

The exam fee is $250.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the ASCP MLS exam.

This page contains 400 practice questions divided into the seven sections of the exam: 1. Blood banking, 2. Urinalysis and other body fluids, 3. Chemistry, 4. Hematology, 5. Immunology, 6. Microbiology, and 7. Laboratory operations.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Sections

  1. Blood banking
  2. Urinalysis and other body fluids
  3. Chemistry
  4. Hematology
  5. Immunology
  6. Microbiology
  7. Laboratory operations

Section 1: Blood banking

1.1) Antibodies from which antigen system do NOT cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?
  1. ABO
  2. Duffy
  3. Lewis
  4. RhD
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) Which antibody is only found in people with the Bombay blood group?
  1. Anti-D
  2. Anti-F
  3. Anti-H
  4. Anti-I
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) Which immunoglobulin has the most number of subclasses?
  1. IgA
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) Which class are most Rh antibodies?
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) Which IgG subclass is unable to cross the placenta?
  1. IgG1
  2. IgG2
  3. IgG3
  4. IgG4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) Which test screens maternal blood for the presence of fetal red blood cells?
  1. Alpha-fetoprotein screen
  2. Chorionic villus sampling
  3. Direct antiglobulin test
  4. Kleihauer-Betke test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) What is the sugar of the A antigen?
  1. D-galactose
  2. Lactose
  3. N-acetylgalactosamine
  4. N-acetyllactosamine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) Which test identifies individuals who appear Rh-negative on standard testing but still carry the antigen at low levels?
  1. Kleihauer-Betke Test
  2. Rh phenotyping
  3. Warm autoadsorption test
  4. Weak D test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) Why is hydroxyethyl starch used in leukocytapheresis procedures?
  1. To help separate white blood cells from red blood cells
  2. To increase the donor’s blood volume
  3. To increase the production of white blood cells in the bone marrow
  4. To pull granulocytes from the marginal pool into the general circulation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) Which concentrate carries the lowest risk of HIV and hepatitis?
  1. Erythrocyte concentrate
  2. Normal serum albumin
  3. Platelets concentrate
  4. Whole blood transfusion
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) The absence of which antigen makes red blood cells resistant to Plasmodium vivax malaria?
  1. Duffy
  2. Kidd
  3. Lewis
  4. Rhesus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Which three HLA molecules are most important to match for kidney transplants?
  1. HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C
  2. HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-DR
  3. HLA-A, HLA-DP, and HLA-DQ
  4. HLA-A, HLA-DP, and HLA-DR
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Low ionic strength saline (LISS) is a potentiator that reduces the _______ potential of red blood cells.
  1. alpha
  2. beta
  3. gamma
  4. zeta
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) When administering immune serum globulin therapy, healthcare professionals should be cautious with patients with:
  1. AIDS
  2. a history of IgA deficiency
  3. an immunodeficiency disease
  4. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) If a patient with severe chronic anemia receives a transfusion of whole blood, which acute transfusion complication is most likely to occur?
  1. Acute intravascular hemolysis
  2. Anaphylactic reaction
  3. Fluid overload
  4. Septic shock
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) Putting the patient in an upright seated position and providing supplementary oxygen can help for which of these transfusion reactions?
  1. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR)
  2. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)
  3. Transfusion-associated sepsis (TAS)
  4. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) One unit of whole blood increases hemoglobin in a standard adult patient by how much?
  1. 1 g/dL
  2. 2 g/dL
  3. 3 g/dL
  4. 4 g/dL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) Which of these blood products needs to be irradiated before being transfused into patients?
  1. Cryoprecipitate
  2. Fresh frozen plasma
  3. Frozen washed red cells
  4. Granulocytes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) Which pathophysiological effect results from transfusions of red blood cells with low 2,3-DPG levels?
  1. Decreased carbon dioxide levels
  2. Increased cardiac output
  3. Increased mixed venous oxygen tension
  4. Lower blood viscosity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Urinalysis and other body fluids

Section 3: Chemistry

Section 4: Hematology

Section 5: Immunology

Section 6: Microbiology

Section 7: Laboratory operations

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