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ASCP MLA Exam: Practice Questions

Number of questions: 200

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About the ASCP MLA exam

The ASCP Medical Laboratory Assistant (MLA) examination is an exam that tests your theoretical and practical knowledge of laboratory assistant duties. The exam is set by the American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP).

The examination consists of 100 questions and lasts 2 hours and 30 minutes. All questions are multiple-choice and have one correct answer.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the ASCP MLA exam.

This page contains 200 practice questions divided into the five sections of the exam: 1. Patient registration and specimen collection, 2. Specimen preparation and processing, 3. Support for clinical testing, 4. Waived and point-of-care testing, and 5. Laboratory operations.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Sections

  1. Patient registration and specimen collection
  2. Specimen preparation and processing
  3. Support for clinical testing
  4. Waived and point-of-care testing
  5. Laboratory operations

Section 1: Patient registration and specimen collection

1.1) Which of these specimens has the lowest priority?
  1. Postop
  2. Preop
  3. Routine
  4. Timed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) A patient is extremely anxious about having her blood drawn. She tells you that she is afraid of needles. You do not have much experience drawing blood. What should you do?
  1. Ask an experienced phlebotomist to perform the draw for you
  2. Explain to her that you will use a small needle that barely hurts
  3. Tell her that it's not a big deal and that she shouldn't be afraid
  4. Use an ice pack to numb the site before drawing the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) There are two patients in a room and one of the patients has a latex allergy. A phlebotomist needs to collect a specimen from the other patient. How should the phlebotomist proceed?
  1. Ask the allergic patient to wear a mask
  2. Do not take anything that contains latex into the room
  3. Proceed as usual
  4. Pull the curtain between beds and proceed as usual
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) A phlebotomist is drawing blood from a young boy. The boy's mother is in the room and she says she doesn't like the sight of blood. She looks pale and says she feels faint. The phlebotomist should:
  1. ignore the mother as the focus should be on the child
  2. offer the mother a chair to sit in
  3. take the child's blood as quickly as possible to get it over with
  4. tell the mother not to worry
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) You have to draw blood from a nervous patient. What should you do?
  1. Be friendly and confident
  2. Cancel the requisition and send them home
  3. Tell the patient the needle won't hurt
  4. Tell the patient to calm down
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) A young woman comes to get her blood drawn. She looks nervous. She says this is her first venipuncture. You should:
  1. carefully explain the procedure to her
  2. give her a stick to bite down on
  3. ignore her nervousness
  4. tell her she is too old to be scared
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) A phlebotomist is asked to collect a blood specimen from an inpatient but the patient is not wearing an ID band. What is the best thing to do?
  1. Ask a nurse for help identifying the patient
  2. Identify the patient by asking them to confirm their name
  3. Identify the patient by the name card on the door
  4. Refuse to draw the specimen and cancel the request
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) When drawing blood from an obese patient, which location should be the first place you look for a vein?
  1. The antecubital fossa
  2. The back of the knee
  3. The feet
  4. The neck
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) Which of these actions can help a phlebotomist find a difficult vein?
  1. Ask the patient to hold their arm up in the air
  2. Ask the patient to make a fist
  3. Cool the area with an ice pack
  4. Tell the patient to drink nothing and come back in a few hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) Which vein should be tried first when choosing a draw site?
  1. Basilic
  2. Cephalic
  3. Median antibrachial
  4. Median cubital
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) Why must a phlebotomist clean the patient's skin before performing a venipuncture?
  1. To allow blood flow to the area
  2. To cause the veins to be more prominent
  3. To decrease circulation in the arteries
  4. To remove microorganisms from the puncture site
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) What is the purpose of a tourniquet in venipuncture?
  1. To decrease the oxygen level
  2. To make the veins more prominent
  3. To monitor blood pressure
  4. To prevent hematoma
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) What might happen if an angle of 8 degrees is used when performing venipuncture?
  1. A deep hematoma may form
  2. The needle may enter above the vein
  3. The needle may go completely through the vein
  4. The needle may go through the posterior wall of the vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) Which of these statements about venipuncture is true?
  1. After collecting the blood, remove the needle first, then the tourniquet
  2. Do not leave the tourniquet on for more than 1 minute
  3. Enter the vein at a 50-degree angle
  4. The bevel of the needle should be pointing down when the needle enters the vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) What should you do if a patient faints during a venipuncture?
  1. Continue the procedure until all blood is collected
  2. Leave the needle in the vein and call the physician
  3. Remove the needle and attend to the patient
  4. Yell loudly at the patient to keep him conscious
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) In venipuncture, which of these actions may cause a hematoma?
  1. Applying pressure to the puncture site after removing the needle
  2. Asking the patient to form a fist so the veins are more prominent
  3. Inserting the needle through the vein and puncturing the opposite wall
  4. Removing the tourniquet before the needle is removed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) A phlebotomist has made two unsuccessful attempts while trying to collect a blood specimen from a patient. What should the phlebotomist do next?
  1. Ask another phlebotomist to collect it
  2. Ask the patient's nurse to do the draw
  3. Collect it by arterial puncture
  4. Try to draw it one more time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) Which of these would be most likely to allow reflux to occur during venipuncture?
  1. Filling the stopper end of the tube first
  2. Lateral redirection of the needle
  3. Releasing the tourniquet on blood flow
  4. Using the wrong order of draw
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) A phlebotomist is performing a venipuncture. The needle is in place but no blood is entering the tube. What is the first thing the phlebotomist should do?
  1. Change to pediatric tubes
  2. Discontinue the draw and cancel the requisition
  3. Switch to a winged blood collection set
  4. Try adjusting the needle slightly
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) When a phlebotomist inserts a needle into the patient's arm, bright red blood spurts into the vacutainer. What does this indicate?
  1. A high hematocrit
  2. A low blood pH
  3. An arterial puncture
  4. Carbon monoxide poisoning
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) Which of these actions helps to prevent hemoconcentration during venipuncture?
  1. Asking the patient to make and release a fist several times
  2. Asking the patient to release her fist upon blood flow
  3. Keeping the tourniquet on for longer than a minute
  4. Massaging the site before inserting the needle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) During venipuncture, what is the longest time a tourniquet should remain on the patient's arm?
  1. 1 minute
  2. 3 minutes
  3. 5 minutes
  4. 7 minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) Sodium heparin should be avoided for which of these tests?
  1. Electrolyte panel
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Lithium levels
  4. pH
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.24) A phlebotomist has to collect a purple top tube, green top tube, and light blue top tube from the same patient. In which order should the phlebotomist fill the tubes?
  1. Green, light blue, purple
  2. Green, purple, light blue
  3. Light blue, green, purple
  4. Purple, green, light blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.25) Which tube would be drawn for an antinuclear antibody test (ANA)?
  1. Gray
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.26) What are cross-match tubes used for?
  1. Blood compatibility testing
  2. Coagulation studies
  3. Glucose tests
  4. Trace element studies
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.27) EDTA prevents clotting by binding to:
  1. anti-hemophilia factor
  2. calcium ions
  3. fibrinogen
  4. prothrombin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.28) Which anticoagulant is used for blood gas tests?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Potassium oxalate
  4. Trisodium citrate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.29) A phlebotomist needs to collect blood samples from a patient for a blood glucose test and a hemoglobin test. What color tubes should the phlebotomist use?
  1. Gray and green
  2. Gray and lavender
  3. Gray and red
  4. Red and green
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.30) Gray-top vacutainers contain which anticoagulant?
  1. Heparin
  2. Potassium oxalate
  3. SPS
  4. Sodium polyanethole sulfonate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.31) What is the glycolytic inhibitor in gray-top tubes?
  1. Heparin
  2. Silicon
  3. Sodium citrate
  4. Sodium fluoride
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.32) What vacutainer tube is used for coagulation studies?
  1. Black
  2. Gray
  3. Green
  4. Light blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.33) What vacutainer tube is used for reticulocyte counts?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.34) Which color vacutainer tube is used for glucose testing?
  1. Gray
  2. Green
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.35) What color tube is used for stat chemistry tests?
  1. Green
  2. Light blue
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.36) Light blue top tubes are used for what tests?
  1. Chemistry
  2. Coagulation
  3. Hematology
  4. Serology
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.37) Which of these tubes contains an anticoagulant that works by binding calcium?
  1. Green top
  2. Light blue top
  3. PST
  4. Red top
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.38) A phlebotomist has to draw a patient's blood into a blood culture bottle and four tubes: red, green, light blue, and purple. Which should the phlebotomist fill first?
  1. Blood culture bottle
  2. Light blue top tube
  3. Purple top tube
  4. Red top tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.39) A phlebotomist is performing venipuncture on a difficult vein using a butterfly. The phlebotomist has to collect an SST and a light blue-topped tube. How should the phlebotomist proceed?
  1. Collect the SST first then the light blue top tube
  2. Collect the light blue top tube first then the SST
  3. Draw a clear tube first, then collect the light blue top tube, then collect the SST
  4. Draw half of the SST first, then collect the light blue top tube, then finish the SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.40) Why are infant bilirubin specimens obtained in amber-colored tubes?
  1. To flag it as a capillary specimen
  2. To identify it as a bilirubin specimen
  3. To protect the specimen from light
  4. To reduce the risk of hemolysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.41) Which of these tubes contains EDTA?
  1. Gray
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Light green
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.42) What color is the top of a plasma separator tube?
  1. Green
  2. Light blue
  3. Purple
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.43) You have collected blood in a tube containing an additive. What should you do next?
  1. Empty the tube into the sink
  2. Invert the tube several times
  3. Leave the tube in the fridge for 2-3 hours
  4. Shake the tube vigorously
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.44) Yellow-topped tubes contain which additive?
  1. Acid citrate dextrose
  2. Sodium benzoate
  3. Sodium nitrite
  4. Sulfur dioxide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.45) Which of these additives provides a physical barrier to prevent glycolysis?
  1. EDTA
  2. Silica
  3. Sodium fluoride
  4. Thixotropic gel
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.46) Venipuncture needles are color-coded according to their:
  1. expiration date
  2. gauge
  3. length
  4. manufacturer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.47) Which of these would be the best choice of equipment for drawing blood from a small hand vein?
  1. A 21-gauge needle and ETS holder
  2. A 21-gauge needle and syringe
  3. A 23-gauge butterfly and ETS holder
  4. A 27-gauge butterfly and syringe
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.48) A winged infusion set is also called a:
  1. Milliner's needle
  2. butterfly needle
  3. straight needle
  4. universal needle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.49) 24-gauge needles are used for:
  1. diabetics
  2. infants
  3. patients with AIDS
  4. stroke victims
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.50) What is the standard needle size for collecting a blood sample from an adult's forearm vein?
  1. 15-gauge
  2. 18-gauge
  3. 21-gauge
  4. 24-gauge
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.51) Five minutes after a blood draw, the patient is still bleeding from the venipuncture site. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Apply a pressure bandage to the patient
  2. Give the patient an anti-inflammatory medication
  3. Notify the patient's nurse
  4. Tell the patient it is okay to leave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.52) After use, venipuncture needles should be:
  1. discarded into a sharps container
  2. discarded into an autoclave bag
  3. discarded into the garbage
  4. reused
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.53) When should you label a blood collection tube?
  1. As soon as you receive the test order
  2. Just before the patient arrives
  3. Before you collect the specimen
  4. After you collect the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.54) You are a phlebotomist drawing blood from a woman for a pregnancy test. After the woman has left the room, a colleague approaches you and asks what test was ordered. He explains he wants to know because he is the woman's ex-boyfriend. You should:
  1. call the police
  2. inform him you are unable to tell him anything
  3. lie and tell him the test was a complete blood count
  4. reassure him that he has nothing to worry about
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.55) A member of the clergy is with a patient when you arrive to collect a routine specimen. What should you do?
  1. Ask the patient's nurse what you should do
  2. Come back after the clergy member has gone
  3. Fill out a form saying you were unable to collect the specimen
  4. Interrupt and explain you need to collect a specimen from the patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.56) Which area on a newborn is suitable for skin puncture?
  1. Any calloused areas of the foot
  2. The lateral, flat portion of the heel
  3. The posterior curvature of the heel
  4. The second or third finger on either hand
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.57) What is the maximum lancet size for heel punctures on babies?
  1. 1 mm
  2. 2 mm
  3. 3 mm
  4. 4 mm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.58) Which sample does the glycosylated hemoglobin test require?
  1. Plasma
  2. Serum
  3. Urine
  4. Whole blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.59) To perform an arterial puncture, you need heparin solution, sterile gauze, betadine wipes, a sterile needle, a syringe and:
  1. a butterfly needle
  2. a tourniquet
  3. alcohol wipes
  4. ice water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.60) You are taking an arterial puncture. What is the first area of the patient’s body you should examine for a suitable site?
  1. The antecubital area of both arms
  2. The brachial artery
  3. The femoral artery
  4. The thumb side of the wrist
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.61) When performing a radial artery puncture, the needle should enter the skin:
  1. 1 cm distal to the index finger
  2. 1 cm lateral to the index finger
  3. at the exact point where the pulse is felt
  4. proximal to where the pulse is felt
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.62) Which of these is a patient identifier?
  1. Date of collection
  2. Patient name
  3. Specimen type
  4. Time of collection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.63) The creatinine clearance test:
  1. is a liver function test
  2. requires a blood sample and a 24-hour urine collection
  3. requires the patient to be fasting at the onset of testing
  4. requires timed blood samples to be drawn
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.64) What sample is needed for the Hemoccult test?
  1. Blood
  2. Sputum
  3. Stool
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.65) Which of these tests is the most likely to require chain-of-custody documentation?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Cross-match
  3. Drug screen
  4. TDM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.66) Identify the false statement regarding 24-hour urine collection.
  1. A preservative may be used for some tests
  2. Collections during the night are discarded
  3. Testing is done in clinical chemistry
  4. The first timed specimen is discarded
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.67) Which urine collection technique involves collecting the urine by inserting a sterile needle into the patient's bladder through the abdominal wall?
  1. Biopsy
  2. Necropsy
  3. Suprapubic aspiration
  4. Urinary catheter
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.68) A patient begins a routine glucose tolerance test. After 30 minutes, the patient's blood sugar is 374 mg/dL. What should you do?
  1. Do nothing and continue with the test
  2. Make a note and continue with the test
  3. Start the test again
  4. Tell the attending nurse immediately
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.69) What is the minimum number of blood samples needed for the one-step glucose tolerance test?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.70) You are performing a glucose tolerance test that requires a blood sample at baseline and then four blood samples thereafter, at a rate of one sample every 30 minutes. If the patient drinks the glucose at 10:00 am, then at what time should you take the final blood sample?
  1. 11:00 am
  2. 10:30 am
  3. 11:30 am
  4. 12:00 pm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.71) Why should capillary puncture never be performed on an infant’s finger?
  1. It could cause excessive blood loss
  2. It could damage bones and nerves
  3. The blood in the finger does not represent blood in the rest of the body
  4. There is a high risk the infant will move their finger during the puncture
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Specimen preparation and processing

2.1) Sodium fluoride preserves:
  1. cellulite
  2. cellulose
  3. glucose
  4. glycerin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) At what temperature is the incubation phase of the indirect antiglobulin test?
  1. 22°C
  2. 37°C
  3. 56°C
  4. 100°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) A thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) quality control chart has the following data for the normal control:
Statistic Value
Count 43
Mean 2.4 mIU/L
2 SD 1.2 mIU/L
Calculate the coefficient of variation for the control.
  1. 25%
  2. 35%
  3. 40%
  4. 50%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) The image below shows a streaked agar plate: Which quadrant would you expect to contain the fewest colonies?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) Why is it important to mix a blood sample before performing a cell count?
  1. To ensure all blood components are evenly distributed
  2. To oxygenate the sample
  3. To prevent clots
  4. To prevent platelets from clumping together
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) Which of these specimens would most likely be rejected for testing?
  1. A hemolyzed potassium specimen
  2. A nonfasting glucose specimen
  3. A serum-separator tube that is only half-filled
  4. An icteric bilirubin specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) When a blood specimen in a gray-top tube is centrifuged, what does it separate into?
  1. Plasma, buffy coat and red blood cells
  2. Plasma, buffy coat and white blood cells
  3. Serum, buffy coat and red blood cells
  4. Serum, buffy coat and white blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) A lab technician is performing a microhematocrit. She collects a blood sample in a microhematocrit tube and inverts the tube carefully to mix the blood with the heparin. What must the she do next before putting the tube in the centrifuge?
  1. Add controlled volumes of saline to the tube
  2. Add washed sensitized cells to the tube
  3. Remove gloves and wash hands
  4. Seal one end of the tube with clay
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) What is the most important rule about centrifuges?
  1. Always balance the tubes placed inside
  2. Make sure to set the rheostat at 3000 rpm for the top speed
  3. Make sure to set the timer
  4. Never remove the rubber cushions in the cups
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) What is a buffy coat made of?
  1. Granulocytes and fibrin
  2. Red blood cells and granulocytes
  3. Reticulocytes and granulocytes
  4. White blood cells and platelets
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) What kind of centrifuge counters heat generated during high speeds?
  1. Angle head
  2. Cytospin
  3. Microhematocrit
  4. Refridgerated
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) Which of these specimens should NOT be centrifuged?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Glucose
  3. Prothrombin time
  4. Vitamin B12
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) What temperature is thawed plasma stored at?
  1. −20°C or colder
  2. −6°C to −18°C
  3. 1–6°C
  4. 20–24°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) Blood specimens for sodium testing must be transported at which temperature?
  1. –20°C
  2. 1–6°C
  3. 20–24°C
  4. 37–40°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) Which of these specimens should be rejected for testing?
  1. A blood glucose sample exposed to light
  2. A refrigerated blood sample for TSH testing
  3. A urine creatinine sample transported at room temperature
  4. A urine culture sample transported on ice
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) Blood specimens for which of these tests require cooling during transport?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Cold agglutinin
  3. Cryoglobulin
  4. Homocysteine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) Which of these urine constituents increases in a urine specimen left at room temperature?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Leukocytes
  3. Nitrites
  4. Urobilinogen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) Which of these chemicals can be used to preserve 24-hour urines for endocrine testing?
  1. Boric acid
  2. Potassium chloride
  3. Sodium bicarbonate
  4. Sodium hypochlorite
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) Which of these specimens needs to be kept at 35–37°C?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Feces
  3. Throat swab
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) Where are urine reagent strips stored?
  1. In a cool, dry place
  2. In a jar, exposed to air
  3. In an incubator (37°C)
  4. In the refrigerator
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) Blood samples for cold agglutinin testing should be kept at what temperature before testing?
  1. –6°C
  2. 6°C
  3. 20°C
  4. 37°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) A urine specimen arrives at the laboratory five hours after it was collected. To be acceptable for culture testing, the specimen must have been:
  1. kept at room temperature
  2. kept frozen
  3. kept refrigerated
  4. mixed with a preservative additive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) Serum specimens for vitamin K should be:
  1. kept at 37–40°C
  2. kept away from light
  3. mixed with an antiglycolytic agent
  4. mixed with glass beads
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) The results of which of these tests may be falsely increased if the stopper is removed from the specimen?
  1. Cortisol
  2. Glucose
  3. Potassium
  4. pH
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) At what temperature is purified ribonucleic acid stored?
  1. –20°C
  2. 6°C
  3. 21°C
  4. 37°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) Why are urine samples refrigerated?
  1. To agglutinate the red blood cells
  2. To increase the levels of ammonia
  3. To prevent bacterial growth
  4. To prevent urine from turning acidic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) What packaging is used to ship Category A infectious substances?
  1. A610
  2. A630
  3. P620
  4. P650
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) The Herpes B virus and Ebola virus must be transported as:
  1. Category A
  2. Category B
  3. genetically modified organisms
  4. solid medical waste
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) Infectious substances that pose the highest risk of infection during transportation and are capable of causing permanent disability, life-threatening disease, or fatal disease are known as ______________ substances.
  1. Category A
  2. Category B
  3. Category C
  4. Type 1B
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) When shipping infectious substances, where should you write the technical name of the infectious agent?
  1. On the Shipper’s Declaration
  2. On the air waybill
  3. On the outside packaging
  4. On the primary container
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) Specimens containing the smallpox virus must be transported as:
  1. Category A
  2. Category B
  3. contagious specimen
  4. infectious specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) Category B infectious substances must be shipped with a label that says:
  1. UN2814 – Infectious Substance, Category B, Affecting Humans
  2. UN3291 – Clinical Waste, Category B
  3. UN3373 – Biological Substance, Category B
  4. UN3549 – Medical Waste, Category B, Affecting Humans
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) A 24-hour urine volume of 4 liters indicates:
  1. anuria
  2. oliguria
  3. polyuria
  4. pyuria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Support for clinical testing

3.1) Westergren tubes are used for which test?
  1. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Microhematocrit
  4. Reticulocyte count
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) PST tubes contain a gel plasma separator and:
  1. EDTA
  2. lithium heparin
  3. silica
  4. sodium citrate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) Which of these diseases does not have a vaccine?
  1. Hepatitis A
  2. Hepatitis B
  3. Hepatitis C
  4. Polio
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) A solution is made by mixing 100 mL of hydrochloric acid with 100 mL of water. What is the %v/v concentration of hydrochloric acid in this solution?
  1. 1%
  2. 10%
  3. 25%
  4. 50%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) 0.5 mol of solute is dissolved in 250 cm³ of solution. What is the concentration in mol/dm³?
  1. 0.002
  2. 2
  3. 12.5
  4. 125
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) How do you calculate the amount of a solute in a solution?
  1. Concentration × volume
  2. Volume + concentration
  3. Volume / concentration
  4. Volume − concentration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Calculate the amount of solute dissolved in 4 dm³ of a 0.2 mol/dm³ solution.
  1. 0.05 mol
  2. 0.8 mol
  3. 3.8 mol
  4. 4.2 mol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) Calculate the volume of a 0.5 mol/dm³ solution that contains 1 mol of solute.
  1. 0.5 dm³
  2. 0.75 dm³
  3. 1 dm³
  4. 2 dm³
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) Which of these is a unit of molarity?
  1. L/mol
  2. g/mol
  3. mol/L
  4. mol/g
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) A lab machine gives a result of 0.8731. What is this rounded to one significant figure?
  1. 0.1
  2. 0.87
  3. 0.9
  4. 1
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) An automated cell counter gives a result of 6,500 cells/mm³. However, the doctor's clinic requires the result in cells/L. What result should you report to the doctor?
  1. 6.5 x 10⁶ cells/L
  2. 6.5 x 10⁷ cells/L
  3. 6.5 x 10⁸ cells/L
  4. 6.5 x 10⁹ cells/L
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) What does the standard deviation tell you?
  1. How many errors are in the data set
  2. How spread out the data is
  3. The average value in the data set
  4. The number the data tends to cluster around
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) The following data were calculated on a series of 100 determinations of a control.
Mean 5.8
Median 6.0
Mode 5.7
Range 1.5–20.2
Standard deviation 0.25
If confidence limits are set at ±2 standard deviations, what are the allowable limits for the control?
  1. 5.30–6.30
  2. 5.35–6.25
  3. 5.50–5.90
  4. 5.60–5.90
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) Tube A contains 24 mL of blood. Tube B contains 20 mL of blood. This means tube A contains ____% more blood than tube B.
  1. 4
  2. 16
  3. 20
  4. 25
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) You need a liter of 5% concentration of hydrochloric acid but you only have a 40% concentration. How can you make the 5% concentration?
  1. Mix 125 mL of hydrochloric acid with 875 mL of water
  2. Mix 175 mL of hydrochloric acid with 825 mL of water
  3. Mix 200 mL of hydrochloric acid with 800 mL of water
  4. Mix 225 mL of hydrochloric acid with 775 mL of water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) What is deionized water?
  1. Water containing alkaline minerals
  2. Water containing carbon dioxide
  3. Water containing extra minerals
  4. Water with ions removed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) A histologist has stained a blood sample with Wright's stain but the basophils have poor definition. The histologist decides to repeat the stain. Which of these actions would improve the definition?
  1. Decrease the concentration of the stain/buffer solution
  2. Dilute the stain with methanol or water
  3. Reduce the time between preparing the smear and fixation
  4. Wash the slide before fixation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) A slide stained with H&E stain appears cloudy. What is the cause?
  1. Excessive exposure of the specimen to alcohol
  2. Insufficient clearing
  3. The stain was cold
  4. The stain was too hot
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) When exposed to acid, acid-fast bacteria:
  1. decolorize at the same rate as other bacteria
  2. decolorize faster than other bacteria
  3. do not decolorize
  4. move faster
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) Which of these is needed for a malaria test?
  1. Capillary tube
  2. Clay sealant
  3. Glass slide
  4. Microhematocrit tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) What is the usual temperature for an incubator used for C&S?
  1. 15–17°C
  2. 25–27°C
  3. 35–37°C
  4. 45–47°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) In a patient with HIV, which of these samples would have the highest concentration of the virus?
  1. Feces
  2. Serum
  3. Sweat
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Which of these counts is reported as number per LPF?
  1. Casts
  2. Crystals
  3. Red blood cells
  4. White blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) Which of these is a blood-borne pathogen?
  1. Cytomegalovirus
  2. Group A strep
  3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  4. Varicella virus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) Vaccination can prevent which types of hepatitis?
  1. A and B
  2. A, B and C
  3. A, B and D
  4. B, C and D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) In Gram staining, which of these situations can cause gram-negative cells to appear colorless?
  1. Omission of the counterstain step
  2. Omission of the iodine treatment step
  3. Over-decolorizing
  4. Under-decolorizing
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) In Gram staining, what can happen if the decolorizer is left on too long?
  1. All organisms will appear colorless
  2. Gram-negative organisms will look gram-positive
  3. Gram-positive organisms will look gram-negative
  4. No cells will appear on the slide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) What can happen if the heat fixation step is skipped in Gram staining?
  1. All organisms will appear colorless
  2. All organisms will appear gram-negative
  3. All organisms will appear gram-positive
  4. No cells will appear on the slide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) A lab technician performs Gram staining of a urine specimen. Under a microscope, the lab technician sees gram-negative cocci in chains. What mistake did the lab technician make?
  1. Forgot the iodine treatment step
  2. Forgot to bring the urine specimen to room temperature
  3. Performed the safranin counterstain too quickly
  4. Used too much crystal violet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) Identify the false statement about plating bacteria.
  1. The Petri lid is placed upright on the bench to prevent contamination
  2. The loop is sterilized before inoculation
  3. The media is brought to room temperature before use
  4. The media selected depends on the type of specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) Mixing blood with glass beads in an airtight container is a procedure to produce __________ blood.
  1. acidic
  2. defibrinated
  3. hypoglycemic
  4. serosanguinous
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) What unit are hemoglobin values expressed in?
  1. %
  2. g/dL
  3. mm/hour
  4. mol/L
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) When using a standard white blood cell pipette for determining a white blood cell count, you draw the blood to the 0.5 mark. You should then draw the diluting fluid to which mark?
  1. 1.0
  2. 1.5
  3. 11
  4. 101
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) What is the term for the percentage of red blood cells in a sample of whole blood?
  1. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Red blood cell count
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) Red blood cell counts are reported in what unit?
  1. Cells/cm²
  2. Cells/gram
  3. Cells/leukocyte
  4. Cells/liter
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) Blood specimens for which test are placed in circles on special filter paper?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Complete blood counts
  3. Malaria
  4. Phenylketonuria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) Which of these could cause a thick blood smear?
  1. Holding the spreader at a very high angle
  2. Spreading the blood too quickly
  3. Using a drop of blood that is too small
  4. Using blood with clots in it
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) Blood smears made using EDTA specimens should be prepared within _________ of specimen collection.
  1. 10 minutes
  2. 1 hour
  3. 6 hours
  4. 12 hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.39) Which of these situations would cause random errors?
  1. A lab assistant who reads the volume of liquids in flasks at a different angle every time
  2. A plastic tape measure that has become slightly stretched over the years
  3. A scale that has been incorrectly calibrated and always gives a value 10 g lighter than the real weight
  4. A thermometer that always reads 2 degrees too high
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.40) Random errors mainly affect:
  1. accuracy
  2. external validity
  3. internal validity
  4. precision
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.41) _____________ is when readings become consistently lower or higher over time.
  1. Calibration
  2. Drift
  3. Offset error
  4. Unpredictability
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.42) A lab technician is counting the number of colonies on an agar plate. She accidentally counts the same colony twice. What type of error is this?
  1. Environmental
  2. Instrumental
  3. Observational
  4. Theoretical
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.43) Which term means the extent to which measurements agree with the true value?
  1. Accuracy
  2. Precision
  3. Reliability
  4. Reproducibility
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.44) An acid buffer can be made by mixing a:
  1. strong acid with a strong base
  2. weak acid with a strong base
  3. weak acid with a weak base
  4. weak acid with its salt
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.45) A buffer is made by mixing a weak acid or weak base with:
  1. a salt solution
  2. a strong acid or strong base
  3. acetic acid
  4. its conjugate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.46) Which of these does the ToRCH IgM and IgG assay NOT detect?
  1. Cytomegalovirus
  2. Infectious mononucleosis
  3. Rubella
  4. Toxoplasmosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Waived and point-of-care testing

4.1) Which part of an infant's foot is the safest area to perform a capillary puncture?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) There are two reasons why phlebotomists should wipe away the first drop of blood when performing a capillary puncture. The first reason is to remove traces of alcohol. What is the second reason?
  1. The first drop of blood contains excess tissue fluid
  2. The first drop of blood is high in clotting factors
  3. To increase blood flow to the area
  4. To remove pathogens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) The middle finger and ___________ are used for finger puncture.
  1. index finger
  2. little finger
  3. ring finger
  4. thumb
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) What is the main reason a capillary puncture site is warmed beforehand?
  1. To delay clotting
  2. To increase blood flow
  3. To minimize contamination
  4. To reduce hemoconcentration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) Which of these tests is collected first during a single capillary puncture?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Electrolytes
  3. Glucose
  4. Phosphorus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) Which is the preferred site to obtain capillary blood from adults?
  1. Ear
  2. Fingertip
  3. Heel
  4. Toe
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) A routine glucose tolerance test (GTT) requires:
  1. one blood sample
  2. one urine sample
  3. two or more blood samples
  4. two or more urine samples
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) Which of these actions is NOT performed when performing quality control of a glucometer?
  1. Apply a drop of blood to the test strip
  2. Compare the result displayed by the glucometer with the expected value
  3. Insert a test strip into the glucometer
  4. Remove the test strip from the glucometer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 5: Laboratory operations

5.1) The knowledge, skill, ability, or characteristic associated with high performance on a job, such as problem-solving, analytical thinking, or leadership is called:
  1. competency
  2. human resource training
  3. performance development
  4. work ethic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) What are standards of practice?
  1. A definition of competent behavior for professionals
  2. Measures to ensure work is accurate
  3. Rules for how organizations must treat their employees
  4. Rules for students on work placements
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) A lab assistant is chronically late and has poor work performance. These issues should initially be addressed by the:
  1. hospital director
  2. human resource department
  3. manager
  4. union
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) A patient asks a lab assistant for test results. What should the lab assistant do?
  1. Agree to call the patient at home
  2. Give the results to the patient
  3. Let the patient check their results on the lab computer
  4. Refer the request to the supervisor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) A lawyer asks a lab technician for copies of his client's test results. What should the lab technician do?
  1. Allow the lawyer to see the results on the computer
  2. Give the results to the lawyer immediately
  3. Have the lawyer sign a Medical Release Form and then release the results
  4. Tell the lawyer to contact the physician who ordered the tests
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) Which of these helps ensure patient confidentiality?
  1. Discarding old records by throwing them into the trash
  2. Giving out patient information to journalists
  3. Sending confidential material via e-mail
  4. Verifying a patient's identity before giving confidential data
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) A lab assistant overhears two clinicians talking about a patient. What kind of risk is this?
  1. Accountability
  2. Infection
  3. Privacy
  4. Security
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) The obligation of a person or organization to not disclose health information is known as:
  1. accountability
  2. confidentiality
  3. privacy
  4. security
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.9) What does the autonomy principle of bioethics mean?
  1. Self-awareness
  2. Self-governance
  3. Self-promotion
  4. Selfishness
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.10) The attributes of good judgment, respecting patients' rights, and not harming anyone intentionally are all examples of:
  1. competency statements
  2. ethical standards
  3. morals
  4. rules
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.11) Beneficence is the duty to:
  1. do good
  2. do no harm
  3. follow the law
  4. fully inform the patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.12) What is the autonomy pillar of medical ethics?
  1. The duty to do good
  2. The duty to not harm the patient
  3. The respect for the patient’s right to self-determination
  4. The treatment of all people equally and equitably
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.13) What is the justice pillar of medical ethics?
  1. The duty to do good
  2. The duty to not harm the patient
  3. The respect for the patient’s right to self-determination
  4. The treatment of all people equally and equitably
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.14) Who is responsible for being aware of laboratory hazards?
  1. The lab assistant
  2. The lab manager
  3. The lab director
  4. Anyone who works in the laboratory
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.15) How should you pick up an item of hot glassware?
  1. By pouring cold water on it to cool it down
  2. With a rag or paper towels
  3. With tongs
  4. With your hands
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.16) Which of these should you NOT wear in a lab?
  1. Closed-toe shoes
  2. Contact lenses
  3. Glasses
  4. Hairpin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.17) PASS in a mnemonic for remembering the:
  1. key safety principles of working in a laboratory
  2. steps for first aid
  3. steps to operate a fire extinguisher
  4. warning signs of a stroke
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.18) Which of these gases is flammable?
  1. Argon
  2. Helium
  3. Hydrogen
  4. Neon
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.19) When mixing acid and water:
  1. add the acid quickly to the water
  2. add the acid slowly to the water
  3. add the water quickly to the acid
  4. add the water slowly to the acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.20) Mixing bleach with acid produces water, salt and:
  1. arsenic trioxide
  2. chlorine gas
  3. phosgene
  4. sodium cyanide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.21) In the context of occupational health and safety, what does STEL stand for?
  1. Short-term exposure limit
  2. Standard task exposure limit
  3. Standard task equipment list
  4. Short-term emergency lighting
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.22) In the context of occupational health and safety, what does PEL stand for?
  1. Particle emission level
  2. Permissible exposure limit
  3. Photo-emitting light
  4. Population equivalent level
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.23) By which route do toxic chemicals enter the body by direct skin contact?
  1. Absorption
  2. Ingestion
  3. Inhalation
  4. Injection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.24) You have a solution of hydrochloric acid and you need to mix it with sodium hydroxide. You should:
  1. add the acid to the sodium hydroxide with stirring
  2. add the sodium hydroxide to the acid with stirring
  3. add water to each solution and then mix them together
  4. add water to the acid then add the mixture to the sodium hydroxide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.25) CAS registry numbers are for:
  1. chemicals
  2. pathogens
  3. radioactive materials
  4. safety symbols
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.26) Which of these types of radiation has a shorter wavelength than ultraviolet light?
  1. Infrared
  2. Microwaves
  3. Radio waves
  4. X-rays
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.27) You find a colleague unconscious and not breathing. There is no one around to help. What is the first thing you should do?
  1. Call 911
  2. Give chest compressions
  3. Give mouth-to-mouth breaths
  4. Move your colleague into the recovery position
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.28) When administering CPR, give:
  1. 40 compressions followed by 1 breath
  2. 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths
  3. 20 compressions followed by 5 breaths
  4. 10 compressions followed by 10 breaths
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.29) What is the first step in caring for a wound with heavy bleeding?
  1. Add bulky dressings to reinforce blood-soaked bandages
  2. Apply direct pressure with a sterile or clean dressing
  3. Apply pressure at a pressure point
  4. Ask the casualty to recite the alphabet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.30) Universal precautions are based on what assumption?
  1. All laboratory chemicals may be carcinogenic
  2. All specimens are potentially infectious
  3. Equipment is not sterile
  4. Handwashing is the best way to prevent the spread of infection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.31) What does the following sign mean?
  1. Biohazard
  2. Do not eat
  3. General warning
  4. Toxic material
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.32) What does a number 2 in the blue quadrant of an NFPA hazard diamond indicate?
  1. Continued exposure to the substance could cause temporary incapacitation or injury
  2. The substance can be ignited at normal temperatures
  3. The substance is unreactive with water
  4. The substance reacts with water in an unusual or dangerous way
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.33) Which color on the NFPA hazard diamond signals the degree of hazards to health?
  1. Blue
  2. Green
  3. White
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.34) Which pathogen cannot be inactivated by conventional sterilization methods such as autoclaving, 70% ethanol, UV disinfection, and gamma irradiation?
  1. Coccidioides immitis
  2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  3. Prions
  4. Smallpox
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.35) Which of these produces a flame for heating substances?
  1. Bulb pipette
  2. Bunsen burner
  3. Centrifuge
  4. Erlenmeyer flask
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.36) Which objective should you begin with when focusing a microscope?
  1. 10x
  2. 40x
  3. 100x
  4. 1000x
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.37) What does a condenser lens on a microscope do?
  1. Control the aperture of light
  2. Focus the light on the specimen
  3. Increase the magnification
  4. Provide an initial magnification of 10x
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.38) What is a graduated cylinder used for?
  1. Heating substances
  2. Measuring temperature
  3. Measuring volume
  4. Pouring liquids
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.39) Which lab equipment is used to transfer liquids from one place to another?
  1. Pipette
  2. Stirring rod
  3. Test tube
  4. Wire gauze
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.40) What unit is on graduated cylinders?
  1. Degrees Celcius
  2. Milliliter
  3. Millimeter
  4. Millimeters cubed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.41) Another term for professional negligence is:
  1. malfeasance
  2. malpractice
  3. misfeasance
  4. nonfeasance
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.42) According to the GHS Hazard Classification, which of these is a type of physical hazard?
  1. Carcinogenicity
  2. Eye effects
  3. Flammable gases
  4. Skin irritation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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