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Sections

1. Circulatory system
2. Specimen collection
3. Specimen handling, transport, and processing
4. Waived and point-of-care-testing
5. Non-blood specimens
6. Laboratory operations

Section 1: Circulatory system

1.1) Which vein is the median cubital?

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) What is the term for an immature red blood cell?

1. Erythroblast
2. Monoblast
3. Segmented
4. Thrombocyte

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) What is macrocytosis?

1. A blood cancer
2. A high concentration of white blood cells
3. A platelet deficiency
4. Abnormally large red blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) Which blood vessel carries blood from the heart to the lungs?

1. Aorta
2. Pulmonary artery
3. Pulmonary vein
4. Superior vena cava

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) What is the name of the process by which platelets adhere to one another and form a hemostatic plug?

1. Activation
2. Aggregation
3. Attachment
4. Hemostasis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) What term means the destruction of red blood cells?

1. Erythropoiesis
2. Hemolysis
3. Hemorrhage
4. Hemostasis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) Plasma makes up around _____ of the total blood.

1. 55%
2. 65%
3. 75%
4. 95%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) Bilirubin is a waste product produced by the breakdown of which cells?

1. Mast cells
2. Platelets
3. Red blood cells
4. White blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) What is the major hematopoietic site in adults?

1. Bone marrow
2. Liver
3. Lymph nodes
4. Spleen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) Which blood cell is typically the first to appear in the response to an infection?

1. Basophil
2. Eosinophil
3. Erythrocyte
4. Neutrophil

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) Which blood cells defend the body against disease?

1. Erythrocytes
2. Hematocytes
3. Leukocytes
4. Thrombocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Natural killer cells are what type of white blood cell?

1. Basophil
2. Eosinophil
3. Lymphocyte
4. Monocyte

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Blood returning from the lungs enters which part of the heart?

1. Left atrium
2. Left ventricle
3. Right atrium
4. Right ventricle

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) The heart is contained inside a sac called the:

1. endocardium
2. fluid sac
3. myocardium
4. pericardium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) What is the largest vein in the body?

1. Aorta
2. Hepatic portal vein
3. Inferior vena cava
4. Pulmonary vein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) In the image below, which part of the heart is the left ventricle?

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) What are the smallest blood vessels in the body?

1. Arteries
2. Capillaries
3. Lymph vessels
4. Veins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) Which is the largest artery in the body?

1. Aorta
2. Iliac artery
3. Pulmonary artery
4. Superior vena cava

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) Systolic blood pressure is the blood pressure when which part of the heart contracts?

1. Arteries
2. Atria
3. Valves
4. Ventricles

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) What is diastole?

1. A heart rate below 60 beats per second
2. An irregular heart rate
3. When the heart muscle contracts
4. When the heart muscle relaxes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) What is this blood cell?

1. Macrophage
2. Neutrophil
3. Platelet
4. Red blood cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) Phagocytes:

1. carry oxygen around the body
2. form clots to stop bleeding
3. ingest pathogens
4. release antibodies against pathogens

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) Which component of blood carries oxygen?

1. Granulocytes
2. Hemoglobin
3. Platelets
4. White blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.24) White blood cells are also known as:

1. erythrocytes
2. leukocytes
3. osteocytes
4. thrombocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.25) What is the blood cell below?

1. Macrophage
2. Neutrophil
3. Platelet
4. Red blood cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.26) Red blood cells are also known as:

1. eosinophils
2. erythrocytes
3. monocytes
4. thrombocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.27) When blood is anticoagulated and centrifuged, the resulting straw-colored liquid layer is:

1. heparin
2. plasma
3. serum
4. whole blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.28) The liquid that separates out when blood coagulates is:

1. fibrinogen
2. lymph
3. plasma
4. serum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.29) Which of these is found in plasma but not in serum?

1. Albumin
2. Antibodies
3. Fibrinogen
4. White blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.30) When an anticoagulated blood sample is centrifuged, it separates into three layers. What is the middle layer called?

1. Buffy coat
2. Erythrocyte layer
3. Leukocyte layer
4. Plasma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.31) Capillary blood composition most closely resembles:

1. arterial blood
2. lymph fluid
3. tissue fluid
4. venous blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.32) A deficiency of red blood cells is called:

1. anemia
2. erythremia
3. hemophilia
4. leukemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.33) Which vein is located on the thumb side of the arm?

1. Cephalic
2. External iliac
3. Femoral
4. Posterior tibial

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Specimen collection

2.1) Which of these specimens has the highest priority?

1. Fasting
2. Post-op
3. Stat
4. Urgent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) You have three specimens to collect: routine, preop, and fasting. What is the correct order of priority for collecting these specimens?

1. Fasting, Preop, Routine
2. Fasting, Routine, Preop
3. Preop, Fasting, Routine
4. Routine, Fasting, Preop

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) Which of these specimens has the lowest priority?

1. Postop
2. Preop
3. Routine
4. Timed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) A patient is extremely anxious about having her blood drawn. She tells you that she is afraid of needles. You do not have much experience drawing blood. What should you do?

1. Ask an experienced phlebotomist to perform the draw for you
2. Explain to her that you will use a small needle that barely hurts
3. Tell her that it's not a big deal and that she shouldn't be afraid
4. Use an ice pack to numb the site before drawing the specimen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) There are two patients in a room and one of the patients has a latex allergy. A phlebotomist needs to collect a specimen from the other patient. How should the phlebotomist proceed?

1. Ask the allergic patient to wear a mask
2. Do not take anything that contains latex into the room
3. Proceed as usual
4. Pull the curtain between beds and proceed as usual

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) When drawing blood from a frightened child, which of these is the right thing to do?

1. Explain the procedure to the child in simple terms
2. Say nothing to the child and just perform the procedure
3. Tell the child that the needle won't hurt
4. Tell the child to be brave

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) If a patient refuses to have blood drawn:

1. ask the patient for a urine sample instead
2. notify the patient's nurse or physician
3. restrain the patient and draw the blood
4. try to convince the patient to be cooperative

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) A priest is with the patient when you arrive to collect a stat specimen. What should you do?

1. Draw blood from a different patient and then check back
2. Excuse yourself and ask for permission to draw the specimen
3. Go back to the lab and draw the specimen on the next sweep
4. Wait outside the room for a few minutes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) A phlebotomist needs to draw an urgent blood sample from a patient who is asleep. What should the phlebotomist do?

1. Cancel the test
2. Come back later when the patient is awake
3. Draw the sample while the patient is asleep
4. Wake up the patient

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) When drawing a patient's blood, which of these steps should come first?

1. Apply the tourniquet
2. Clean the site
3. Identify the patient
4. Insert the needle

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) A phlebotomist is asked to collect a blood specimen from an inpatient but the patient is not wearing an ID band. What is the best thing to do?

1. Ask a nurse for help identifying the patient
2. Identify the patient by asking them to confirm their name
3. Identify the patient by the name card on the door
4. Refuse to draw the specimen and cancel the request

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) You have to draw blood from an elderly patient. You think his name is John Smith but you are not sure. Which of these is the best question to confirm the patient's name?

1. "Are you John Smith?"
2. "Can you confirm that you are John Smith please?"
3. "I'm a phlebotomist and I'm here to draw your blood. First, though, I have to confirm your name. Can you confirm that your name is John Smith?"
4. "What is your name?"

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) When drawing blood from an obese patient, which location should be the first place you look for a vein?

1. The antecubital fossa
2. The back of the knee
3. The feet
4. The neck

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) Which of these actions can help a phlebotomist find a difficult vein?

1. Ask the patient to hold their arm up in the air
2. Ask the patient to make a fist
3. Cool the area with an ice pack
4. Tell the patient to drink nothing and come back in a few hours

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) There are several short lengths of IV-type tubing protruding from a patient's chest. This is most likely a:

1. CVC
2. PICC
3. arterial line
4. implanted port

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) A patient has an IV in his left wrist and a cast on his right arm. Which site should be used to obtain a blood sample?

1. A vein in the left hand
2. An earlobe
3. The left median cubital vein
4. The right median cubital vein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) A patient has a mastectomy on the right side. What special precaution is needed when drawing blood from this patient?

1. Check the patient's white blood cell count first
2. Do not draw blood from the right arm
3. Make sure the patient is lying down
4. Make sure the patient is sitting

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) Which vein should be tried first when choosing a draw site?

1. Basilic
2. Cephalic
3. Median antibrachial
4. Median cubital

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) A patient has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in his left arm and an IV in his right arm. From where should you draw a blood sample?

1. Above the AV fistula
2. Above the IV
3. Below the AV fistula
4. Below the IV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) Tourniquets should be:

1. applied very tightly to the arm
2. left on the arm for at least three minutes
3. tight enough to slow arterial flow
4. tight enough to slow venous flow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) In venipuncture, why must you wait for the alcohol on the puncture site to dry before inserting the needle into the vein?

1. To ensure all pathogens are killed
2. To ensure the needle doesn't slip
3. To prevent alcohol from entering the patient's bloodstream
4. To prevent hemolysis of the specimen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) Why must a phlebotomist clean the patient's skin before performing a venipuncture?

1. To allow blood flow to the area
2. To cause the veins to be more prominent
3. To decrease circulation in the arteries
4. To remove microorganisms from the puncture site

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) What is the purpose of a tourniquet in venipuncture?

1. To decrease the oxygen level
2. To make the veins more prominent
3. To monitor blood pressure
4. To prevent hematoma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) What is the most common antiseptic used in venipuncture?

1. 70% isopropyl alcohol
2. Betadine
3. EMLA
4. Iodine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) After applying a tourniquet, small red spots appear on the patient's arm. These spots are a sign that:

1. the patient has diabetes
2. the patient is taking an anticoagulant
3. the site may bleed excessively
4. the tourniquet is too tight

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) For venipuncture, the tourniquet should be applied ________________ the needle insertion point.

1. 1-2 inches above
2. 1-2 inches below
3. 3-4 inches above
4. 3-4 inches below

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) When a blood pressure cuff is used for a venipuncture instead of a tourniquet, the pressure must be:

1. between the patient's diastolic and systolic blood pressure
2. equal to the patient's systolic blood pressure
3. just above the patient's systolic blood pressure
4. just below the patient's diastolic blood pressure

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) What can happen if a phlebotomist releases the tourniquet after removing the needle from the arm?

1. Angina
2. Bleeding
3. Cyanosis
4. Edema

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) What might happen if an angle of 8 degrees is used when performing venipuncture?

1. A deep hematoma may form
2. The needle may enter above the vein
3. The needle may go completely through the vein
4. The needle may go through the posterior wall of the vein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) What can happen if a phlebotomist uses an angle of 35 degrees when performing venipuncture?

1. Nothing will happen as this is the correct angle
2. The needle may go completely through the vein
3. The needle may miss the vein completely
4. The needle will enter above the vein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) Which of these statements about venipuncture is true?

1. After collecting the blood, remove the needle first, then the tourniquet
2. Do not leave the tourniquet on for more than 1 minute
3. Enter the vein at a 50-degree angle
4. The bevel of the needle should be pointing down when the needle enters the vein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) What should you do if a patient faints during a venipuncture?

1. Continue the procedure until all blood is collected
2. Leave the needle in the vein and call the physician
3. Remove the needle and attend to the patient
4. Yell loudly at the patient to keep him conscious

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) In venipuncture, which of these actions may cause a hematoma?

1. Applying pressure to the puncture site after removing the needle
2. Asking the patient to form a fist so the veins are more prominent
3. Inserting the needle through the vein and puncturing the opposite wall
4. Removing the tourniquet before the needle is removed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) During phlebotomy, in which direction should the bevel be facing when the needle enters the arm?

1. Downwards
2. To the left
3. To the right
4. Upwards

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) A phlebotomist has made two unsuccessful attempts while trying to collect a blood specimen from a patient. What should the phlebotomist do next?

1. Ask another phlebotomist to collect it
2. Ask the patient's nurse to do the draw
3. Collect it by arterial puncture
4. Try to draw it one more time

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) Which of these is a sign that an artery has been punctured instead of a vein during phlebotomy?

1. The blood is dark blue
2. The blood spurts into the tube
3. The patient feels intense pain
4. The patient has trouble breathing

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) Which of these would be most likely to allow reflux to occur during venipuncture?

1. Filling the stopper end of the tube first
2. Lateral redirection of the needle
3. Releasing the tourniquet on blood flow
4. Using the wrong order of draw

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) Which of these situations can result in hemoconcentration during venipuncture?

1. Drawing a large tube with a small needle
2. Leaving the tourniquet on for over 1 minute
3. Mixing the specimen too vigorously
4. Partially filling a normal-draw tube

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) A phlebotomist is performing a venipuncture. The needle is in place but no blood is entering the tube. What is the first thing the phlebotomist should do?

1. Change to pediatric tubes
2. Discontinue the draw and cancel the requisition
3. Switch to a winged blood collection set
4. Try adjusting the needle slightly

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) When a phlebotomist inserts a needle into the patient's arm, bright red blood spurts into the vacutainer. What does this indicate?

1. A high hematocrit
2. A low blood pH
3. An arterial puncture
4. Carbon monoxide poisoning

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) Which of these actions helps to prevent hemoconcentration during venipuncture?

1. Asking the patient to make and release a fist several times
2. Asking the patient to release her fist upon blood flow
3. Keeping the tourniquet on for longer than a minute
4. Massaging the site before inserting the needle

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.42) When performing venipuncture with a syringe, what could happen if you pull the plunger up too quickly when collecting the specimen?

1. A needle stick injury
2. Adulteration of the specimen
3. Bacterial contamination
4. Hemolysis of the specimen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.43) During venipuncture, what is the longest time a tourniquet should remain on the patient's arm?

1. 1 minute
2. 3 minutes
3. 5 minutes
4. 7 minutes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.44) Which of these tests is affected most if collected from a crying infant?

1. Bilirubin
2. Cholesterol
3. Lead level
4. White blood cell count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.45) When drawing blood, when should the phlebotomist remove the tourniquet?

1. After removing the needle from the arm
2. As soon as a suitable vein has been found
3. Ten minutes after applying the tourniquet
4. While the last tube to be drawn is filling

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.46) Which complication could occur if a phlebotomist punctures a baby's calcaneus?

1. Achilles tendon rupture
2. Hyperglycaemia
3. Osteomyelitis
4. Petechiae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.47) A phlebotomist is collecting blood from the vein of a 14-month-old baby when the blood stops flowing. Which of these actions should the phlebotomist take to try to continue the draw?

1. Give the baby something sweet to eat
2. Release the tourniquet
3. Try a new tube
4. Try to collect blood from the baby's heel instead

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.48) Repeated phlebotomy procedures in the same area can cause:

1. petechiae
2. scarring
3. thrombosis
4. varicose veins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.49) Which vacutainer tube is for collecting a blood sample for a Factor IX assay?

1. Gray
2. Lavender
3. Light blue
4. SST

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.50) Which of these vacutainer tubes does NOT contain an anticoagulant?

1. Green
2. Lavender
3. Light blue
4. Red

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.51) A physician requests a vitamin A test and a complete blood count. Which vacutainer tubes should the phlebotomist use to collect the blood samples for these tests?

1. Gold and lavender
2. Gray and gold
3. Gray and lavender
4. Gray and light blue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.52) Sodium heparin should be avoided for which of these tests?

1. Electrolyte panel
2. Hematocrit
3. Lithium levels
4. pH

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.53) A phlebotomist has to collect a purple top tube, green top tube, and light blue top tube from the same patient. In which order should the phlebotomist fill the tubes?

1. Green, light blue, purple
2. Green, purple, light blue
3. Light blue, green, purple
4. Purple, green, light blue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.54) Westergren tubes are used for which test?

1. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
2. Hematocrit
3. Microhematocrit
4. Reticulocyte count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.55) Which tube would be drawn for an antinuclear antibody test (ANA)?

1. Gray
2. Green
3. Red
4. SST

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.56) What are cross-match tubes used for?

1. Blood compatibility testing
2. Coagulation studies
3. Glucose tests
4. Trace element studies

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.57) EDTA prevents clotting by binding to:

1. anti-hemophilia factor
2. calcium ions
3. fibrinogen
4. prothrombin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.58) Blue-top coagulation tubes require a citrate-to-blood ratio of:

1. 1:3
2. 1:6
3. 1:9
4. 1:12

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.59) Which anticoagulant is used for blood gas tests?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Potassium oxalate
4. Trisodium citrate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.60) What anticoagulant is in a green top vacutainer?

1. Citrate
2. EDTA
3. Fluoride
4. Heparin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.61) What special action does a phlebotomist need to take before drawing a blue top tube with a butterfly needle?

1. Draw a discard tube
2. Get a bucket of ice ready
3. Label the tube
4. Make sure the patient is lying down

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.62) A phlebotomist needs to collect blood samples from a patient for a blood glucose test and a hemoglobin test. What color tubes should the phlebotomist use?

1. Gray and green
2. Gray and lavender
3. Gray and red
4. Red and green

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.63) Gray-top vacutainers contain which anticoagulant?

1. Heparin
2. Potassium oxalate
3. SPS
4. Sodium polyanethole sulfonate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.64) What additive do light blue top tubes contain?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Sodium citrate
4. Sodium fluoride

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.65) What are lavender top tubes used for?

1. Blood cultures
2. Erythrocyte sedimentation rates
3. Glucose determinations
4. Hematology tests

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.66) Which anticoagulant tube is needed to collect a sample for an HbA1c test?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Sodium citrate
4. Sodium fluoride

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.67) What is the glycolytic inhibitor in gray-top tubes?

1. Heparin
2. Silicon
3. Sodium citrate
4. Sodium fluoride

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.68) Which vacutainer tube is used for trace metal analysis?

1. Dark blue
2. Green
3. Orange
4. Red

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.69) What color Vacutainer tube is used for erythrocyte sedimentation rates?

1. Black
2. Green
3. Red
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.70) What vacutainer tube is used for coagulation studies?

1. Black
2. Gray
3. Green
4. Light blue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.71) What vacutainer tube is used for reticulocyte counts?

1. Green
2. Lavender
3. Light blue
4. Red

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.72) Lavender-top collection tubes are used for:

1. glucose determinations
2. hematology tests
3. immunology tests
4. molecular diagnostic tests

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.73) A phlebotomist needs to draw blood into a gray-top tube, a gold-top tube and a lavender-top tube. What is the correct order to fill the tubes?

1. Gold, gray, lavender
2. Gold, lavender, gray
3. Gray, gold, lavender
4. Gray, lavender, gold

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.74) Which color vacutainer tube is used for glucose testing?

1. Gray
2. Green
3. Light blue
4. Red

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.75) What color tube is used for stat chemistry tests?

1. Green
2. Light blue
3. Red
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.76) Light blue top tubes are used for what tests?

1. Chemistry
2. Coagulation
3. Hematology
4. Serology

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.77) For which tube is the blood-to-additive ratio most critical?

1. Green top
2. Lavender top
3. Light blue top
4. Red top

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.78) Which of these tubes contains an anticoagulant that works by binding calcium?

1. Green top
2. Light blue top
3. PST
4. Red top

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.79) Serum specimens are collected in which vacutainer tube?

1. Green
2. Light blue
3. PST
4. SST

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.80) A phlebotomist has to draw a patient's blood into a blood culture bottle and four tubes: red, green, light blue, and purple. Which should the phlebotomist fill first?

1. Blood culture bottle
2. Light blue top tube
3. Purple top tube
4. Red top tube

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.81) A phlebotomist is performing venipuncture on a difficult vein using a butterfly. The phlebotomist has to collect an SST and a light blue-topped tube. How should the phlebotomist proceed?

1. Collect the SST first then the light blue top tube
2. Collect the light blue top tube first then the SST
3. Draw a clear tube first, then collect the light blue top tube, then collect the SST
4. Draw half of the SST first, then collect the light blue top tube, then finish the SST

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.82) Underfilling which tube will most likely result in a hemolyzed specimen?

1. EDTA tube
2. Gray top
3. Light-blue top
4. SST

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.83) Why are infant bilirubin specimens obtained in amber-colored tubes?

1. To flag it as a capillary specimen
2. To identify it as a bilirubin specimen
3. To protect the specimen from light
4. To reduce the risk of hemolysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.84) A phlebotomist has finished drawing blood into a citrate tube for PT testing. However, the blood in the tube is below the minimum line. The phlebotomist should:

1. fill another citrate tube partly full and mix the two tubes
2. pour a little blood from another tube into the citrate tube
3. repeat the procedure with a new citrate tube
4. submit the tube for testing as usual

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.85) Blood for a white blood cell count would generally be collected in which color vacutainer?

1. Black
2. Blue
3. Gray
4. Lavender

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.86) Which of these tests is collected in a light blue top tube?

1. Differential
2. Hematocrit
3. Platelet count
4. Prothrombin time

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.87) Which of these tubes contains EDTA?

1. Gray
2. Lavender
3. Light blue
4. Light green

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.88) What color is the top of a plasma separator tube?

1. Green
2. Light blue
3. Purple
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.89) You have collected blood in a tube containing an additive. What should you do next?

1. Empty the tube into the sink
2. Invert the tube several times
3. Leave the tube in the fridge for 2-3 hours
4. Shake the tube vigorously

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.90) EDTA prevents blood clots by binding:

1. calcium
2. chloride
3. plasma
4. red blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.91) Lavender top tubes contain which additive?

1. EDTA
2. Lithium heparin
3. Sodium fluoride
4. Sodium heparin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.92) Yellow-topped tubes contain which additive?

1. Acid citrate dextrose
2. Sodium benzoate
3. Sodium nitrite
4. Sulfur dioxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.93) Which of these additives provides a physical barrier to prevent glycolysis?

1. EDTA
2. Silica
3. Sodium fluoride
4. Thixotropic gel

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.94) Which vacutainer tube has a light yellow top?

1. PST
2. SPS
3. SST
4. Sodium heparin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.95) When a test requires plasma, the blood sample must be collected in a tube containing a(n):

1. anticoagulant
2. antiglycolytic agent
3. chelating agent
4. clot activator

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.96) Venipuncture needles are color-coded according to their:

1. expiration date
2. gauge
3. length
4. manufacturer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.97) Which of these would be the best choice of equipment for drawing blood from a small hand vein?

1. A 21-gauge needle and ETS holder
2. A 21-gauge needle and syringe
3. A 23-gauge butterfly and ETS holder
4. A 27-gauge butterfly and syringe

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.98) Which tool is needed to collect blood by syringe?

1. Multisample needle
2. Transfer device
3. Tube holder
4. Winged infusion set

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.99) Which of these needles has the largest diameter?

1. 18-gauge
2. 19-gauge
3. 20-gauge
4. 21-gauge

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.100) A winged infusion set is also called a:

1. Milliner's needle
2. butterfly needle
3. straight needle
4. universal needle

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.101) 24-gauge needles are used for:

1. diabetics
2. infants
3. patients with AIDS
4. stroke victims

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.102) What is the standard needle size for collecting a blood sample from an adult's forearm vein?

1. 15-gauge
2. 18-gauge
3. 21-gauge
4. 24-gauge

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.103) Which part of a needle enters the skin first?

1. Bevel
2. Hub
3. Lumen
4. Shaft

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.104) 18-gauge needles are typically used for:

1. blood donations
2. routine blood draws
3. children
4. small adult veins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.105) Which part of a syringe has volume markings such as mL?

1. Barrel
2. Flange
3. Needle
4. Plunger

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.106) The gauge size of a needle indicates the diameter of the needle's:

1. bevel
2. hub
3. lumen
4. shaft

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.107) What is the phlebotomy device below?

1. Microtainer tube
2. Multi-sample blood collection needle
3. Safety trainer device
4. Winged infusion set

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.108) Multisample needles are typically available in which gauges?

1. 18–20
2. 20–22
3. 22–24
4. 24–26

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.109) Which part of a needle attaches to the syringe?

1. Bevel
2. Hub
3. Lumen
4. Shaft

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.110) Five minutes after a blood draw, the patient is still bleeding from the venipuncture site. What should the phlebotomist do?

1. Apply a pressure bandage to the patient
2. Give the patient an anti-inflammatory medication
3. Notify the patient's nurse
4. Tell the patient it is okay to leave

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.111) After use, venipuncture needles should be:

1. discarded into a sharps container
2. discarded into an autoclave bag
3. discarded into the garbage
4. reused

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.112) When should you label a blood collection tube?

1. As soon as you receive the test order
2. Just before the patient arrives
3. Before you collect the specimen
4. After you collect the specimen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.113) If a patient is having blood drawn for a prothrombin time test, you might expect:

1. the patient to be fasting
2. the patient to bleed for a long time
3. to have difficulty filling the tube
4. to have to mix the tube more

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.114) A phlebotomist has just finished collecting blood samples from a patient. However, the phlebotomist realises she has forgotten to collect a tube. What should she do?

1. Ask the patient to schedule another appointment
2. Perform a second collection for the missing tube
3. Redraw all the tubes
4. Transfer some blood from a full tube to the empty tube

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.115) After a blood draw, which of these instructions should you tell the patient?

1. Bend your arm a few times
2. Hold the cotton wool in place for 5 minutes
3. Refrain from drinking fluids for the next 2–3 hours
4. Walk around if you feel lightheaded

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.116) Immediately after blood collection, how many times must tubes be inverted to ensure proper mixing of blood and additives?

1. 1 or 2
2. 8 to 10
3. 10 to 15
4. 15 to 20

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.117) Why are gauze pads better than cotton balls for holding pressure on the puncture site after venipuncture?

1. Cotton balls can stick to the puncture site
2. Cotton balls contain latex which is dangerous for people with latex allergies
3. Cotton balls have a higher risk of causing a compression nerve injury
4. Gauze pads are more sterile

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.118) Patient personal information:

1. may be discussed during coffee breaks
2. may be discussed with other patients
3. may be used for your personal advantage
4. must never be discussed outside the hospital

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.119) When interacting with blind patients, you should:

1. narrate your actions
2. provide written materials
3. use an interpreter
4. use simple language

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.120) Which zone of interpersonal space does a phlebotomist enter when taking a blood sample?

1. Intimate
2. Personal
3. Public
4. Social

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.121) For which type of patient would an interpreter be useful?

1. Blind
2. Intellectually disabled
3. Non-English speaking
4. Pediatric

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.122) Plasma is obtained by:

1. centrifuging a clotted tube
2. using a red stoppered tube
3. using a tube containing an anticoagulant
4. using a tube that does not contain an anticoagulant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.123) Pipetting of biological specimens by mouth is:

1. hazardous and unacceptable
2. necessary when collecting capillary samples
3. permissible if one is careful
4. required when performing serological tests

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.124) Which anticoagulant is used for red blood cell counts?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Sodium citrate
4. Sodium oxalate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.125) What is the term for the percentage of red blood cells in a sample of whole blood?

1. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
2. Hematocrit
3. Hemoglobin
4. Red blood cell count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.126) For a test requiring whole blood, the blood sample must be collected in a vacutainer containing a(n):

1. anticoagulant
2. antiglycolytic agent
3. clot activator
4. serum separating gel

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.127) Which routine hematology test includes hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood count, and white blood count determinations?

1. CBC
2. CDC
3. CPK
4. CRP

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.128) Which anticoagulant works by inactivating thrombin?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Potassium oxalate
4. Sodium citrate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.129) What is the hematocrit?

1. The average mass of hemoglobin per red blood cell
2. The rate at which red blood cells descend in a tube
3. The time it takes for blood to clot
4. The volume percentage of red blood cells in blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.130) What color vacutainer tube is used to collect blood for blood banking?

1. Black
2. Gray
3. Green
4. Pink

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.131) Which medication might cause a patient to bleed excessively from a venipuncture site?

1. A herbal medicine
2. An anticoagulant
3. Birth control pills
4. Medicine for high cholesterol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.132) A member of the clergy is with a patient when you arrive to collect a routine specimen. What should you do?

1. Ask the patient's nurse what you should do
2. Come back after the clergy member has gone
3. Fill out a form saying you were unable to collect the specimen
4. Interrupt and explain you need to collect a specimen from the patient

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.133) Which area on a newborn is suitable for skin puncture?

1. Any calloused areas of the foot
2. The lateral, flat portion of the heel
3. The posterior curvature of the heel
4. The second or third finger on either hand

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.134) Why is it important to control the depth of the lancet insertion during heel puncture?

1. To avoid puncturing a vein
2. To prevent bacterial contamination
3. To prevent bone injury
4. To prevent excessive bleeding

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.135) Which part of an infant's foot is the safest area to perform a capillary puncture?

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.136) What is the maximum lancet size for heel punctures on babies?

1. 1 mm
2. 2 mm
3. 3 mm
4. 4 mm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.137) Which specimen is used for coagulation testing?

1. Plasma
2. Serum
3. Urine
4. Whole blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.138) Which sample does the glycosylated hemoglobin test require?

1. Plasma
2. Serum
3. Urine
4. Whole blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.139) Therapeutic phlebotomy is the preferred treatment for:

1. hemochromatosis
2. hemophilia
3. myeloma
4. thalassemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.140) Which of these statements about the blood gas test is true?

1. The specimen is collected in a plain red top tube
2. The specimen is frozen immediately after collecting
3. The specimen is tested within 24 hours
4. The test requires an arterial sample

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.141) To perform an arterial puncture, you need heparin solution, sterile gauze, betadine wipes, a sterile needle, a syringe and:

1. a butterfly needle
2. a tourniquet
3. alcohol wipes
4. ice water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.142) You are taking an arterial puncture. What is the first area of the patient’s body you should examine for a suitable site?

1. The antecubital area of both arms
2. The brachial artery
3. The femoral artery
4. The thumb side of the wrist

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.143) Which of these is an acceptable needle gauge for an arterial puncture?

1. 10
2. 18
3. 20
4. 28

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.144) When performing a radial artery puncture, the needle should enter the skin:

1. 1 cm distal to the index finger
2. 1 cm lateral to the index finger
3. at the exact point where the pulse is felt
4. proximal to where the pulse is felt

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.145) Which of these is a patient identifier?

1. Date of collection
2. Patient name
3. Specimen type
4. Time of collection

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.146) PKU tests are performed routinely on:

1. HIV patients
2. cancer patients
3. new employees
4. newborn infants

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.147) A phlebotomist has mixed up two specimens. What should the phlebotomist do?

1. Ask the nurse to identify the specimen
2. Ask the patients which one is theirs
3. Continue regardless
4. Retake both specimens

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.148) An ABG test measures the amount of:

1. bacteria and yeast in a urine sample
2. occult blood in a stool sample
3. oxygen and carbon dioxide in arterial blood
4. red and white blood cells in venous blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.149) 2-hr PC means 2 hours:

1. after a meal
2. after an operation
3. before a meal
4. before an operation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.150) An inpatient is eating breakfast when you arrive to collect a specimen for a fasting blood glucose test. Which of these would be the best action to take?

1. Ask the patient to vomit into a sink or emesis basin before taking the sample
2. Ask the patient's nurse if the specimen should still be collected
3. Draw the specimen quickly before the patient finishes eating
4. Give the patient a dose of insulin to counteract the food they have eaten

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.151) Which of the following tube additives is preferred for the collection of a blood culture specimen?

1. Citrate phosphate dextrose
2. Potassium oxalate
3. Sodium heparin
4. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.152) Which of these is the most important part of blood culture collection?

1. Adequately filling two media vials
2. Asepsis of the collection site
3. Selecting the collection site
4. Timing of the second set of cultures

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.153) It is 7:15 pm and you must draw a blood culture from a patient who is receiving a course of antibiotics. His next doses of antibiotics are due at 10 pm and 6 am. When is the best time to draw the blood culture?

1. At 2 am
2. At midnight
3. Just after his next dose
4. Just before his next dose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.154) How many bottles are drawn for a blood culture set?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.155) A patient begins a routine glucose tolerance test. After 30 minutes, the patient's blood sugar is 374 mg/dL. What should you do?

1. Do nothing and continue with the test
2. Make a note and continue with the test
3. Start the test again
4. Tell the attending nurse immediately

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.156) What is the minimum number of blood samples needed for the one-step glucose tolerance test?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.157) You are performing a glucose tolerance test that requires a blood sample at baseline and then four blood samples thereafter, at a rate of one sample every 30 minutes. If the patient drinks the glucose at 10:00 am, then at what time should you take the final blood sample?

1. 11:00 am
2. 10:30 am
3. 11:30 am
4. 12:00 pm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.158) Why should capillary puncture never be performed on an infant’s finger?

1. It could cause excessive blood loss
2. It could damage bones and nerves
3. The blood in the finger does not represent blood in the rest of the body
4. There is a high risk the infant will move their finger during the puncture

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.159) Why are finger punctures made at right angles to fingerprint striations?

1. To facilitate blood sample collection
2. To prevent excessive bleeding
3. To prevent scar formation
4. To reduce pain

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.160) You puncture a patient's finger for a finger stick blood test but no blood comes out. What should you do?

1. Cool the finger using an ice pack
2. Puncture the site again
3. Scrape the puncture site against the test strip
4. Squeeze the finger

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.161) The glycosylated hemoglobin test is used to diagnose which disease?

1. Diabetes
2. Hemoglobin C disease
3. Inflammation
4. Renal disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Specimen handling, transport, and processing

3.1) Sodium fluoride preserves:

1. cellulite
2. cellulose
3. glucose
4. glycerin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) What can happen if blood specimen tubes are not adequately mixed with anticoagulant?

1. Clotting
2. Hemolysis
3. Hyperglycemia
4. Leukocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) A phlebotomist draws blood from a patient and then wraps the tube in aluminum foil. What analyte is being tested?

1. Albumin
2. Bilirubin
3. PTT
4. Urobilinogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Which pipette has a bulged-out portion in the middle?

1. Mohr
2. Pasture
3. Serological
4. Volumetric

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) Why does volumetric glassware have the letters TC inscribed on it?

1. Because it can hold toxic chemicals
2. Because it contains a fixed volume
3. Because it delivers a fixed volume
4. Because it is Type C glassware

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) The icterus index is a measure of which color of serum?

1. Green
2. Red
3. White
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) What color is lipemic plasma?

1. Brownish-yellow
2. Clear red
3. Milky
4. Straw-colored

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) While separating serum, you notice that it is yellow, indicating that it contains excess bilirubin. What is the term for this finding?

1. Hemolysis
2. Icterus
3. Intergeneric
4. Lipemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) A buffy coat forms when:

1. an SST is left to rest for 24 hours
2. whole anticoagulated blood is centrifuged
3. whole blood is left to rest for 24 hours
4. whole coagulated blood is centrifuged

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) Which of these specimens is unacceptable for testing?

1. A blood specimen collected for coagulation testing in a citrate tube
2. A blood specimen in an EDTA tube that is three-quarters full
3. A clotted blood specimen for HbA1c testing
4. A sputum specimen containing 52 leukocytes and 5 epithelial cells per LPF

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Which of these specimens would most likely be rejected for testing?

1. A hemolyzed potassium specimen
2. A nonfasting glucose specimen
3. A serum-separator tube that is only half-filled
4. An icteric bilirubin specimen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) When a blood specimen in a gray-top tube is centrifuged, what does it separate into?

1. Plasma, buffy coat and red blood cells
2. Plasma, buffy coat and white blood cells
3. Serum, buffy coat and red blood cells
4. Serum, buffy coat and white blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) What is a buffy coat made of?

1. Granulocytes and fibrin
2. Red blood cells and granulocytes
3. Reticulocytes and granulocytes
4. White blood cells and platelets

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) Which device measures the RPM of a centrifuge?

1. Ohmmeter
2. Rheostat
3. Tachometer
4. Voltmeter

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) What is the most common cause of excessive centrifuge vibration?

1. Electrical interference
2. Unbalanced tubes
3. Uneven bench surfaces
4. Variable voltage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) For how many minutes should a microhematocrit be centrifuged?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 5
4. 15

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) What is the most important rule about centrifuges?

1. Always balance the tubes placed inside
2. Make sure to set the rheostat at 3000 rpm for the top speed
3. Make sure to set the timer
4. Never remove the rubber cushions in the cups

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) Which of the following can cause hemolysis in a blood sample?

1. Collecting the sample in a serum separator tube
2. Shaking the sample vigorously
3. Using a large needle
4. Withdrawing the needle before removing the tourniquet

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) Which sample is needed for a cardiac enzyme test?

1. Blood
2. Sputum
3. Sweat
4. Urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) The creatinine clearance test:

1. is a liver function test
2. requires a blood sample and a 24-hour urine collection
3. requires the patient to be fasting at the onset of testing
4. requires timed blood samples to be drawn

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) Which of these tests is the most likely to require chain-of-custody documentation?

1. Blood culture
2. Cross-match
3. Drug screen
4. TDM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) The alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test requires which type of sample?

1. Blood
2. Cerebrospinal fluid
3. Feces
4. Urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Which of these tests would most be affected if a patient ate a muffin and orange juice before a fasting blood test?

1. Blood culture
2. Cardiac enzymes
3. Complete blood count
4. Glucose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) What is the purpose of a custody seal on a sample container?

1. To help identify the sample if the container is misplaced
2. To prevent air from entering the container
3. To show whether the container has been tampered with
4. To show who currently has custody of the container

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) Which of the following is NOT required on a chain of custody form?

1. The name of the patient's doctor
2. The name of the person who collected the specimen
3. The time the specimen was collected
4. The type of specimen collected

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) You receive a specimen that should come with a chain of custody form. However, the form is missing. What should you do?

1. Ask for a new specimen to be collected
2. Fill out a new chain of custody form yourself
3. Perform the test anyway
4. Use a chain of custody form from a specimen of a different patient

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) Which of these tests requires chain of custody documentation?

1. Complete blood count
2. Fetal fibronectin
3. Free light chains test
4. Legal paternity test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) A courier delivers a chain-of-custody sample to a technician at a laboratory. Who needs to sign and date the chain-of-custody form?

1. Only the courier
2. Only the laboratory technician
3. The courier and the laboratory technician
4. The laboratory manager and the laboratory technician

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) A blood sample of insufficient quantity would be considered:

1. QA
2. QC
3. QLA
4. QNS

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) Which of these tests is centrifuged?

1. Blood gas
2. Blood smear
3. Complete blood count
4. Hematocrit

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) What of these is a sign of hemolyzed plasma?

1. Air bubbles
2. Blood clots
3. Increased opacity
4. Red color

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) A fasting patient has cloudy white serum. What condition does the patient have?

1. Hemolysis
2. Hyperbilirubinemia
3. Hyperthyroidism
4. Hypertriglyceridemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) What is an aliquot?

1. A dilution of a sample
2. A smaller amount taken from an original specimen
3. The leftover unusable part of a sample after testing
4. The minimum amount of sample required for a specific test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) Blood specimens for which of these tests require cooling during transport?

1. Blood culture
2. Cold agglutinin
3. Cryoglobulin
4. Homocysteine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) Blood samples for complete blood counts must be transported:

1. in a Styrofoam-lined box with dry ice
2. in a vacuum-sealed container at room temperature
3. in an insulated container with a cold pack
4. wrapped in metal foil

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) Blood samples for ammonia tests are transported on ice to prevent the:

1. breakdown of ammonia
2. conversion of ammonia to nitrite
3. generation of ammonia
4. growth of pathogenic microorganisms

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) At what temperature are cryofibrinogen specimens transported?

1. −20°C or lower
2. 4–6°C
3. 21°C
4. 37°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) Blood specimens for sodium testing must be transported at which temperature?

1. –20°C
2. 1–6°C
3. 20–24°C
4. 37–40°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.39) What is the purpose of activated charcoal in transport media?

1. To absorb toxic substances
2. To kill non-pathogens
3. To maintain a neutral pH
4. To prevent the overgrowth of extraneous organisms

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.40) Which of these biochemistry tests should be kept away from the light?

1. Bilirubin
2. Calcium
3. Glucose
4. Urea

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.41) Where is blood generally stored?

1. At room temperature
2. In a water bath
3. In the freezer
4. In the refrigerator

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.42) Blood samples for cold agglutinin testing should be kept at what temperature before testing?

1. –6°C
2. 6°C
3. 20°C
4. 37°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.43) Serum specimens for vitamin K should be:

1. kept at 37–40°C
2. kept away from light
3. mixed with an antiglycolytic agent
4. mixed with glass beads

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.44) Hemolysis of a blood specimen would NOT affect which test result?

1. Haptoglobin
2. MCHC
3. Red blood cell count
4. Total hemoglobin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.45) When a blood sample is left at room temperature, which of these increases?

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Glucose
3. Hemoglobin
4. Potassium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.46) The results of which of these tests may be falsely increased if the stopper is removed from the specimen?

1. Cortisol
2. Glucose
3. Potassium
4. pH

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.47) Extra precautions are necessary when labeling specimens for:

1. C&S
2. blood typing
3. factor assays
4. therapeutic drug monitoring

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.48) The Herpes B virus and Ebola virus must be transported as:

1. Category A
2. Category B
3. genetically modified organisms
4. solid medical waste

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.49) When shipping infectious substances, where should you write the technical name of the infectious agent?

1. On the Shipper’s Declaration
2. On the air waybill
3. On the outside packaging
4. On the primary container

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.50) Specimens containing the smallpox virus must be transported as:

1. Category A
2. Category B
3. contagious specimen
4. infectious specimen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.51) Infectious substances are part of which class in the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 5
4. 6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.52) What packaging is used to ship Category A infectious substances?

1. A610
2. A630
3. P620
4. P650

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.53) Infectious substances that pose the highest risk of infection during transportation and are capable of causing permanent disability, life-threatening disease, or fatal disease are known as ______________ substances.

1. Category A
2. Category B
3. Category C
4. Type 1B

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.54) Category B infectious substances must be shipped with a label that says:

1. UN2814 – Infectious Substance, Category B, Affecting Humans
2. UN3291 – Clinical Waste, Category B
3. UN3373 – Biological Substance, Category B
4. UN3549 – Medical Waste, Category B, Affecting Humans

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Section 4: Waived and point-of-care-testing

4.1) Which of these biomarkers can urine refractometers measure?

1. The presence of nitrates in urine
2. Urine hemoglobin concentration
3. Urine osmolality
4. Urine specific gravity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) The bleeding time test assesses the function of which cells?

1. Eosinophils
2. Lymphocytes
3. Platelets
4. Red blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) How often should you blot the blood during a bleeding time test?

1. Every 10 seconds
2. Every 30 seconds
3. Every minute
4. Every 2 minutes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) Which test evaluates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?

1. Closure time
2. Partial thromboplastin time
3. Prothrombin time
4. Thrombin time

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) The Platelet Function Analyzer-100 (PFA-100) requires:

1. EDTA whole blood
2. citrated whole blood
3. heparinized whole blood
4. plasma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test requires what type of blood sample?

1. Coagulated
2. Decalcified
3. Defibrinated
4. Frozen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) In the prothrombin time test, the patient's plasma is mixed with:

1. calcium and activator
2. calcium and thromboplastin
3. glass beads
4. platelet lipids

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) Pregnancy test strips detect the presence of which hormone?

1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
2. Estrogen
3. Human chorionic gonadotropin
4. Progesterone

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) What area should you swab to obtain a throat culture?

1. Larynx
2. Oral mucosa
3. Pharynx
4. Trachea

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) According to CDC guidelines, how far back should you tilt the patient’s head when performing a nasopharyngeal swab for COVID-19 testing?

1. 20 degrees
2. 45 degrees
3. 70 degrees
4. 100 degrees

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) A swab must be inserted how far into the nasal cavity to reach the nasopharynx?

1. 3–4 cm
2. 5–6 cm
3. 7–8 cm
4. 9–10 cm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.12) Which sample does the rapid strep test require?

1. Nasal swab
2. Nasopharyngeal swab
3. Throat swab
4. Vaginal swab

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.13) There are two reasons why phlebotomists should wipe away the first drop of blood when performing a capillary puncture. The first reason is to remove traces of alcohol. What is the second reason?

1. The first drop of blood contains excess tissue fluid
2. The first drop of blood is high in clotting factors
3. To increase blood flow to the area
4. To remove pathogens

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.14) Which of these statements about capillary punctures is true?

1. It is better to clean the skin with iodine than with alcohol
2. The first drop of blood is the best to use
3. The puncture must hit bone for it to be deep enough
4. The puncture should be made at right angles to the fingerprint striations

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.15) Which is the preferred site to obtain capillary blood from adults?

1. Ear
2. Fingertip
3. Heel
4. Toe

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.16) The middle finger and ___________ are used for finger puncture.

1. index finger
2. little finger
3. ring finger
4. thumb

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.17) What is the main reason a capillary puncture site is warmed beforehand?

1. To delay clotting
2. To increase blood flow
3. To minimize contamination
4. To reduce hemoconcentration

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.18) Which of these tests is collected first during a single capillary puncture?

1. Complete blood count
2. Electrolytes
3. Glucose
4. Phosphorus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.19) What chemical does the urine glucose dipstick test use?

1. Glucose oxidase
2. Glucose oxide
3. Glucose reductase
4. Hexichloridine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.20) Which of these actions is NOT performed when performing quality control of a glucometer?

1. Apply a drop of blood to the test strip
2. Compare the result displayed by the glucometer with the expected value
3. Insert a test strip into the glucometer
4. Remove the test strip from the glucometer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.21) Glucose point-of-care testing is used to screen for:

1. glycemia
2. glycogenolysis
3. glycolysis
4. glycosuria

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.22) Which of these is a CLIA waived test?

1. Complete blood count
2. Fecal occult blood test
3. Immunoassay
4. Peripheral smear

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.23) When a person tests negative for COVID-19 with a rapid antigen test but is still suspected of having the virus, they should be tested with a(n):

1. ELISA
2. PCR test
3. antibody test
4. lateral flow test

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Section 5: Non-blood specimens

5.1) Which of these fluids is normally clear and colorless?

1. Cerebrospinal fluid
2. Lymph fluid
3. Serum
4. Urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) To reach the urinary bladder, urine passes from the kidney through a tube called the:

1. renal column
2. renal pelvis
3. ureter
4. urethra

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) In the kidneys, substances travel from the glomerulus into the Bowman capsule by which process?

1. Active transport
2. Diffusion
3. Filtration
4. Osmosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) What is the main site for the absorption of digested food?

1. Kidneys
2. Large intestine
3. Small intestine
4. Stomach

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) What is the functional unit of the lungs?

1. Alveoli
2. Lobule
3. Nephron
4. Neuron

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) Which of these chemicals would be the best choice to neutralize a weak acid spill in the laboratory?

1. Acetic acid
2. Boric acid
3. Sodium bicarbonate
4. Sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) Stool specimens for O&P should be collected in a jar containing:

1. SAF fixative
2. agar
3. saline
4. sodium hypochlorite

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) The sweat test is used to diagnose which disease?

1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Infection
3. Muscular dystrophy
4. Pneumonia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.9) Which of these foods should a patient avoid eating before a fecal occult blood test?

1. Fish
2. Popcorn
3. Red meat
4. Whole wheat bread

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.10) Throat swabs are often taken to diagnose:

1. bleeding ulcers
2. herpes zoster
3. streptococcus
4. typhoid fever

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.11) Which organ does hydrogen breath testing investigate?

1. Intestine
2. Liver
3. Lungs
4. Stomach

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.12) The H. pylori breath test detects which gas?

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Hydrogen
3. Nitrogen
4. Oxygen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.13) What sample is needed for the Hemoccult test?

1. Blood
2. Sputum
3. Stool
4. Urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.14) Urine, breath, and _______ are used for ketone testing.

1. blood
2. semen
3. stool
4. sweat

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.15) How often should reagent strips be tested with controls?

1. Daily
2. Weekly
3. Monthly
4. Every three months

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.16) Identify the false statement regarding 24-hour urine collection.

1. A preservative may be used for some tests
2. Collections during the night are discarded
3. Testing is done in clinical chemistry
4. The first timed specimen is discarded

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.17) When used for detecting urinary tract infections, urine dipsticks test for:

1. nitrates
2. nitrites
3. phosphates
4. sugars

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.18) A patient tests positive for bilirubin on a urine strip. Which test can rule out a false positive result?

1. Acetest
2. Clinitest
3. Ictotest
4. SSA

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.19) Urine samples for culture should be collected in containers that:

1. are narrow-mouthed
2. are sterile
3. contain an anticoagulant
4. have been cleaned with disinfectant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.20) Midstream urine samples are most often used for:

1. culture and susceptibility
2. mononucleosis testing
3. pregnancy testing
4. routine urinalysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.21) Clean-catch urine specimens are necessary when testing urine for:

1. bacteria
2. glucose
3. occult blood
4. protein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.22) Which urine collection technique involves collecting the urine by inserting a sterile needle into the patient's bladder through the abdominal wall?

1. Biopsy
2. Necropsy
3. Suprapubic aspiration
4. Urinary catheter

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.23) Which of these statements about 24-hour urine collections is true?

1. If the container contains a preservative, then the preservative must be thrown away
2. If the patient leaves their house, they should take the container with them
3. Night-time specimens are discarded
4. The patient should keep the container in a warm place

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.24) What preservative is needed for a sodium 24-hour urine test?

1. Chlorhexidine
2. HCl
3. NaHCO₃
4. No preservative

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.25) Which of these media is used to transport and preserve stool specimens?

1. Blood agar
2. Cary-Blair media
3. Lowenstein-Jensen agar
4. MacConkey agar

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.26) Which of these urine constituents increases in a urine specimen left at room temperature?

1. Bilirubin
2. Leukocytes
3. Nitrites
4. Urobilinogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.27) Which of these chemicals can be used to preserve 24-hour urines for endocrine testing?

1. Boric acid
2. Potassium chloride
3. Sodium bicarbonate
4. Sodium hypochlorite

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.28) Which of these specimens needs to be kept at 35–37°C?

1. Blood culture
2. Feces
3. Throat swab
4. Urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.29) Which of these specimens is sterile in healthy people?

1. Blood
2. Feces
3. Gastrointestinal tract specimens
4. Sputum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.30) An elevated level of white blood cells in urine is called:

1. hematuria
2. pyelonephritis
3. pyuria
4. uremia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.31) Before you perform urinalysis on a refrigerated urine specimen, bring the urine to room temperature and _______ it.

1. boil
2. centrifuge
3. filter
4. stir

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.32) What do the letters TCA on a urine drug test stand for?

1. Target channel adapter
2. Trichloroacetic acid
3. Trichloroethane
4. Tricyclic antidepressant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.33) Amorphous urates:

1. disappear if the urine is heated
2. form blue sediment in acidic urine
3. form white sediment in alkaline urine
4. have a non-granular appearance

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.34) What color is the urine of patients with jaundice?

1. Brownish-yellow
2. Milky
3. Red
4. Straw-colored

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.35) Bile pigments will cause urine specimens to be what color?

1. Cloudy
2. Foul-smelling
3. Red
4. Yellow-brown

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.36) A patient's urine sample is positive for ketones. The patient probably has:

1. advanced liver disease
2. heart disease
3. pernicious anemia
4. uncontrolled diabetes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.37) What is the SI unit for reporting the result of urine glucose tests?

1. mg/L
2. mg/dL
3. mmol/L
4. mmol/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.38) Which of these tests does NOT require a 24-hour urine specimen?

1. Creatinine clearance
2. Ketones
3. Ketosteroids
4. Quantitative drug analysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.39) Which of these would be checked during a macroscopic examination of urine?

1. Acidity
2. Appearance under a microscope
3. Color
4. Specific gravity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.40) A urine's specific gravity is directly proportional to its:

1. dissolved solids
2. salt content
3. sugar content
4. turbidity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.41) What are hyaline casts made of?

1. Albumin
2. Globulin
3. Immunoglobulins G and M
4. Uromodulin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.42) Urine that smells like ammonia may be a sign the patient has:

1. a Proteus infection
2. a yeast infection
3. diabetes
4. hepatitis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.43) Which epithelial cells in urine sediment are the largest?

1. Columnar
2. Cuboidal
3. Squamous
4. Urothelial

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.44) Which type of urinary cast is a sign of chronic renal failure?

1. Fatty
2. Renal tubular epithelial cell
3. Waxy
4. White blood cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.45) Which test uses guaiac paper?

1. Fecal occult blood test
2. Helicobacter pylori breath test
3. Ketones urine test
4. Urea breath test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.46) A pH of 8 is:

1. acidic
2. alkaline
3. negative
4. neutral

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Section 6: Laboratory operations

6.1) A technique that has demonstrated its superiority over other techniques over time is known as the:

1. Pareto principle
2. benchmark
3. best practice
4. case model

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) What is the term for mechanisms and processes protecting health information from unauthorized access?

1. Accountability
2. Confidentiality
3. Isolation
4. Security

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) When talking to children, use:

1. abbreviations
2. jargon
3. simple words
4. technical language

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) When communicating with someone from a different culture, it is important to:

1. make assumptions about their beliefs and values
2. speak louder and slower to ensure understanding
3. be respectful of their cultural differences
4. avoid using humor, as it may be misinterpreted

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) Which of these is one of the four principles of the “four principles plus scope” approach to medical ethics?

1. Integrity
2. Justice
3. Professionalism
4. Sensitivity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) A patient rolls up his sleeve for a blood draw. Which type of consent is this?

1. Active
2. Expressed
3. Implied
4. Informed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) Which acceptable range do laboratories typically use for quality control results?

1. One standard deviation from the mean
2. The middle 68% of the results
3. The outer 5% of the results
4. Two standard deviations from the mean

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.8) In which of these situations should a lab technician remove their gloves?

1. Before carrying specimens through a designated clean area
2. Before loading the autoclave
3. Before using a restroom
4. For cleaning a chemical spill

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.9) Which link in the chain of infection is a skin cut?

1. Mode of transmission
2. Portal of entry
3. Reservoir
4. Susceptible host

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.10) Used needles should be discarded in:

1. a biohazard sharps container
2. a glass disposal bucket
3. a glass recycling bin
4. the regular garbage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.11) Class C fires involve:

1. combustible metals
2. electrical equipment
3. flammable liquids
4. paper and wood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.12) What is the first step when using a fire extinguisher?

1. Aim the fire extinguisher at the fire
2. Pull the pin
3. Squeeze the handle
4. Sweep the hose from side to side at the base of the fire

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.13) What type of fire extinguisher is used on class D fires?

1. CO2
2. Dry powder
3. Foam
4. Water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.14) A fire extinguisher with a 6A-80BC rating can put out ________________ fire as a 3A-40BC extinguisher.

1. half as much
2. the same amount of
3. three times as much
4. twice as much

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.15) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: The fire extinguisher:

1. can be used to extinguish electrical fires
2. cannot be used on electrical equipment
3. carries a risk of electric shock
4. requires charging before use

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.16) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: This fire extinguisher:

1. can be used on fires involving flammable liquids or gases
2. requires annual top-ups of type B fuel
3. should be stored in a separate room from flammable chemicals
4. uses kerosene to extinguish fires

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.17) The fire extinguisher below can be used on which of the following fires?

1. Electrical equipment
2. Methanol
3. Oil bath
4. Cardboard boxes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.18) What are the three components of the fire triangle?

1. Oxygen, heat, and fuel
2. Oxygen, ignition, and fuel
3. Rescue, Alarm, Escape
4. Rescue, Alarm, Extinguish

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.19) Which of these chemicals is corrosive to skin?

1. Calcium acetate
2. Hydrogen peroxide
3. Potassium phosphate
4. Sodium chloride

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.20) What is the term for a chemical that immediately damages human tissue on contact?

1. Carcinogenic
2. Combustible
3. Corrosive
4. Toxic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.21) What is the term for chemicals that cause birth defects in embryos and fetuses?

1. Carcinogens
2. Corrosives
3. Phenyls
4. Teratogens

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.22) Which of these is written information that must be supplied by manufacturers of chemicals and hazardous materials?

1. OSHA
2. OSM
3. SDS
4. TOSM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.23) What is the term for chemicals that burn or destroy tissue?

1. Acyclic
2. Caustic
3. Galvanic
4. Stereogenic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.24) Mixing bleach with acid produces water, salt and:

1. arsenic trioxide
2. chlorine gas
3. phosgene
4. sodium cyanide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.25) By which route do toxic chemicals enter the body by direct skin contact?

1. Absorption
2. Ingestion
3. Inhalation
4. Injection

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.26) Which type of glove has the highest resistance to permeation by gases?

1. Butyl
2. Neoprene
3. PVC
4. Rubber

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.27) When visiting a patient in enteric isolation, staff must wear gloves and what other item of equipment?

1. Gown
2. Hazard suit
3. Helmet
4. Shoe covers

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.28) What is the correct order of removal of PPE?

1. Gloves, gown, goggles, mask
2. Gown, goggles, gloves, mask
3. Gown, mask, gloves, goggles
4. Mask, gown, gloves, goggles

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.29) Which of these items is PPE?

1. Biohazard bag
2. Countertop splash shield
3. Latex gloves
4. Sharps container

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.30) A substance with the potential to produce cancer in humans or animals is called a:

1. carcinogen
2. caustic substance
3. nosocomial substance
4. pathogenic substance

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.31) A wavelength of 250 nm falls into which category of electromagnetic radiation?

1. Infrared
2. Radio waves
3. Ultraviolet
4. Visible

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.32) The three basic protective measures against radiation are time, distance, and:

1. lead
2. radiation suit
3. shielding
4. speed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.33) Universal precautions are based on what assumption?

1. All laboratory chemicals may be carcinogenic
2. All specimens are potentially infectious
3. Equipment is not sterile
4. Handwashing is the best way to prevent the spread of infection

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.34) What does this pictogram mean?

1. Flammable
2. Oxidizing
3. Self-heating
4. Self-reactive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.35) What does this pictogram mean?

1. Biohazard
2. Carcinogenic
3. Corrosive
4. Toxic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.36) What does the following sign mean?

1. Biohazard
2. Do not eat
3. General warning
4. Toxic material

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.37) In the NFPA hazard diamond, which quadrant indicates special hazards?

1. Blue
2. Red
3. White
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.38) On the NFPA hazard diamond, a number 1 in the red quadrant means the substance:

1. does not burn
2. only ignites after considerable preheating
3. ignites if moderately heated
4. can be ignited at normal temperatures

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.39) Always keep picric acid:

1. dry
2. refrigerated
3. ventilated
4. wet

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.40) Which of these dilutions is the most effective disinfectant?

1. 1% ethyl alcohol
2. 10% ethyl alcohol
3. 40% ethyl alcohol
4. 70% ethyl alcohol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.41) What is the first step when cleaning up a blood spill?

1. Decontaminate reusable equipment such as dustpans and brushes
2. Pour disinfectant onto the spill
3. Put on PPE
4. Soak up the spill with paper towels

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.42) Which concentration of bleach is used to decontaminate benchtops?

1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 30%
4. 50%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.43) A disinfectant may become ineffective if:

1. it is kept in a dark place
2. it is left at room temperature
3. it is not diluted properly
4. the container is kept tightly sealed during storage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.44) Which disinfectant inactivates prions?

1. Alcohol
2. Formaldehyde
3. Formalin
4. Sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.45) Which of these substances would be the best solution to clean up a large blood spill?

1. 1:10 dilution of bleach
2. 70% isopropyl alcohol
3. Antibacterial soap and water
4. Povidone-iodine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.46) At what temperature do hot air ovens sterilize glassware in 60 minutes?

1. 100°C
2. 121°C
3. 140°C
4. 160°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.47) Which pathogen cannot be inactivated by conventional sterilization methods such as autoclaving, 70% ethanol, UV disinfection, and gamma irradiation?

1. Coccidioides immitis
2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3. Prions
4. Smallpox

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.48) Preventive maintenance means:

1. fixing things before they break
2. identifying unexpected failures
3. repairing equipment after it fails
4. turning off machines when they are not in use

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.49) Which glassware is used to measure 24-hour urine volumes?

1. Beaker
2. Erlenmeyer flask
3. Graduated cylinder
4. Volumetric flask

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.50) What type of filter do biological safety cabinets use to remove airborne particles, such as bacteria and viruses?

1. Electrostatic
2. Fiberglass
3. HEPA
4. UV light

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.51) What virus causes hepatitis C?

1. HAV
2. HBC
3. HCV
4. HPC

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.52) The focus of quality assurance is best described as:

1. continuous quality improvement
2. doing more with less
3. improving a system
4. preventing mistakes and defects

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.53) What is the purpose of utilization management?

1. To improve the quality of patient care
2. To increase patient safety
3. To reduce the number of adverse events
4. To use resources more effectively

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.54) Which of these is a pre-analytical error?

1. A light blue top tube filled only halfway
2. A result reported on the wrong patient
3. Incorrect calculation of test results
4. Incorrect interpretation of results

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.55) The process of checking and rectifying the precision and accuracy of a measuring instrument is called:

1. calibration
2. estimation
3. graduation
4. mensuration

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.56) Which of these practices is dangerous and should be avoided?

1. Immediately performing first aid to someone who has been exposed to blood
2. Recapping used needles using both hands
3. Securing used sharps containers during transport
4. Using plasticware instead of glass

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.57) You are a phlebotomist drawing blood from a woman for a pregnancy test. After the woman has left the room, a colleague approaches you and asks what test was ordered. He explains he wants to know because he is the woman's ex-boyfriend. You should:

1. call the police
2. inform him you are unable to tell him anything
3. lie and tell him the test was a complete blood count
4. reassure him that he has nothing to worry about

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.58) When shipping infectious organisms, in which shape must the marking UN3373 appear on the box?

1. Circle
2. Diamond
3. Hexagon
4. Triangle

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.59) Under the Occupational Safety and Health Act, employers have a responsibility to provide:

1. a safe workplace
2. extra training for disabled workers
3. health insurance
4. work breaks

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.60) If a worker suffers an accident at work and has to be hospitalized, how soon must the employer notify OSHA?

1. Immediately
2. Within 12 hours
3. Within 24 hours
4. Within 8 hours

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.61) In OSHA's hierarchy of controls, what is the most effective type of hazard control?

1. Administrative controls
2. Elimination
3. Engineering controls
4. Substitution

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.62) OSHA's Hazard Communication standard requires employers to inform workers about the workplace dangers of:

1. bloodborne pathogens
2. dangerous chemicals
3. general safety hazards
4. miscommunication

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.63) What is medical negligence?

1. A situation where an injured patient has no evidence of how the injury occurred
2. An agreement for a doctor to provide treatment
3. The failure to provide a patient with a reasonable standard of care
4. The submission of insurance claims for services never provided

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.64) Another term for professional negligence is:

1. malfeasance
2. malpractice
3. misfeasance
4. nonfeasance

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.65) The 4 D's of medical negligence are duty, dereliction, direct causation, and:

1. damages
2. danger
3. denial
4. doctor

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.66) Which legal term means the degree of care a prudent, reasonable healthcare provider would exercise in a given situation?

1. Customary care
2. Optimal care
3. Scope of practice
4. Standard of care

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.67) What federal agency monitors the Occupational Safety and Health Act?

1. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
2. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
4. United States Public Health Service (USPHS)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.68) What federal agency categorizes clinical laboratory tests by their complexity?

1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
2. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.69) What federal agency approves disinfectants for use in laboratories?

1. American Medical Association (AMA)
2. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
3. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.70) Which federal agency requires employers to provide workers with PPE?

1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
2. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
3. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.71) Which federal agency is responsible for ensuring that clinical laboratories uphold and enforce CLIA standards?

1. Center for Global Health (CGH)
2. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
3. Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA)
4. Office of Public Health Science (OPHS)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.72) Who enforces HIPAA?

1. The Attorney General
2. The Department of Health and Human Services
3. The Surgeon General
4. The US Senate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.73) Which federal agency enforces federal employment discrimination laws, such as the Civil Rights Act and the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?

1. Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA)
2. Employment and Training Administration (ETA)
3. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.74) Which federal agency regulates the transport of hazardous materials?

1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
2. Department Of Transportation (DOT)
3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.75) Which federal agency regulates laboratory testing performed on humans?

1. American Medical Association (AMA)
2. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
3. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Service (CMS)
4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.76) What federal legislation regulates clinical laboratories?

1. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
2. Federal Clinical Laboratory Orders
3. Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP) standards
4. Laboratory Safety and Security Regulations

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.77) Which act prevents employers from retaliating against workers for complaining about unsafe working conditions?

1. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
2. Federal Employees' Compensation Act (FCCA)
3. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
4. Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.78) Which federal law requires health care providers to provide a sign language interpreter for deaf patients?

1. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
2. Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)
3. Health Care Right of Conscience Act (HCRCA)
4. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.79) Which act outlines the lawful use and disclosure of protected health information?

1. Digital Accountability and Transparency Act (DATA)
2. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)
3. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
4. Privacy Act

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.80) What worldwide system gives recommendations on how to label hazardous chemicals?

1. GHS
2. HCS
3. HPR
4. HazCom

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.81) The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals has two signal words for hazardous chemicals: "Danger" and:

1. Attention
2. Caution
3. Notice
4. Warning

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.82) How often does CLIA require laboratories to perform proficiency testing?

1. Every month
2. Every two years
3. Once a year
4. Twice a year

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.83) Who or what does protective isolation protect?

1. A patient
2. Lab equipment
3. Medical personnel
4. The general public

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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