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1) What is another name for winged infusion sets?

1. Butterfly needles
2. Milliner's needles
3. Straight needles
4. Universal needles

Reveal answer 2) What is the medical term for high blood pressure?

1. Hyperalbuminemia
2. Hyperglycemia
3. Hyperplasia
4. Hypertension

Reveal answer 3) What is the term for the contraction phase of the heartbeat?

1. Diastole
2. Septum
3. Systole
4. Tachycardia

Reveal answer 4) Which of the following would most likely cause a low heart rate?

1. Exercise
2. Fever
3. High concentration of potassium in the blood
4. Increased blood pressure

Reveal answer 5) Which sinus rhythm has a rate that is consistently less than 60 beats per minute?

1. Sinus arrest
2. Sinus bradycardia
3. Sinus dysrhythmia
4. Sinus tachycardia

Reveal answer 6) Which rhythm shows an irregularity during inspiration and expiration?

1. Sinus arrest
2. Sinus bradycardia
3. Sinus dysrhythmia
4. Sinus tachycardia

Reveal answer 7) Which of these is a common sign of low cardiac output?

1. High blood pressure
2. Increased perfusion of vital organs
3. Low blood pressure
4. The patient is alert and oriented

Reveal answer 8) Which dysrhythmia is similar to wandering atrial pacemaker, except that the rate exceeds 100 beats per minute?

1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Atrial flutter
3. Multfocal atrial tachycardia
4. Sinus tachycardia

Reveal answer 9) What is the major health risk for patients who have atrial fibrillation?

1. Bleeding problems
2. Bundle branch block
3. Hypertension
4. Thrombus formation and embolization

Reveal answer 10) Ischemic heart disease involves:

1. atrophied muscle
2. low blood pressure
3. narrowed heart arteries
4. ruptured blood vessels

Reveal answer 11) Which of these dysrhythmias is NOT considered part of the supraventricular tachycardia classification?

1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Junctional tachycardia
3. Sinus tachycardia
4. Ventricular tachycardia

Reveal answer 12) Which of these is a sign of supraventricular tachycardia?

1. A clear, easily identifiable P wave
2. A heart rate of over 150 beats per minute
3. A wide QRS complex
4. Different atrial and ventricular rates

Reveal answer 13) An arrhythmia is a heart rhythm that is:

1. abnormal
2. normal
3. too fast
4. too slow

Reveal answer 14) What is the heart rate range for junctional escape rhythm?

1. 20-40 beats per minute
2. 40-60 beats per minute
3. 60-100 beats per minute
4. 100-150 beats per minute

Reveal answer 15) What is the heart rate range for accelerated junctional rhythm?

1. 20-40 beats per minute
2. 40-60 beats per minute
3. 60-100 beats per minute
4. 100-150 beats per minute

Reveal answer 16) What is the heart rate range for junctional tachycardia?

1. 100-150 beats per minute
2. 20-40 beats per minute
3. 40-60 beats per minute
4. 60-100 beats per minute

Reveal answer 17) Which is the most serious kind of heart block?

1. First-degree heart block
2. Second-degree type I heart block
3. Second-degree type II heart block
4. Third-degree heart block

Reveal answer 18) Which ventricular dysrhythmia has a heart rate of fewer than 20 beats per minute?

1. Accelerated idioventricular
2. Agonal
3. Ventricular fibrillation
4. Ventricular tachycardia

Reveal answer 19) Which ventricular dysrhythmia has a heart rate between 20 and 50 beats per minute?

1. Asystole
2. Idioventricular
3. Ventricular fibrillation
4. Ventricular tachycardia

Reveal answer 20) In which type of arrhythmia do the heart ventricles quiver instead of pumping normally?

1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Bradycardia
3. Supraventricular tachycardia
4. Ventricular fibrillation

Reveal answer 21) What is the term for a heartbeat of fewer than 60 beats per minute?

1. Bradycardia
2. Epicardium
3. Myocardium
4. Tachycardia

Reveal answer 22) Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate of how many beats per minute?

1. 40–60 bpm
2. 60–80 bpm
3. 80–100 bpm
4. >100 bpm

Reveal answer 23) The sympathetic nervous system:

1. constricts the pupils
2. increases the heart rate
3. promotes digestion
4. reduces blood pressure

Reveal answer 24) Which part of the heart sets the heart rate?

1. AV node
2. Bundle of His
3. Left atrium
4. Sinoatrial node

Reveal answer 25) Which part of the heart contracts during systole?

1. Arteries
2. Atria
3. Valves
4. Ventricles

Reveal answer 26) The heart's ability to create its own electrical impulse is called:

1. automaticity
2. conductivity
3. contractility
4. excitability

Reveal answer 27) What is the name of the sac that contains the heart?

1. Bundle of His
2. Endocardium
3. Myocardium
4. Pericardium

Reveal answer 28) What is the normal, inherent rate for the AV junction?

1. 20-40 beats per minute
2. 40-60 beats per minute
3. 60-80 beats per minute
4. 80-100 beats per minute

Reveal answer 29) What is diastole?

1. A heart rate below 60 beats per second
2. An irregular heart rate
3. When the heart muscle contracts
4. When the heart muscle relaxes

Reveal answer 30) What dangerous chemical is produced when bleach is mixed with acid?

1. arsenic trioxide
2. chlorine gas
3. phosgene
4. sodium cyanide

Reveal answer 31) A defibrillator can be used:

1. to produce an electrical rhythm
2. to record the patient's breathing pattern
3. to treat an abnormal heart rhythm
4. without training

Reveal answer 32) Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing an ECG?

1. To check for problems with the flow of electricity through the heart
2. To evaluate heart conditions
3. To evaluate the rate and rhythm of breathing
4. To see how well the heart is contracting and pumping

Reveal answer 33) Where are continuous ECG monitors most commonly used?

1. Assisted-living centers
2. Clinics
3. Hospitals
4. Physician's offices

Reveal answer 34) If your most important duties include watching an ECG tracing and notifying the physician of abnormalities, then you are most likely a:

1. cardiovascular technologist
2. electrocardiogram monitoring technician
3. electrocardiogram technician
4. physician assistant

Reveal answer 35) What does the pulse measure?

1. Blood pressure
2. Blood volume
3. Circulation
4. Heart rate

Reveal answer 36) A normal resting heart rate for adults is _________ beats per minute.

1. 40 to 80
2. 60 to 100
3. 80 to 120
4. 100 to 140

Reveal answer 37) What view of the heart do leads V1 and V2 of an electrocardiogram represent?

1. Anterior
2. Inferior
3. Lateral
4. Septal

Reveal answer 38) What view of the heart do leads I, aVL, V5, and V6 of an electrocardiogram represent?

1. Anterior
2. Inferior
3. Lateral
4. Septal

Reveal answer 39) What view of the heart do leads V3 and V4 of an electrocardiogram represent?

1. Anterior
2. Inferior
3. Lateral
4. Septal

Reveal answer 40) What view of the heart do leads II, III, and aVF of an electrocardiogram represent?

1. Anterior
2. Inferior
3. Lateral
4. Septal

Reveal answer 41) Which of these is a mistake when attaching ECG leads to a patient?

1. Attaching the LA lead to the patient's left arm
2. Attaching the LL lead to the patient's left leg
3. Attaching the RL lead to the patient's right arm
4. Attaching the V1 lead to the 4th intercostal space, right sternal edge

Reveal answer 42) How many leads are in a standard ECG?

1. 10
2. 12
3. 14
4. 16

Reveal answer 43) What are leads II, III, and aVF of an ECG known as?

1. Grounding leads
2. Inferior leads
3. Lateral leads
4. Limb leads

Reveal answer 44) In electrocardiography, what does the letter A in aVL stand for?

1. actual
2. alternating
3. amplitude
4. augmented

Reveal answer 45) What is another name for the right leg (RL) electrode in an ECG?

1. F
2. N
3. T
4. V1

Reveal answer 46) In electrocardiography, which lead is called the augmented unipolar right arm lead?

1. Lead I
2. aVF
3. aVL
4. aVR

Reveal answer 47) The most commonly used ECG electrodes are _______ and are used _______.

1. disposable, more than once
2. disposable, once
3. reusable, more than once
4. reusable, once

Reveal answer 48) For which condition might you need to increase the ECG paper speed?

1. Adams–Stokes syndrome
2. Bradycardia
3. Bundle branch block
4. Tachycardia

Reveal answer 49) Which three ECG electrodes form the Einthoven triangle?

1. RA, LA and LL
2. RA, LA and RL
3. RA, LL and RL
4. V1, V2 and V3

Reveal answer 50) In electrocardiography, what is the angle of Louis also known as?

1. Anterior-posterior angle
2. Einthoven's triangle
3. Lead I
4. Sternal angle

Reveal answer 51) What would be the first and most appropriate thing to say if a patient refuses an ECG?

1. "Don't worry; it takes only a few seconds."
2. "I will have to report your refusal to my supervisor."
3. "Will you tell me why you don't want to have an ECG?"
4. "Your doctor has ordered this test, and it must be done."

Reveal answer 52) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V4 placed?

1. Anywhere between the right shoulder and the wrist
2. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
3. Fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
4. Fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum

Reveal answer 53) Where is the V2 chest electrode placed in an ECG?

1. At the fifth intercostal space to the left of the midclavicular line
2. At the fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
3. At the fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum
4. Midway between V3 and V5

Reveal answer 54) To prevent disease transmission during an ECG, you should:

1. check the ground prong
2. lower the bed
3. raise the side rail
4. wash your hands

Reveal answer 55) Where is the V1 chest electrode placed in an ECG?

1. At the fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line
2. At the fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
3. At the fourth intercostal space, right sternal border
4. Midway between V3 and V5

Reveal answer 56) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V6 placed?

1. Anywhere between the right shoulder and the wrist
2. The fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
3. The fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum
4. The midaxillary line at the same level as V4 and V5

Reveal answer 57) You are preparing a patient for an electrocardiogram but the patient's left lower leg is amputated. What should you do?

1. Cancel the electrocardiogram
2. Perform the electrocardiogram but without the LL and RL electrodes
3. Perform the electrocardiogram but without the LL electrode
4. Place the LL electrode above the patient's left knee instead

Reveal answer 58) Which electrodes are used for lead III in an ECG?

1. LL and LA
2. LL and RA
3. RL and LA
4. RL and RA

Reveal answer 59) What is Einthoven's law?

1. Lead II = Lead I + Lead III
2. Lead II = Lead I − Lead III
3. Lead III = Lead I + Lead II
4. Lead III = Lead I − Lead II

Reveal answer 60) Which electrodes are used to record lead I in an ECG?

1. LA and RA
2. LA and RL
3. RA and LL
4. RA and RL

Reveal answer 61) How many electrodes does the 12-lead ECG use?

1. 6
2. 8
3. 10
4. 12

Reveal answer 62) In electrocardiography, what is the collective name for the aVR, aVL, and aVF leads?

1. Alternating voltage leads
2. Amplified voltage leads
3. Augmented limb leads
4. Depolarization-repolarization leads

Reveal answer 63) What are leads I, II, and III of an ECG known as?

1. Augmented limb leads
2. Bipolar limb leads
3. Positive limb leads
4. Unipolar limb leads

Reveal answer 64) What does ST elevation on an ECG suggest?

1. Bundle branch block
2. Heart murmur
3. Myocardial infarction
4. The leads are on the wrong way around

Reveal answer 65) What does the QRS complex on an ECG represent?

1. Atrial depolarization
2. Atrial repolarization
3. Ventricular depolarization
4. Ventricular repolarization

Reveal answer 66) Which of these may cause a shortened PR interval on an ECG?

1. Brugada syndrome
2. Diabetes
3. First-degree heart block
4. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

Reveal answer 67) Which is of these NOT one of the three main components of an ECG?

1. P wave
2. QRS complex
3. T wave
4. Z wave

Reveal answer 68) In electrocardiography, which is the largest wave in the QRS complex?

1. The P wave
2. The Q wave
3. The R wave
4. The S wave

Reveal answer 69) What does the T wave on an ECG represent?

1. Depolarization of the atria
2. Depolarization of the ventricles
3. Repolarization of the atria
4. Repolarization of the ventricles

Reveal answer 70) What does the horizontal axis on an ECG represent?

1. Blood pressure
2. Resistance
3. Time
4. Voltage

Reveal answer 71) How long is a normal PR interval on an ECG trace?

1. 0.02 to 0.06 seconds
2. 0.06 to 0.12 seconds
3. 0.12 to 0.20 seconds
4. 0.20 to 0.28 seconds

Reveal answer 72) What part of the ECG tracing represents the time from the start of the atrial activity to the start of ventricular activity?

1. J point
2. PR interval
3. QRS complex
4. QT interval

Reveal answer 73) What part of the ECG tracing is measured from the end of the S wave to the beginning of the T wave?

1. QRS complex
2. QT segment
3. ST segment
4. U wave

Reveal answer 74) What causes somatic tremors on an ECG?

1. Incorrect placement of leads
2. Interference from another electrical device
3. Leakage of electrical current
4. Patient movement

Reveal answer 75) You observe somatic tremor artifacts on the ECG. What can you do to reduce these artifacts?

1. Check for sources of electrical interference
2. Make sure the electrodes are secure
3. Move the bed away from the wall
4. Remind the patient to keep still

Reveal answer 76) How many milliseconds long is a normal QRS complex on an ECG trace?

1. 80–100
2. 100–120
3. 120–140
4. 140–160

Reveal answer 77) Which question does NOT need to be answered when determining the QRS measurement for an ECG?

1. Are all the QRS complexes of equal length?
2. Do all QRS complexes look alike?
3. Is the R-R pattern regular?
4. What is the actual QRS measurement and is it within normal limits?

Reveal answer 78) You are interpreting an ECG tracing. You notice that the QRS complexes measure 0.16 seconds. This most likely indicates:

1. delayed ventricular conduction
2. increased delay at the AV node
3. myocardial infarction
4. normal ventricular conduction

Reveal answer 79) Which atrial dysrhythmia has capital "F" waves and a classic sawtooth or picket fence appearance on an ECG tracing?

1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Atrial flutter
3. Multifocal atrial tachycardia
4. PACs

Reveal answer 80) Which atrial dysrhythmia has lowercase "f" waves, chaotic atrial electrical activity, and irregular R-R intervals on an ECG tracing?

1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Atrial flutter
3. Multifocal atrial tachycardia
4. PACs

Reveal answer 81) At least ___ differently shaped P waves should be identified on the ECG tracing before making a diagnosis of wandering atrial pacemaker rhythm.

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Reveal answer 82) U waves on ECG tracing:

1. are best seen in leads V2 and V3
2. are larger than T waves
3. get smaller as the heart rate slows down
4. normally go in the opposite direction to the T wave

Reveal answer 83) What is the main difficulty in determining a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?

1. Determining the origin of the tachycardia
2. Determining the regularity
3. Determining the ventricular rate
4. Measuring the QRS interval

Reveal answer 84) There are 9 QRS complexes on a six-second ECG strip. Estimate the patient's heart rate in beats per minute.

1. 15 bpm
2. 54 bpm
3. 90 bpm
4. 154 bpm

Reveal answer 85) Which type of heart block has missing QRS complexes and a consistent PR interval measurement on ECG tracing?

1. First degree heart block
2. Second degree type I
3. Second degree type II
4. Third degree heart block

Reveal answer 86) Which type of heart block has regular P-P and R-R intervals that fire at two distinctly different rates on ECG tracing?

1. First degree heart block
2. Second degree type I
3. Second degree type II
4. Third degree heart block

Reveal answer 87) Frequent non-conducted QRS complexes on ECG tracing are likely signs of:

1. congestive heart failure
2. high cardiac output
3. kidney failure
4. low cardiac output

Reveal answer 88) What is unique about the P-P intervals of ventricular dysrhythmias?

1. They are biphasic
2. They are irregular
3. They are non-existent
4. They are regular

Reveal answer 89) QRS complexes that measure 0.12 seconds or greater with a rate between 20 and 40 beats per minute indicate that the impulses causing ventricular depolarization are coming from the:

1. AV node
2. Purkinje fibers (ventricles)
3. SA node
4. interatrial pathways

Reveal answer 90) Which pacemaker rhythms have a pacing spike before P waves on ECG tracing?

1. Atrial pacemaker rhythm
2. Atrioventricular pacemaker
3. Normal sinus rhythm
4. Ventricular pacemaker

Reveal answer 91) Which pacemaker rhythm has a pacing spike before QRS complexes on ECG tracing?

1. Atrial pacemaker rhythm
2. Atrioventricular pacemaker rhythm
3. Normal sinus rhythm
4. Ventricular pacemaker rhythm

Reveal answer 92) Which pacemaker complication shows a pacing spike on ECG tracing but no waveform immediately following it?

1. Failure to capture
2. Failure to sense
3. Normal sinus rhythm
4. Oversensing

Reveal answer 93) During an ECG, you see a wide QRS in lead II. Which lead would help you find the bundle branch block?

1. Lead I
2. Lead III
3. Lead V1
4. Lead V4

Reveal answer 94) When QRS duration is _________ seconds, bundle branch block must be considered.

1. less than 0.06
2. 0.06 to 0.09
3. 0.09 to 0.12
4. more than 0.12

Reveal answer 95) What does the vertical axis on electrocardiogram paper represent?

1. Acceleration
2. Speed
3. Time
4. Voltage

Reveal answer 96) On a normal ECG, which wave is the first wave to show downward deflection?

1. P wave
2. Q wave
3. R wave
4. S wave

Reveal answer 97) Which of these is a common cause of right axis deviation on an ECG?

1. Atrial septal defect
2. Heart attack
3. Right ventricular hypertrophy
4. Ventricular septal defect

Reveal answer 98) Which of these would NOT cause artifacts on an ECG?

1. Coins in the cardiologist's pocket
2. Electrical interference from nearby equipment
3. Loose wires
4. Patient movement

Reveal answer 99) While recording a 12-lead ECG, you notice leads I and II have a lot of artifacts. Which electrode is probably not placed appropriately?

1. Left arm
2. Left leg
3. Right arm
4. Right leg

Reveal answer

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