ONLINE PRACTICE TEST

Pharmacology 3

Prepare with 33 practice questions with answers and explanations.

33 questions Answers & explanations Immediate online access
Online access $9.99
Unlock this practice test Try sample questions
Pharmacology 3

THE PRACTICE TEST

Practice test at a glance

Questions
33
Format
Multiple choice
Access
2 years
Price
$9.99
Answers
Included
Explanations
Included

GET FULL ACCESS

Unlock the full practice test

ONLINE ACCESS

$9.99

Unlock all 33 practice questions, answers and explanations.

  • Immediate access after payment
  • One question at a time in practice mode
  • Jump directly to any question
  • One-time payment

We'll send your purchase information to this address.

Payment is processed by PayPal.

TRY IT FIRST

Sample practice questions

Try some of the questions before buying. Answers and explanations are available with online access.

1) Histamine
  1. is classified as a mast cell release inhibitor
  2. is one of the substances released during an allergic response
  3. is found in white blood cells known as neutrophils
  4. does not cause skin reactions
2) Mast cells:
  1. are only found in the bloodstream
  2. are coated with immunoglobulins that recognize antigens
  3. have no other role than antiallergy in the body
  4. degranulate when the H 1 -receptor is stimulated
3) An acute allergic response
  1. can be blocked only by histamine
  2. cannot be prophylactically treated
  3. is characterized by itching, sneezing, and edema
  4. is only characterized by wheals and urticaria
4) Antihistamines like chlorpheniramine
  1. are the newest, third-generation drugs
  2. are effective and can cause drowsiness
  3. are not found in OTC products
  4. do not have anticholinergic properties
5) Fexofenadine and cetirizine
  1. are more selective for peripheral H 1-receptors
  2. bind the H 1 -receptors in the brain to produce fewer side effects
  3. are more sedating and drying than diphenhydramine
  4. are mast cell stabilizers
6) Mast cell stabilizers work by blocking
  1. histamine after it is released
  2. H 1 -receptors from binding histamine
  3. the release of histamine and other active substances from mast cells
  4. the effect of histamine after it binds
7) Select the first-generation antihistaminic drug.
  1. promethazine
  2. cetirizine
  3. loratadine
  4. levocetirizine
8) The bronchodilator drug that would provide the longest duration of action is
  1. epinephrine (Adrenaline)
  2. ipratropium (Atrovent)
  3. salmeterol (Serevent)
  4. theophylline (Elixophylline)
9) The drug used in the treatment of asthma that blocks the leukotriene receptor is
  1. fluticasone
  2. cromolyn
  3. albuterol
  4. montelukast
10) The only drug class that provides immediate relief of an acute asthmatic attack is
  1. anticholinergics
  2. beta adrenergics
  3. methylxanthines
  4. corticosteroids
11) The mechanism of action of cromolyn sodium is to
  1. produce bronchodilation
  2. increase expectoration of mucus
  3. inhibit release of mast cell mediators
  4. liquefy bronchial secretions
12) The drug used in asthma to block IgE antibodies is
  1. cromolyn
  2. omalizumab
  3. ipratropium
  4. guaifenesin
13) The chemical mediators involved in asthma include
  1. ECF-A
  2. leukotrienes
  3. only prostaglandins and leukotrienes
  4. all of these
14) Parasympathetic activation of the respiratory tract causes which of the following?
  1. bronchodilation
  2. increased cyclic AMP
  3. increased mucus secretion
  4. stimulation of the beta-2 receptors
15) Select the mechanisms of action for terbutaline (a beta-2 agonist).
  1. inhibit release of mediators from mast cells
  2. block beta-2 receptors
  3. activate beta-receptor and relax smooth muscle
  4. only inhibit release of mediators from mast cells and relax smooth muscle
16) Corticosteroids are used in the treatment of asthma in which of the following ways?
  1. decrease activation of arachidonic acid
  2. decrease the expression of pro-inflammatory mediators and production of pro-allergic antibodies
  3. increase the production of pro-allergic antibodies
  4. only decrease activation of arachidonic acid and decrease the production of allergic antibodies
17) The bactericidal antibiotic that interferes with bacterial cell-wall synthesis and that may cause "red man syndrome" if injected too rapidly is
  1. piperacillin
  2. vancomycin
  3. gentamicin
  4. clindamycin
18) The antibiotic whose adverse effects include heartburn, photosensitivity, and possible depression of bone growth in young children is
  1. erythromycin
  2. tetracycline
  3. gentamicin
  4. clindamycin
19) The main pharmacokinetic feature of aminoglycosides is that they are
  1. lipid soluble
  2. well absorbed orally
  3. poorly absorbed from the GI tract and excreted mostly unchanged in the urine if injected
  4. devoid of serious adverse effects
20) Griseofulvin is useful in dermatophytic infections because it
  1. binds to keratin
  2. is fungicidal
  3. forms ergosterol in hair and nails
  4. incorporates itself into fungal RNA
21) Which of the following is NOT correct about antifungal drugs or fungal infection?
  1. systemic infection may occur in patients who are receiving drugs to suppress their immune system
  2. warts are an example of a dermatophytic fungal infection
  3. the majority of antifungal drugs interfere with fungal cell-wall integrity
  4. amphotericin B is associated with serious renal toxicity
22) Which antifungal drug is matched with its correct mechanism of action?
  1. echinocandins inhibit polysaccharide (glucan) synthesis in the cell wall
  2. flucytosine binds to the cell membrane
  3. ticonazole is an antimetabolite for fungal RNA
  4. amphotericin B binds to a cytochrome P450-dependent enzyme
23) Which drug is effective against systemic viral infections?
  1. butenafine
  2. gentian violet
  3. clotrimazole
  4. enfuvirtide
24) The mechanisms of action for antiviral medications include
  1. changing cell-wall synthesis
  2. binding to ergosterol
  3. inhibiting cell mitosis
  4. inhibiting neuraminidase
25) Which of the following is NOT true of the treatment for viral infections?
  1. immunity can be gained through the attenuated live virus
  2. treatment can be given via an intranasal spray
  3. the vaccines are contraindicated in people allergic to eggs
  4. effective treatment occurs only with respiratory drug administration
26) The antimetabolite that blocks DNA synthesis by interfering with folic acid is
  1. mercaptopurine
  2. fluorouracil
  3. methotrexate
  4. cytarabine
27) The drug that binds to mitotic tubules to cause metaphase arrest is
  1. doxorubicin
  2. asparaginase
  3. etoposide
  4. vincristine
28) Enzyme inhibition of aromatase is the mechanism of action of
  1. tamoxifen
  2. anastrozole
  3. leuprolide
  4. goserelin
29) The monoclonal antibody that inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and new blood vessel formation is
  1. imatinib
  2. trastuzumab
  3. bevacizumab
  4. gefitinib
30) Which of the following is true of chemotherapy?
  1. one of the early goals of chemotherapy is remission
  2. antineoplastic drugs only attack cancerous cells
  3. drug resistance is increased with combination therapy
  4. it is the primary form of treatment for solid tumors
31) Select the correct statements for alkylating drugs.
  1. decrease cells' ability to synthesize proteins
  2. are cell-cycle nonspecific
  3. bind irreversibly with nucleic acids and are cell-cycle nonspecific
  4. all statements are true
32) The mechanisms of actions for the antimetabolites include
  1. blocking DNA synthesis
  2. forming abnormal nucleotides
  3. preventing DNA replication and forming abnormal nucleotides
  4. all of these
33) Select the correct statements about the plant extract treatments for cancer.
  1. they can bind to microtubules
  2. they induce enzymes
  3. they increase DNA strand breakage
  4. they can bind to microtubules, and they increase DNA strand breakage

Ready for all 33 questions?

Unlock the full practice test

About the