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Pharmacology Test 1

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Pharmacology Test 1

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1) The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion is known as:
  1. Pharmacotheraputics
  2. Pharmacodynamics
  3. Pharmacokinetics
  4. Pharmacy
2) The medical situation when a particular drug should not be administered is referred to as
  1. side effect
  2. adverse effect
  3. drug allergy
  4. contraindication
3) An unusual or unexpected drug reaction by an individual is known as
  1. toxic effect
  2. antagonism
  3. idiosyncrasy
  4. side effect
4) Th e proprietary drug name supplied by a pharmaceutical company is also referred to as the
  1. generic name
  2. over the counter name
  3. trade name
  4. chemical name
5) The time from drug administration to the first observable drug effect is known as the
  1. duration of action
  2. maximal response
  3. ceiling effect
  4. onset of action
6) a drug that has the potential for abuse and is regulated by the Drug Enforcement agency is classified as a
  1. poison
  2. OTC drug
  3. prescription drug
  4. controlled substance
7) the study of the amount of drug administered to produce a therapeutic effect
  1. posology
  2. toxicology
  3. pharmacodynamics
  4. pharmacotherapeutics
8) a medication that does not require a physicians service to obtain is referred to as
  1. trade
  2. nonproprietary
  3. nonprescription
  4. brand
9) which of the following could be categorized as an adverse reaction?
  1. drug allergy
  2. teratogenicity
  3. carcinogenicity
  4. all of these
10) the time a drug continues to produce effects is its
  1. maximal response
  2. ceiling effect
  3. onset of action
  4. duration of action
11) drug administration route demonstrating slowest onset of action
  1. inhalation
  2. transdermal
  3. intramuscular
  4. sublingual
12) in order for drugs to cross the blood brain barrier they must be
  1. ionized
  2. positively charged
  3. water soluble
  4. lipid soluble
13) first pass metabolism refers to the metabolism of drugs in the
  1. kidney
  2. blood vessels
  3. liver
  4. heart
14) Drugs that have demonstrated teratogenic effects in women are classified as Pregnancy Category
  1. B
  2. C
  3. D
  4. X
15) when a drug increases the rate of drug metabolism of other drugs, it is called
  1. first pass metabolism
  2. enzyme induction
  3. enzyme inhibition
  4. enterohepatic cycling
16) rate of drug absorption increased by
  1. water solubility
  2. positively charged drug
  3. negatively charged drug
  4. lipid solubility
17) factor of individual variation is dependent upon patients attitude toward treatment
  1. weight
  2. age
  3. genetic variation
  4. placebo effect
18) FDA pregnancy category that is the safest
  1. Category A
  2. Category B
  3. Category C
  4. Category D
19) A 45-year-old female shop assistant is treated for heartburn with omeprazole. She notes that the effect of a dose of omeprazole lasts much longer than that of a dose of the antacid drug calcium carbonate she had previously taken. The active metabolite of omeprazole binds covalently and irreversibly to a molecular structure involved in releasing protons into the gastric juice. Drugs that modify their target structures through this mechanism are called
  1. suicide substrates.
  2. orphan drugs.
  3. protein drugs.
  4. competitive antagonists.
20) A 56-year-old man with chest pain is diagnosed with stable angina and treated with several drugs including nitroglycerin. Every day he has to discontinue nitroglycerin for some hours to re-establish reactivity of his body to the drug. The clinical observation of a rapidly decreasing response to nitroglycerin after administration of just a few doses is called
  1. idiosyncrasy.
  2. tachyphylaxis.
  3. heterologous desensitization.
  4. refractoriness.
21) Prolonged receptor stimulation during chronic drug therapy may induce cells to endocytose and sequester drug receptors in endocytic vesicles. This molecular mechanism is called
  1. tachyphylaxis
  2. inactivation
  3. desensitization
  4. downregulation
22) lowers efficacy
  1. -competitive antagonist
  2. -partial agonist
  3. - inverse agonist
  4. -share receptor
23) A 16-year-old female with a history of goiter is admitted with fever, profuse sweating, tachyarrhythmia, hypertension, abdominal pain, and anxiety. Based on a working diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, she is started on a beta-adrenoceptor antagonist that has a very short half-life. Regarding the mechanism by which the drug ameliorates the toxic effects of excessive thyroxine levels, the drug acts as:
  1. a physiologic antagonist.
  2. a competitive receptor antagonist.
  3. a noncompetitive receptor antagonist.
  4. a partial agonist.
24) the main pharmacologic effect of norepinephrine on alpha 1 receptors is
  1. increased heart rate
  2. broncodilation
  3. vasoconstriction
  4. contraction of urinary bladder
25) The pharmacologic effect of IV metaraminol (an alpha-1 drug) is
  1. vasodilation
  2. vasoconstriction
  3. cardiac stimulation
  4. cardiac depression
26) Epinephrine stimulates
  1. alpha-2 receptors
  2. beta-1 receptors
  3. beta-2 receptors
  4. all of these
27) At therapeutic doses, albuterol stimulates
  1. alpha-1 receptors
  2. alpha-2 receptors
  3. beta-1 receptors
  4. beta-2 receptors
28) Metoprolol is classified as a(n)
  1. alpha-blocker
  2. nonselective beta-blocker
  3. selective beta-1 blocker
  4. adrenergic neuronal blocker
29) The mechanism of action of methyldopa is
  1. increased release of NE from adrenergic nerve ending
  2. alpha-1 receptor blocker
  3. beta-1 receptor blocker
  4. formation of a false transmitter in adrenergic nerve ending
30) The drug of choice to treat acute allergic reactions is
  1. norepinephrine
  2. phenylephrine
  3. pseudoephedrine
  4. epinephrine
31) Which of the following are actions of nonselective beta-adrenergic blocking drugs?
  1. decreasing force of myocardial contraction
  2. vasoconstriction of skeletal muscle blood vessels
  3. lowering of blood pressure
  4. all of these
32) The actions of epinephrine (EPI) include which of the following?
  1. vasoconstriction
  2. relaxation of uterus
  3. increased heart rate
  4. all of these
33) Parasympathetic receptors located on the membranes of the internal organs are classified as
  1. alpha-1
  2. nicotinic-neural (Nn)
  3. nicotinic-muscle (Nm)
  4. muscarinic
34) Select the pharmacologic effect produced by cholinergic drugs.
  1. increased heart rate
  2. increased gastrointestinal motility
  3. decreased urination
  4. pupillary dilation
35) Physostigmine (Eserine ) is classified as a(n)
  1. direct-acting cholinergic drug
  2. reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
  3. irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
  4. anticholinergic drug
36) Symptoms of cholinergic drug overdosage include
  1. increased urination
  2. diarrhea
  3. sweating
  4. all of these
37) Anticholinergic effects include all of the following except
  1. bronchodilation
  2. increased heart rate
  3. increased gastrointestinal activity
  4. decreased respiratory secretions
38) The antidote for atropine poisoning is
  1. scopolamine
  2. bethanechol
  3. neostigmine
  4. physostigmine
39) Pick the correct pharmacological effect(s) of direct-acting cholinergic drugs.
  1. urinary retention
  2. increased heart rate
  3. bronchodilation
  4. none of these
40) Which of the following would be a preferred treatment for overactive bladder?
  1. neostigmine
  2. tolterodine
  3. physostigmine
  4. bethanechol
41) Which of the following is correct about the nicotinic-muscle (Nm) receptor blocking drugs?
  1. the mechanism of action is the same as represented by dantrolene
  2. all of these drugs depolarize the muscle fiber before blockade occurs
  3. calcium ions are released from the storage sites
  4. there are two groups in this class: either depolarizing agents or nondepolarizing agents
42) Succinylcholine is associated with which of the following actions?
  1. stimulation of the actin and myosin muscle fibrils directly
  2. liver damage because the drug is metabolized only by the liver
  3. peripheral neuromuscular receptor blockade after stimulating the Nm receptors
  4. longer duration of action than vecuronium
43) In the presynaptic terminal of neuronal cells, the immediate trigger to release a neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft is
  1. a drop in cytosolic Ca2+.
  2. a drop in cytosolic K+.
  3. a rise in cytosolic Ca2+.
  4. a drop in cytosolic Mg2+.
44) A 17-year-old girl with suspected intrinsic asthma but nearly normal results on spirometry and flow volume testing takes a methacholine provocative test. The mechanism of action of methacholine most closely resembles that of
  1. hemicholinium.
  2. acetylcholine.
  3. edrophonium.
  4. succinylcholine.
45) In the case above, Physostigmine is preferred over neostigmine because:
  1. -it is a nonpolar compound that penetrates the CNS more easily than neostigmine.
  2. -it has a shorter half-life than neostigmine, making it more useful for emergency treatment.
  3. -it has a longer half-life than neostigmine, better matching the half-life of atropine.
  4. -it is eliminated via the kidneys, and dosage is not critical with compromised liver function.
46) Which of the following is a correct statement?
  1. opioid analgesics produce little or no respiration depression with long-term use of analgesic doses
  2. opioid antagonists include endorphins
  3. all drugs in the opioid analgesic group are controlled substances, Schedule III
  4. in low doses, opioids produce nausea and vomiting
47) Oxycodone in therapeutic doses can stimulate mu receptors to cause
  1. hyperventilation and deep breathing
  2. bronchospasms
  3. spasmogenic activity in the ureters and sphincter muscle
  4. relaxation of the skeletal muscles controlling posture (spasmolytic)
48) Opioid analgesics are used in which of the following settings?
  1. induction of Monitored Anesthesia Care and treatment of chronic severe pain
  2. routine treatment of migraine
  3. unmonitored treatment of chronic severe pain
  4. analgesia for patients with paralytic ileus
49) Which of the following is a correct statement?
  1. endorphin is an abbreviation from the terms meaning inside the organ
  2. endogenous opioid receptors include mu, alpha-2 adrenergic, and delta receptors
  3. agonism means the drug occupies the receptor and causes a response
  4. opioid agonism means the drug occupies the receptor and stimulates the release of endorphins
50) Which of the following drugs has a recognized medical therapy and does not interact with opioid receptors?
  1. heroin
  2. codeine
  3. methadone
  4. acetaminophen
51) All opioid analgesics are associated with which of the following?
  1. reversal of respiratory depression from barbiturates
  2. use only for the relief of acute pain
  3. cough suppression alone or in combination with other analgesics over-the-counter
  4. tolerance develops to the analgesic response
52) Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic that
  1. can be used for relief of cancer pain
  2. has many formulations (lozenge, film) because it is used routinely in dental surgery
  3. induces neuropathic pain
  4. primarily works on peripheral nerve endings rather than higher centers
53) Sharp pain is transmitted through which type of nerve fibers?
  1. unmyelinated
  2. myelinated A-delta
  3. CTZ
  4. C fibers
54) Opioid drugs are derived from which of the following?
  1. opium
  2. chemical synthesis
  3. alkaloids
  4. all of these
55) Select the adverse effects of opioid analgesics.
  1. constipation
  2. polyuria
  3. convulsions
  4. mydriasis
56) During tolerance to opioid analgesics, the following is happening.
  1. fewer receptors are available to produce a response
  2. increased pain by the patient requires greater doses of medication
  3. the body reacts to removal of the opioid analgesic
  4. histamine release causes hypotension
57) What is the best reason for using a balanced anesthesia strategy?
  1. producing complementary effects using a few drugs avoids unnecessary intense (deep) CNS depression with one anesthetic to achieve the same effect
  2. the concentration of volatile anesthetic in the alveoli is balanced against the amount of anesthetic in the blood
  3. less monitoring of anesthesia is required
  4. fewer patients experience emergence delirium
58) Why is propofol a drug of choice for induction and maintenance of anesthesia?
  1. it is a potent analgesic at all doses
  2. it slowly brings the patient to the stage of surgical anesthesia
  3. it is a complete anesthetic with a quick onset of action and recovery period uncomplicated by nausea and vomiting
  4. it is administered by special vaporizer to avoid mask delivery
59) Which of the following is NOT correct?
  1. ketamine causes chloride ions to flow out of the nerve cell by binding to GABA
  2. propofol binds to the GABA A receptor and enhances hyperpolarization of the neuron
  3. barbiturates and propofol act on the receptor and directly on the chloride channel
  4. potent anesthetics enhance GABA A receptor function
60) Which of the following major routes remove etomidate and midazolam from the body?
  1. hepatic metabolism and renal excretion
  2. excretion through the lungs and sweating
  3. accumulation in fat tissue and redistribution
  4. increased salivation and bile production
61) Select the types of anesthesia in which there is no loss of consciousness.
  1. local anesthesia
  2. Monitored Anesthesia Care
  3. general anesthesia
  4. balanced anesthesia
62) Choose the correct class of general anesthetics.
  1. intravenous
  2. dissociative anesthesia
  3. oral
  4. topical
63) Which drugs would be used as adjunct therapy to anesthesia?
  1. antiarrhythmics
  2. antianxiety, short-acting CNS depressants like midazolam
  3. anticholinergics
  4. all of these
64) Barbiturate and benzodiazepine hypnotics both
  1. increase NREM stage 2 sleep
  2. increase REM sleep
  3. increase NREM stage 4 sleep
  4. cause REM rebound
65) Disadvantages to the use of barbiturate hypnotics include
  1. development of drug tolerance
  2. risk of drug dependency
  3. disruption of normal stages of sleep
  4. suppression of REM sleep
66) The correct statement concerning the use of hypnotic drugs is
  1. zolpidem binds to the GABA receptor
  2. benzodiazepines increase chloride channel opening
  3. barbiturates block the GABA receptor
  4. ramelteon is a melatonin antagonist
67) Flurazepam
  1. is classified as long-acting
  2. forms active metabolites
  3. may cause next-day residual effects
  4. increases chloride ion influx
68) Eszopiclone
  1. is classified as a benzodiazepine
  2. has a half-life of 1-2 hours
  3. increases total sleep time
  4. is used as an antianxiety agent
69) Zolpidem
  1. binds to the alpha-1 subunit of the GABA A receptor
  2. is useful as a muscle relaxant
  3. has a slow onset of action
  4. is useful as an anticonvulsant
70) The main pharmacologic effect of the SSRIs is
  1. increase levels of norepinephrine
  2. increase levels of serotonin
  3. decrease levels of norepinephrine
  4. decrease levels of serotonin
71) The pharmacologic effects of TCAs include
  1. antihistaminic
  2. anticholinergic
  3. sedation
  4. all of these
72) The serotonin syndrome is mainly associated with overdosage of
  1. tricyclic antidepressants
  2. monoamine oxidase inhibitors
  3. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
  4. psychomotor stimulants
73) The main pharmacologic effects of TCAs on neurotransmitter activity is
  1. increase norepinephrine
  2. increase acetylcholine
  3. increase serotonin
  4. increase norepinephrine and serotonin only
74) Venlafaxine (Effexor) is classified as
  1. MAOI
  2. TCA
  3. SSRI
  4. SNRI
75) Adverse effects of TCAs include
  1. cardiac arrhythmias
  2. convulsions
  3. postural hypotension
  4. all of these
76) Which of these represents the drug that is not correctly matched with its drug classification?
  1. paroxetine—SSRI
  2. amitriptyline—TCA
  3. methylphenidate—MAOI
  4. duloxetine—SNRI
77) Which drug requires a dietary restriction for foods containing tyramine?
  1. nortriptyline (TCA)
  2. tranylcypromine (MAOI)
  3. venlafaxine (SNRI)
  4. fluoxetine (SSRI)
78) The site of action of diazepam (Valium) to relieve anxiety is the
  1. spinal cord
  2. limbic system
  3. reticular formation
  4. basal ganglia
79) The antianxiety effect of buspirone (BuSpar) is associated with
  1. stimulation of DA receptors
  2. stimulation of serotonin receptors
  3. blockage of serotonin receptors
  4. blockade of dopamine receptors
80) Flumazenil (Romazicon) is used to reverse the depressant effects of
  1. clozapine
  2. alprazolam (benzodiazepine)
  3. haloperidol
  4. chlorpromazine
81) What are the main areas at which benzodiazepines exert their effects?
  1. cerebral cortex
  2. reticular formation
  3. spinal cord
  4. all of these
82) Symptoms of Parkinson's disease would be increased by
  1. treatment with some antipsychotic drugs
  2. decreased levels of dopamine
  3. drug administration after a high-protein meal
  4. all of these
83) The drug classified as a dopamine receptor agonist is
  1. amantadine
  2. benztropine
  3. ropinirole
  4. entacapone (COMT)
84) Select the drugs that increase the duration of action of DA and/or the amount of levodopa that enters the brain.
  1. tolcapone
  2. selegiline
  3. rasagiline
  4. all of these
85) In Parkinson's disease, slowed movements are defined as
  1. rigidity
  2. bradykinesia
  3. tremor
  4. dystonia
86) Sinemet is the trade name of a drug combination that contains levodopa and
  1. carbidopa and entacapone
  2. entacapone
  3. carbidopa
  4. selegiline
87) The COMT inhibitor that has been associated with causing liver toxicity is
  1. ropinirole
  2. entacapone
  3. pramipexole
  4. tolcapone
88) Select the symptoms of Parkinson's disease
  1. increased sweating
  2. salivary drooling
  3. movement disturbances
  4. all of these
89) Which of the following drugs would be used to decrease the actions of ACH?
  1. amantadine
  2. levodopa
  3. bromocriptine
  4. procyclidine
90) Select the mechanisms by which levodopa works.
  1. converted to dopamine in the substantia nigra neurons
  2. increases level of dopamine in the brain
  3. peripheral metabolism to DA inhibited by carbidopa
  4. all of these
91) Apomorphine is classified as
  1. MAO-B inhibitor
  2. dopamine receptor agonist
  3. COMT inhibitor
  4. anticholinergic drug
92) The muscarinic receptor that couples to G proteins responsible for adenylyl cyclase inhibition and plays a key role in cholinergic input to the heart is classified as
  1. muscarinic-M1 receptor.
  2. muscarinic-M2 receptor.
  3. muscarinic-M3 receptor.
  4. muscarinic-M4 receptor.
93) Which of these is a major determinant for the selectivity of a drug?
  1. Its target receptor ligand affinity
  2. Its target receptor cell-type distribution
  3. Its ionic interactions
  4. Its hydrogen bonding

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