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100 Special Pharmacology questions

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1) Which groups of antibacterials have a bacteriostatic effect?
  1. Tetracyclines
  2. Sulfonamides
  3. Beta-lactams
  4. Amphenicols
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2) What is the mechanism of action of beta-lactamase antibiotics based on?
  1. The binding of 50s subunit of bacterial ribosomes
  2. The binding on the specific binding protein
  3. The inhibition the active site of the transpeptidase enzyme that cross-links the peptidoglycan strands
  4. Activation of autolytic enzymes (inactivation of inhibitor)
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3) Cephalosporins are indicated to treat:
  1. Meningitis
  2. Urinary tract infections
  3. Osteomyelitis and arthritis
  4. Pneumonia
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4) Which of the amphenicols are used to treat infections of the respiratory and gastrointestinal tract?
  1. Chloramphenicol
  2. Thiamphenicol
  3. Florenicol
  4. Azidamphenicol
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5) Tetracyclines are indicated in:
  1. Local, organs and systemic infections
  2. Nephritis and hepatitis
  3. Osteomyelitis and arthritis
  4. Yeast infections
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6) Lincomycin and clindamycin belong to:
  1. Macrolides
  2. Aminoglycosides
  3. Lincosamides
  4. Tetracyclines
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7) Rifampicin (rifampin) is used to treat:
  1. Mastitis in cows
  2. Chronic granulomatous skin infection in dog
  3. Dysentery in swine
  4. Mycoplasma infections in poultry
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8) Sulfonamides are the structural analogs of?
  1. Deoxyribonucleic acid
  2. Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
  3. Folic acid
  4. Clavulanic acid
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9) Quinolones are contraindicated?
  1. In geriatric animals
  2. In animals with pyodermia
  3. In animals with known or suspected cns disorders
  4. In animals in pregnancy and during lactation
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10) Which groups do antihelmintics belong to?
  1. Antiprotozoals
  2. Antitrematodals
  3. Antinematodal
  4. Anticestodal
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11) Metronidazole and dimetrazole are used to treat:
  1. Coccidiosis
  2. Antitrichomoniasis and antihistomoniasis
  3. Metritis
  4. CNS disorders
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12) Mebendazol acts as an:
  1. Antinematodal agent
  2. Antitrematodal agent
  3. Anticestodal agent
  4. Antiectoparasitical agent
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13) Macrocyclic lactones are not effective against?
  1. Nematodes
  2. Trematodes
  3. Cestodes
  4. Ectoparasites
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14) Which of the following antiparasitic drugs are contraindicated for some dog breeds (collie, sheltie, long-haired whipped, australian shepherd)?
  1. Moxidectin
  2. Nitroscanate
  3. Ivermectin
  4. Eprinomectin
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15) Cypermetrine is an?
  1. Antinematodical
  2. Antitrematodical
  3. Anticestodical
  4. Antiectoparasitical (pesticide) agent
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16) Which of the following agents is not a local anesthetic?
  1. Procaine
  2. Tetracaine
  3. Metacaine
  4. Tiletamine
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17) Azaperone is used as:
  1. Anticonvulsive
  2. Neuroleptic
  3. Injection anesthetic
  4. Ataractic agent
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18) Alpha-2-adrenergic agonistic sedatives are?
  1. Diazepam and zolazepam (benzodiazepines)
  2. Detomidine and medetomidine
  3. Xylazine and romifidine
  4. Azaperone and droperidol (neuroleptic and antiemetic)
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19) Smooth muscle seizures (GIT) are relaxed by:
  1. Meloxicam (analgesic)
  2. Atipamezole (antisedan)
  3. Metamizole
  4. Triamcinolone (yeast and bac. Ear infection)
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20) What does Benazepril do?
  1. Stimulates the dopamine receptors
  2. Stimulates the production of surfactante
  3. Inhibits the angiotensin converting enzyme
  4. Inhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase (pde)
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21) What do Mucolytics do?
  1. Break down respiratory mucus and enhance clearance
  2. Decrease the frequency and intensity of cough
  3. Stimulate the removal of mucus by coughing (expectorants)
  4. Stimulate the ?2-adrenergic receptors in bronchial smooth muscle
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22) The steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?
  1. Inhitbit the synthesis of cytokines (decrease)
  2. Inhibit the release of inflammatory mediators
  3. Inhibit the enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase
  4. Inhibit the enzyme hyaluronsynthetase (decrease)
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23) Flunixin is indicated in?
  1. Bronchopneumonia
  2. Diarrhea
  3. Acute and chronic inflammatory disease of skeletal apparatus
  4. Heart failure
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24) Oxytocin is indicated?
  1. In atony of uterus after parturition
  2. In agalactia
  3. In spasms of uterus
  4. As a protective of pregnancy
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25) Chlorhexidine is used as:
  1. Anesthetic
  2. Antiflogistic
  3. Antiseptic
  4. Antiparazitic agent
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26) Amoxicillin and ampicillin are pencillins:
  1. With a narrow spectrum
  2. With an extended spectrum
  3. With penicillinase-resistance
  4. With a broad spectrum
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27) Tetracyclines?
  1. Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes
  2. Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 50s subunit of microbial ribosomes
  3. Inhibit the synthesis of cell wall
  4. Inhibit the enzyme transpeptidase
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28) Valnemuline is used to treat:
  1. Vulvovaginitis in mares
  2. Dysentery in swine
  3. Acute masitis of cows
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29) Bacitracine is used to treat:
  1. Upper respiratory tract infections
  2. Skin, ear and eye infections
  3. Gastrointestinal infections
  4. Bovine mastitis
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30) What is the effect of quinolones?
  1. Bacteriostatic
  2. Bactericidal
  3. Bacteriostatic in low doses
  4. Bactericidal in high doses
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31) Which of the listed agents are used to control coccidiosis?
  1. Metronidazole, dimetridazole, ornidazole
  2. Homidium, imidocarb, quinuronium
  3. Monensin, lasalocid, salinomycin
  4. Diclazuril, nicarbazin, robenidine
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32) Febantel is an:
  1. Antinematodical
  2. Antitrematocidal
  3. Anticestodical
  4. Antiprotozoal agent
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33) Which of the following belong to ectoparasiticides?
  1. Benzimidazoles
  2. Macrocyclic lactones
  3. Halogenated salicylanilides
  4. Ionophores
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34) Amitraz is effective against?
  1. Fleas and lice
  2. Ticks
  3. Mange in cattle, pig and dog
  4. Tapeworm
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35) Halothane is used to:
  1. Induce anesthesia
  2. Alleviate the joints pain
  3. Regulate of cardiac arrhytmias
  4. Improve the hepatic metabolism
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36) What is Propofol?
  1. General IV anesthesia
  2. Neuroleptic
  3. Parasympathomimetic
  4. Sedative
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37) Drugs suppressing fear, tension and aggression in animals are called:
  1. Sedatives
  2. Anticonvulsives
  3. Tranquilisers
  4. Analeptics
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38) Romifidine is used as a:
  1. Neuroleptic
  2. Anticonvulsive
  3. Sedative
  4. Spasmolytic drug
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39) Which of these is used as an antitussive agent?
  1. Dextromethorphan
  2. Clenbuterol
  3. Acetylcysteine
  4. Codeine
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40) What is the effect of meloxicam?
  1. Anti-inflammatory
  2. Antipyretic
  3. Analgetic
  4. Chondroprotective
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41) What do salivary stimulants do?
  1. Increase the appetite in animal to consume feed and promote digestion
  2. Relieve or stop the symptoms of diarrhea
  3. Operate supplementation in the disorders of energy supply precursors in digestive tract of polygastric animals
  4. Stimulate the production and secretion of bile, pancreatic and gastric enzyme
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42) Frequency and force of uterine contraction is stimulated by:
  1. Prolactin
  2. Oxytocin
  3. Estradiol
  4. Ergometrine
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43) Which of the following agents is effective against dermatophytes (ringworm)?
  1. Tannic acid
  2. Ketoconazole
  3. Itraconazole
  4. Eniloconazole
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44) Iodophors are used as:
  1. Anticoccidial agents
  2. Emetic agents
  3. Antiseptic agents
  4. Chondroprotecive agents
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45) Tocopherol is indicated for:
  1. Softening of the bone
  2. Visual disturbance
  3. Megaloblastic anemia
  4. Myodystrophy
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46) Which of the following antimicrobials influence the permeability of cell membranes?
  1. Sulfonamides
  2. Tetracyclines
  3. Polyene antibiotics
  4. Aminoglycosides
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47) Penicillinase-resistant penicillins are?
  1. Ampicillin, oxacillin, cloxacillin
  2. Carbecillin, cloxacilli, dicloxacillin
  3. Cloxacillin, dicloxacillin, nafcillin
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48) Streptomycin, neomycin and gentamycin belong to?
  1. Macrolides
  2. Aminoglycosides
  3. Tetracyclines
  4. Penicillins
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49) Tetracyclines have the following unwanted effects?
  1. GIT abnormalities
  2. Hepatotoxicity
  3. Dental hypoplasia, bone deformities
  4. All of the above
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50) Tiamulin and valnemulin belong to?
  1. Ansamycins
  2. Diterpene antibiotic
  3. Extended-spectrum penicillins
  4. Macrolides
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51) Agents potentiating sulfonamides are?
  1. Trimethoprim, ormetoprim, diaveridine
  2. Sulbactam, clavulanic acid
  3. Paba, clavulanic acid
  4. Paba, dihydrofolic acid
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52) Which of these agents are not quinolones?
  1. Difloxacin
  2. Marbofloxacin
  3. Cephalexin
  4. Cephalotin
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53) Praziquantel is effective against:
  1. Cestodes (tapeworms)
  2. Fleas and lices
  3. Trematodes
  4. Nematodes
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54) Which of the following general anaesthesics belong to inhalants?
  1. Thiopental
  2. Desfluran
  3. Ketamine
  4. Propofol
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55) Which of the following local anaesthetics is used for infiltrative and regional anesthesia?
  1. Procaine
  2. Lidocaine
  3. Ketamine
  4. All of the above
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56) Atropine is indicated:
  1. In premedication of anesthesia
  2. Spasmolytic agent
  3. In heart arrhythmia
  4. To treat glaucoma
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57) Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?
  1. Morphine
  2. Buprenoophine
  3. Naloxone
  4. Butorphanol
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58) Which of the following property combination is peculiar (special) to the majority of NSAIDs?
  1. Antihistaminic, antipyretic, analgesic
  2. Immunodepressive, anti-inflammatory, analgesic
  3. Antipyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatory
  4. Anti-inflammatory, immunodepressive, antihistaminic
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59) Ketoprofen and carprofen are?
  1. Antitussive drugs
  2. Anti-inflammatory drugs
  3. Fungicidal drugs
  4. Chondroprotectives
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60) Aluminum silicate (kaolin) is used?
  1. As a sedative
  2. As a treatment of heart arrhytmias
  3. As an antacid (line stomach and relieve heartburn)
  4. As an antiseptic
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61) Which of the following agents are indicated for synchronisation of oestrus?
  1. Gonadorelin
  2. Altrenogest
  3. Melengestrol
  4. Nandrolone
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62) What does iron deficiency cause?
  1. Anemia
  2. Hypogonadism
  3. Increase of GIT peristatic
  4. Osteopathies
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63) Antibiotic inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis is?
  1. Erythtromycin
  2. Tylosin
  3. Rifampin
  4. Rifaximin
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64) What is the effect of lincosamides?
  1. Bacteriostatic
  2. Bacteriocidal
  3. Bacteriostatic in low doses
  4. Bbacteriocidal in high doses
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65) Sulfonamides have the following unwanted side effects?
  1. Hematopoietic disturbances
  2. Crystal urea
  3. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
  4. All of the above
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66) What drugs belong to quinolones?
  1. Oxacyline
  2. Flumequine
  3. Enrofloxacin
  4. Orbifloxacin
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67) What are ionopores effective against?
  1. Coccidia
  2. Round worm
  3. Tape worm or flukes
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68) Levamizole, netomidine, febantel are?
  1. Antinematodal
  2. Anti protozoan
  3. Antitrematodal
  4. Anticestodal
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69) Which of the following are NOT macrocyclic lactones?
  1. Doramectin
  2. Selamectin
  3. Neobimin
  4. Ciosantel
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70) Carbaryl and propoxur are used against?
  1. Nematodes
  2. Trematodes
  3. Cestoda
  4. Ectoparasites
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71) The state of general anesthesia usually includes?
  1. Analgesia
  2. Loss of consciousness inhibition of sensory and autonomic reflexes
  3. Amnesia
  4. All of the above
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72) Pancuronium and vecuronium produce?
  1. Motility of GIT
  2. Muscle relaxant
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73) Indicate the sedative drug which is a phenothiazine derivative?
  1. Xylazine
  2. Apipamisole
  3. Acepromazine
  4. Chlorpromazine
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74) Morphine causes the following effects, EXCEPT for:
  1. Constipation
  2. Dilatation of biliary duct
  3. Coronary vasoconstriction
  4. Miosis
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75) What of the following agents are NOT NSAIDs?
  1. Sulfasalazine
  2. Carprofen
  3. Ketoprofen
  4. Triamcinolone
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76) What diuretic agent is used to treat hypertension?
  1. Benazepril
  2. Hydrochlorotiazide
  3. Captopril
  4. Prazosine
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77) Theopylline is indicated?
  1. In the management of intrathoracic collapsing trachea
  2. For cough suppression
  3. Treatment of productive cough
  4. To stimulate respiration after anesthesia
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78) which laxative drug belongs to neuromuscular purgatives?
  1. Magnesium sulfate
  2. Dihydroxyant
  3. Dimeticonum
  4. Carbachol
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79) What is used to release spasm of smooth muscles in GIT?
  1. Anocoline
  2. Atropine
  3. Scopolamine
  4. Papaverine
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80) All of the following agents are esterogens, except for:
  1. Mestranol
  2. Diethyl stilbosterol
  3. Altrenogest
  4. Estradiol
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81) Which of the following is a fatsoluble (lipophilic) vitamin?
  1. Asorbic acid (Vit C)
  2. Tocopherol (Vit E)
  3. Thiamine (Vit B1)
  4. Riboflavine (Vit B2)
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82) Which vitamin is an antisterility vitamin?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin E
  3. Vitamin B7
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83) Which medication can be given and will not break down in the gastric juice?
  1. Penicillin V (phenoxymethylpenicillin)
  2. Oxacillin and cloxacillin
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84) Codeine is used for:
  1. Coughing treatment
  2. Tracheal collapse
  3. Antitussive
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85) Which of the following are effects of atropine?
  1. Spasmolytic
  2. Intestinal hypermotility
  3. Salivation
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86) What is Rifampin's mode of action?
  1. Nucelic acid inhibition
  2. Protein synthesis inhibition
  3. Damage of cell envelope
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87) What is beta-lactam's mode of action?
  1. Nucelic acid inhibition
  2. Protein synthesis inhibition
  3. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
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88) Quinolones are?
  1. Bacteristatic
  2. Bactericidal
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89) Which drug is a natural progestin?
  1. Estradiol
  2. Estrogen
  3. Progesterone
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90) Cytochrome 450 mechanism. What does pinching of the ribosomes from the endoplasmic reticulum do?
  1. Cytochrome p450 are responsible for most of phase I reactions in drug detoxification.
  2. Metabolism
  3. Detoxification
  4. Increase ph
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91) Which is not considered pharmacokinetics?
  1. Absorption
  2. Distribution
  3. Mechanism of drug action
  4. Elimination
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92) Which of these is an osmotic laxative?
  1. Magnesium salt (Glauber salt)
  2. Sodium salts (Epsom salts)
  3. Sugar alcohol (mannitol and sorbitol)
  4. All of the above
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93) What are the mosot influencial factors on capillary diffusion?
  1. Protein levels
  2. Hydrostatic pressure
  3. Net filtration pressure
  4. All of the above
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94) What do antiparasitic drugs do?
  1. Interior the parasites reproductive cycle
  2. Paralysis of the parasites peripheral muscles
  3. Inhibit the energy production
  4. All of the above
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95) Which of these medications is an antiemetic?
  1. Amoxicillin
  2. Dimethicone
  3. Metoclopramide
  4. Xylazine
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