X

Report a problem



AMT MT Certification Exam: Practice Test 1

Number of questions: 210

This is a preview. Unlock all the questions and answers for just $39.99.

Buy now

About the AMT MT exam

The AMT MT (Medical Technologist) certification exam is set by the American Medical Technologists (AMT). Passing the exam proves to employers that you can work in a laboratory as a medical technologist.

The exam contains 210 questions and lasts 3.5 hours. All questions are multiple-choice.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the AMT MT exam.

This page contains 210 practice questions divided into the nine sections of the exam: 1. General Laboratory, 2. Chemistry, 3. Hematology, 4. Coagulation and Hemostasis, 5. Immunology and Serology, 6. Immunohematology, 7. Blood Banking and Transfusion Services, 8. Microbiology, and 9. Urinalysis and Body Fluids.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Sections

  1. General Laboratory
  2. Chemistry
  3. Hematology
  4. Coagulation and Hemostasis
  5. Immunology and Serology
  6. Immunohematology
  7. Blood Banking and Transfusion Services
  8. Microbiology
  9. Urinalysis and Body Fluids

Section 1: General Laboratory

1.1) Which of these would be most likely to allow reflux to occur during venipuncture?
  1. Filling the stopper end of the tube first
  2. Lateral redirection of the needle
  3. Releasing the tourniquet on blood flow
  4. Using the wrong order of draw
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) Which vacutainer tube is used for trace metal analysis?
  1. Dark blue
  2. Green
  3. Orange
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) Which of these vacutainer additives provides a physical barrier to prevent glycolysis?
  1. EDTA
  2. Silica
  3. Sodium fluoride
  4. Thixotropic gel
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) Serum specimens are collected in which vacutainer tube?
  1. Green
  2. Light blue
  3. PST
  4. SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) A phlebotomist has finished drawing blood into a citrate tube for PT testing. However, the blood in the tube is below the minimum line. The phlebotomist should:
  1. fill another citrate tube partly full and mix the two tubes
  2. pour a little blood from another tube into the citrate tube
  3. repeat the procedure with a new citrate tube
  4. submit the tube for testing as usual
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) Which of these is needed to collect blood by syringe?
  1. Multisample needle
  2. Transfer device
  3. Tube holder
  4. Winged infusion set
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) If 100% bleach is diluted 1/5 and then diluted again 1/20, what is the concentration of bleach in the final solution?
  1. 1%
  2. 1.5%
  3. 2%
  4. 2.5%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) if the predicted yield is 20 g but the actual yield is only 15 g, what is the percentage yield?
  1. 1.33%
  2. 0.75%
  3. 5%
  4. 75%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) What is 100°C in Fahrenheit?
  1. 45°F
  2. 78°F
  3. 157°F
  4. 212°F
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) You have a requistiton saying that a blood test must be done at 1800 hours. What is this in 12-hour time?
  1. 6 am
  2. 6 pm
  3. 8 am
  4. 8 pm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) Normal infant blood volume is approximately 100 mL/kg. What would be the approximate blood volume of a baby who weighs 6 lb?
  1. 270 mL
  2. 330 mL
  3. 520 mL
  4. 600 mL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) A milligram is a ______________ of a gram.
  1. tenth
  2. hundredth
  3. thousandth
  4. millionth
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) What is the mean of 1, 10, 20, 50, 80, 90 and 99?
  1. 45
  2. 50
  3. 55
  4. 60
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) What is the mode of 4, 4, 8, 9, 10, 13, and 22?
  1. 4
  2. 7
  3. 9
  4. 10
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) Insidious hazards are hazards that:
  1. are easily overlooked
  2. happen quickly
  3. involve chemicals
  4. involve fumes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) A skin cut is an example of which link in the chain of infection?
  1. Mode of transmission
  2. Portal of entry
  3. Reservoir
  4. Susceptible host
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) Used needles should be discarded in:
  1. a biohazard sharps container
  2. a glass disposal bucket
  3. a glass recycling bin
  4. the regular garbage
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) How thick is a 5 mil glove?
  1. 0.005 inches
  2. 0.005 millimeters
  3. 0.5 millimeters
  4. 5 millimeters
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) What is the correct order of removal of PPE?
  1. Gloves, gown, goggles, mask
  2. Gown, goggles, gloves, mask
  3. Gown, mask, gloves, goggles
  4. Mask, gown, gloves, goggles
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) The three basic protective measures against radiation are time, distance, and:
  1. lead
  2. radiation suit
  3. shielding
  4. speed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) Gamma radiation is usually shielded with:
  1. aluminum
  2. glass
  3. lead
  4. steel
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) A lab technologist has spilled concentrated hydrochloric acid onto his clothing and skin, affecting a large portion of his body. After he has removed his clothing, the next thing he should do is:
  1. apply a burn ointment to his skin
  2. pour baking soda onto his skin
  3. seek emergency medical assistance
  4. use the emergency safety shower
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) What is the single most important method of preventing infection?
  1. Proper handwashing
  2. Sneezing into your arm
  3. Thorough cleaning of equipment
  4. Wearing a lab coat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.24) Which cleaning product releases a toxic gas when mixed with urine?
  1. Chlorine bleach
  2. Hydrogen peroxide
  3. Isopropyl alcohol
  4. Povidone-iodine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.25) The proper time for sterilizing an article in the autoclave:
  1. is approximately 10 to 15 minutes
  2. is approximately 15 to 20 minutes
  3. depends on the type of indicator being used
  4. depends on what is being autoclaved
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.26) Pipettes marked TC are:
  1. allowed to drain freely
  2. marked with a double ring at the mouthpiece
  3. rinsed out after delivery
  4. used for toxic, corrosive liquids
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.27) A urine culture was plated with a 0.001 mL loop. To report the colony count in colonies per mL, the number of colonies on the plate must be multiplied by:
  1. 100
  2. 200
  3. 1,000
  4. 2,000
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.28) Before turning on a centrifuge, make sure:
  1. all liquid specimen tubes are uncovered
  2. the centrifuge is balanced
  3. the centrifuge is on a slanted surface
  4. the cover is open
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.29) Which part of an infant's foot is the safest area to perform a capillary puncture?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.30) Which of these tests would most be affected if a patient ate a muffin and orange juice before a fasting blood test?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Cardiac enzymes
  3. Complete blood count
  4. Glucose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.31) The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals has two signal words for hazardous chemicals: "Danger" and:
  1. Attention
  2. Caution
  3. Notice
  4. Warning
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Chemistry

2.1) A phlebotomist draws blood from a patient and then wraps the tube in aluminum foil. What analyte is being tested?
  1. Albumin
  2. Bilirubin
  3. PTT
  4. Urobilinogen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) Which of these is an enzyme?
  1. Glucagon
  2. Glucose
  3. Lipase
  4. Lipid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to:
  1. angiotensin III
  2. aldosterone
  3. angiotensin II
  4. renin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) What is the end product of purine metabolism?
  1. Allantoin
  2. Urea
  3. Uric acid
  4. Xanthine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) Which type of jaundice is due to a blockage in the bile duct?
  1. Hepatocellular
  2. Neonatal
  3. Post-hepatic
  4. Pre-hepatic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) Kernicterus is caused by an abnormal accumulation of bilirubin in which organ?
  1. Brain
  2. Heart
  3. Liver
  4. Lung
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) Most cases of tetany are caused by a deficiency of which mineral?
  1. Calcium
  2. Phosphorous
  3. Potassium
  4. Sodium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) Jaundice is caused by a buildup of ___________ in the blood.
  1. bilirubin
  2. hemoglobin
  3. potassium
  4. uric acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) Cholestatic jaundice is also known as ___________ jaundice.
  1. hepatocellular
  2. neonatal
  3. obstructive
  4. pre-hepatic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) Most iron in the body is bound to which protein?
  1. Ferritin
  2. Fibrin
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Myoglobin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) Which gland produces thyroid-stimulating hormone?
  1. Parathyroids
  2. Pituitary
  3. Testes
  4. Thyroid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) Cortisol levels are generally highest at what time of day?
  1. 8 am
  2. 12 pm
  3. 4 pm
  4. 8 pm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) Which of these is an organ of the endocrine system?
  1. Brain
  2. Pancreas
  3. Spleen
  4. Stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) Which of these hormones is produced by the pituitary gland?
  1. Insulin
  2. T4
  3. TRH
  4. TSH
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) Which hormone controls sodium reabsorption?
  1. Aldosterone
  2. Angiotensin II
  3. Anti-diuretic hormone
  4. Renin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) Amylase is an enzyme that breaks down:
  1. fat
  2. protein
  3. starch
  4. sugars
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) During pregnancy, estriol is synthesized from:
  1. 16a-hydroxyl-DHEA-s
  2. pregnenolone
  3. cholesterol sulfate
  4. estrogen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) In which thyroid disorder are both TSH and T4 elevated?
  1. Primary hyperthyroidism
  2. Primary hypothyroidism
  3. Secondary hyperthyroidism
  4. Secondary hypothyroidism
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) Cholesterol belongs to the _______ group of lipids.
  1. phospholipid
  2. steroid
  3. triacylglycerol
  4. wax
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) A one molal solution contains one mole of solute per ________ of solvent.
  1. 1 g
  2. 1 kg
  3. 1 liter
  4. 1 mole
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) A patient has a CK-MB of 25.0 ng/mL and a total CK of 500 U/L. Calculate the relative index.
  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) Which grade of chemical is the highest purity?
  1. Commercial
  2. Laboratory
  3. Reagent
  4. Technical
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) What is the universal solvent?
  1. 0.85% sodium chloride
  2. 10% ethanol
  3. 8.5% sodium chloride
  4. Water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) Stray light can be measured in spectrophotometers with:
  1. a cut-off filter
  2. a mercury-vapor lamp
  3. a potassium dichromate solution
  4. holmium oxide glass
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) Which of these conditions can cause hyperalbuminemia?
  1. Dehydration
  2. Kidney disease
  3. Liver cirrhosis
  4. Thyroid disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) A patient has a potassium result of 7.2 mEq/L. Before reporting the result, the lab technician should:
  1. check the age of the patient
  2. check the serum for bacterial contamination
  3. check the serum for hemolysis
  4. test the serum for ketones
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) Solid crystals of potassium oxalate are added to distilled water in a container. Which term describes the potassium oxalate?
  1. Reagent
  2. Solute
  3. Solution
  4. Solvent
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) Which sample does a 17-hydroxycorticosteroids test require?
  1. 24-hour urine
  2. 72-hour stool
  3. Heparinized plasma
  4. Serum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) What does a hemoglobin A1c test measure?
  1. The amount of hemoglobin in the patient's blood
  2. The concentration of red blood cells in the patient's blood
  3. The patient's average blood glucose levels over the last three months
  4. The patient's blood glucose level at the time the sample drawn
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) The troponin test is used to help diagnose which condition?
  1. Brain damage
  2. Diabetes
  3. Heart attack
  4. Kidney failure
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) Lactose tolerance testing:
  1. can diagnose a patient’s inability to digest milk sugar
  2. requires a urine sample
  3. requires blood samples to be taken over 24 hours
  4. requires the patient to drink a liquid containing glucose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) A 2-hour postprandial glucose test:
  1. is collected 2 hours after a meal
  2. is collected 2 hours after fasting
  3. is used to diagnose diabetes during pregnancy
  4. requires a urine sample
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) What is the normal range for thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?
  1. 0.4–5 mU/L
  2. 5.4–10 mU/L
  3. 10.4–15 mU/L
  4. 15.4–20 mU/L
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) The normal value for glomerular filtration rate is _____ or above.
  1. 30
  2. 90
  3. 150
  4. 210
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) An arterial blood specimen submitted for blood gas analysis was obtained at 8:30 AM but was not received in the laboratory until 11:00 AM. What should the laboratory do?
  1. Perform the test ASAP
  2. Perform the test only if the specimen was submitted in ice water
  3. Request a new arterial sample to be obtained
  4. Request a venous blood specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) Which of these is a liver function test?
  1. AST test
  2. Creatine kinase test
  3. Creatinine test
  4. Troponin test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) Elevated serum acid phosphatase levels may indicate which of these diseases?
  1. Gout
  2. Kidney disease
  3. Liver disease
  4. Prostate cancer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) Blood ammonia levels are usually measured to evaluate the health of which organ?
  1. Digestive tract
  2. Heart
  3. Liver
  4. Lungs
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) A patient's cortisol levels are higher in the morning than in the evening. This is:
  1. indicative of Addison's disease
  2. indicative of Cushing syndrome
  3. indicative of hypopituitarism
  4. normal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) How does Beer's Law calculate absorbance?
  1. Concentration × (molar attenuation coefficient / path length)
  2. Concentration × (path length / molar attenuation coefficient)
  3. Molar attenuation coefficient × (concentration / path length)
  4. Molar attenuation coefficient × concentration × path length
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) Which enzyme, found mainly in skeletal muscle, the heart, and the brain, is associated with muscle damage and heart attack?
  1. ALT
  2. AST
  3. Creatine kinase
  4. Lipase
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.42) The bile acid test assesses the functioning of which organ?
  1. Bladder
  2. Kidney
  3. Liver
  4. Stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.43) In the second trimester of pregnancy, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels ________ and estriol levels ________.
  1. decrease, decrease
  2. decrease, increase
  3. increase, decrease
  4. increase, increase
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.44) A patient has low cortisol. After an injection of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). the patient's cortisol levels are still low. The patient most likely has:
  1. Addison's disease
  2. Cretinism
  3. Cushing‘s syndrome
  4. Cushing’s disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.45) The HCV antibody test is used to screen patients for which disease?
  1. HIV
  2. Hepatitis C
  3. Hypothyroidism
  4. Shingles
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.46) High doses of which supplement can cause blood folate levels to appear falsely high?
  1. Biotin
  2. Cobalamin
  3. Thiamine
  4. Vitamin D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Hematology

3.1) What is leukopoiesis?
  1. A high platelet count
  2. The destruction of white blood cells
  3. The synthesis of red blood cells
  4. The synthesis of white blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) How long does it take for blood to circulate the body?
  1. 1 minute
  2. 1 hour
  3. 1 day
  4. 1 week
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) What is erythropoiesis?
  1. Decreased tissue demand for oxygen
  2. Hypoxia of cells that produce erythropoietin
  3. The destruction of red blood cells
  4. The process of red blood cells production
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Which protein binds to free hemoglobin?
  1. Cryoglobulin
  2. Erythropoietin
  3. Haptoglobin
  4. Methemoglobin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) Which blood cells defend the body against disease?
  1. Erythrocytes
  2. Hematocytes
  3. Leukocytes
  4. Thrombocytes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) Target cells are also known as:
  1. codocytes
  2. dacrocytes
  3. echinocytes
  4. spherocytes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) In which type of anemia are red blood cells smaller than normal and have decreased red color?
  1. Macrocytic normochromic
  2. Microcytic hypochromic
  3. Normocytic hypochromic
  4. Normocytic normochromic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) Which leukocytes are nongranular?
  1. Basophils and mast cells
  2. Lymphocytes and monocytes
  3. Neutrophils and eosinophils
  4. Neutrophils and mast cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) What is the smallest blood cell?
  1. Basophil
  2. Eosinophil
  3. Platelet
  4. Small lymphocyte
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets make up what percentage of blood volume?
  1. 15%
  2. 45%
  3. 55%
  4. 75%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Which of these is a white blood cell that can engulf pathogens by phagocytosis?
  1. Basophil
  2. Erythrocyte
  3. Neutrophil
  4. Thrombocyte
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) The cell most likely to kill viruses and cancer cells is the:
  1. cytotoxic T cell
  2. killer B cell
  3. plasma cell
  4. suppressor B cell
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) The main cells of the reticuloendothelial system are:
  1. B cells
  2. T cells
  3. macrophages
  4. neutrophils
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) A normal healthy individual has how many grams of hemoglobin per 100 mL of blood?
  1. 6–12 g
  2. 12–18 g
  3. 15–20 g
  4. 30–35 g
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) Which leukocyte increases rapidly in number during allergy attacks and infections of parasitic worms?
  1. Basophil
  2. Eosinophil
  3. Lymphocyte
  4. Neutrophil
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) What does erythropoietin do?
  1. Destroys red blood cells
  2. Reduces red blood cell production
  3. Regulates sodium and potassium levels
  4. Stimulates red blood cell production
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) What is the lifespan of a red blood cell?
  1. 10–20 days
  2. 20–40 days
  3. 40–80 days
  4. 100–120 days
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) Which white blood cell is the most numerous?
  1. Eosinophils
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Neutrophils
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) A patient's serum iron test results are as follows:
Test Result
Serum iron concentration 110 mcg/dL
Total iron-binding capacity 440 mcg/dL
Using this information, calculate the percentage transferrin saturation.
  1. 4%
  2. 5%
  3. 10%
  4. 25%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) Which animal is the definitive host of T. gondii?
  1. Cat
  2. Deer
  3. Dog
  4. Pig
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) Which test counts the number of immature red blood cells in a blood sample?
  1. Differential
  2. Osmotic fragility test
  3. Red blood cell count
  4. Reticulocyte count
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) What is the term for the percentage of red blood cells in a sample of whole blood?
  1. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Red blood cell count
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) When setting up erythrocyte sedimentation rates, take care to ensure:
  1. a fasting specimen is used
  2. the ESR tubes are vertical
  3. the sample is completely thawed
  4. the water bath is exactly 37°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) What is the hematocrit?
  1. The average mass of hemoglobin per red blood cell
  2. The rate at which red blood cells descend in a tube
  3. The time it takes for blood to clot
  4. The volume percentage of red blood cells in blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) What unit are hemoglobin values expressed in?
  1. %
  2. g/dL
  3. mm/hour
  4. mol/L
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) Which of these is higher in capillary blood than in venous blood?
  1. Calcium
  2. Carotene
  3. Glucose
  4. Total protein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) Which of these is a sign of a blood film that has been prepared poorly?
  1. Consistent thickness throughout
  2. Covers the majority of the slide
  3. Feathered edges
  4. Half to three-quarters the length of the slide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) A woman has a leukocyte count of 3.6 × 10⁹/L. What is the term for this type of cell count?
  1. Leukemia
  2. Leukocytosis
  3. Leukodystrophy
  4. Leukopenia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) A patient complains of pain in her big toe. Her blood is high for uric acid. What disease does this indicate?
  1. Gout
  2. Liver disease
  3. Pheochromocytoma
  4. Prostatic cancer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) Where is blood generally stored?
  1. At room temperature
  2. In a water bath
  3. In the freezer
  4. In the refrigerator
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) What is the normal adult range for leukocyte count?
  1. 0.5–7.0 × 10⁹/L
  2. 2.5–9.0 × 10⁹/L
  3. 4.5–11.0 × 10⁹/L
  4. 6.5–13.0 × 10⁹/L
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) What is the normal pH range for arterial blood?
  1. 7.35–7.45
  2. 8.35–8.45
  3. 9.35–9.45
  4. 10.35–10.45
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Coagulation and Hemostasis

4.1) What is the sequence of hemostasis?
  1. Coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation
  2. Platelet plug formation, coagulation, vascular spasm
  3. Vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation
  4. Vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) Which ion is essential for blood clotting?
  1. Calcium
  2. Iodine
  3. Potassium
  4. Sodium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) A child has large bruises from no known injury. The platelet count is low. The other CBC parameters are normal. There is no family history of hemorrhagic abnormalities or thrombocytopenia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
  2. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
  3. May-Hegglin anomaly
  4. Von Willebrand disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) Which enzyme converts fibrinogen to fibrin?
  1. Renin
  2. Secretin
  3. Serotonin
  4. Thrombin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) Blood clots are made of:
  1. fibrin
  2. fibrinogen
  3. prothrombin activator
  4. thrombin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) Which cells contribute most to blood clotting?
  1. Lymphocytes
  2. Platelets
  3. Red blood cells
  4. White blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) When blood is anticoagulated and centrifuged, the resulting straw-colored liquid layer is:
  1. heparin
  2. plasma
  3. serum
  4. whole blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) What is the department for a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test?
  1. Chemistry
  2. Coagulation
  3. Hematology
  4. Microbiology
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) Which of these is a plasma protein involved in coagulation?
  1. Albumin
  2. Erythropoietin
  3. Fibrinogen
  4. Gamma globulin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) Which of these is needed to prepare defibrinated blood?
  1. Filter paper
  2. Glass beads
  3. UV light
  4. Vacuum pump
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) What does the international normalized ratio (INR) measure?
  1. How long blood takes to form a clot
  2. How long erythrocytes take to separate from plasma
  3. The average blood glucose level over the past 3 months
  4. The ratio of oxygen to carbon dioxide in the blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.12) Mixing blood with glass beads in an airtight container is a procedure to produce __________ blood.
  1. acidic
  2. defibrinated
  3. hypoglycemic
  4. serosanguinous
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.13) What is the term for a platelet count of 120 × 10⁹/L?
  1. Anemia
  2. Polycythemia
  3. Thrombocytopenia
  4. Thrombocytosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.14) Anticoagulant therapy is monitored by performing a:
  1. ESR
  2. FBS
  3. Hgb
  4. PT
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.15) Which specimen is used for coagulation testing?
  1. Plasma
  2. Serum
  3. Urine
  4. Whole blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 5: Immunology and Serology

5.1) Which vacutainer tube is for collecting a blood sample for a Factor IX assay?
  1. Gray
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) Which white blood cell secretes antibodies?
  1. Monocyte
  2. Neutrophil
  3. Plasma cell
  4. T cell
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) The three types of granulocyte are neutrophils, eosinophils, and:
  1. basophils
  2. erythrocytes
  3. lymphocytes
  4. monocytes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) When evaluating a blood smear under a microscope, a trainee lab technician sees a white blood cell that has no cytoplasmic granules. This white blood cell is most likely a:
  1. eosinophil
  2. lymphocyte
  3. monocyte
  4. neutrophil
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) What is the term for a substance that stimulates the immune system to release antibodies?
  1. Antibody
  2. Antigen
  3. Fibrinogen
  4. Interleukin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) Which antibody is primarily responsible for detecting foreign antigens in the respiratory tract?
  1. IgA
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) Developing B cells always make which antibody first?
  1. IgD
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) A hypertonic solution:
  1. causes cells to grow
  2. contains a higher concentration of solutes compared to another solution
  3. contains a lower concentration of solutes compared to another solution
  4. contains the same concentration of solutes compared to another solution
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.9) Which department is primarily responsible for testing antibodies?
  1. Chemistry
  2. Hematology
  3. Pathology
  4. Serology
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 6: Immunohematology

6.1) Which antibody is the largest?
  1. IgD
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) A patient with type A blood can receive:
  1. type A and type O blood
  2. type A blood only
  3. type A, type O, and type AB blood
  4. type O blood only
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) A person with blood type B− can receive a blood transfusion from which two blood types?
  1. B− and AB−
  2. B− and AB−
  3. B− and O−
  4. O− and O+
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) An O+ patient needs an emergency transfusion but the laboratory does not have any O+ blood available. Which type of blood could be given to the patient instead?
  1. AB+
  2. B+
  3. AB−
  4. O−
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) What is the second-most important blood group system for blood transfusions?
  1. Lutheran
  2. MNS
  3. P
  4. Rh
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) Which blood type can a person with blood type O receive?
  1. A
  2. AB
  3. B
  4. O
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) People with the Jk(a-b-) phenotype are unable to:
  1. breathe without the aid of a respirator
  2. have children
  3. make hemoglobin
  4. maximally concentrate urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.8) Antibodies to which of these blood group systems show dosage?
  1. Duffy
  2. Kell
  3. Lutheran
  4. P
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.9) Which of these situations could cause hemolytic disease of the newborn?
  1. A+ mother and O− fetus
  2. AB+ mother and O− fetus
  3. O+ mother and A− fetus
  4. O− mother and O+ fetus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.10) Which two genes produce the Rh antigens?
  1. DCE and DHCE
  2. RH1 and RH2
  3. RHA and RHAG
  4. RHD and RHCE
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.11) Type A antigens react with which type of antibodies?
  1. Anti-A antibodies
  2. Anti-B antibodies
  3. Anti-C antibodies
  4. Anti-D antibodies
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.12) A patient's red blood cells plus anti-A antisera result in agglutination. However, his red blood cells plus anti-B antisera result in no agglutination. Therefore, the patient has what type of antigens and is what blood type?
  1. Type A antigens and type A blood
  2. Type A antigens and type B blood
  3. Type B antigens and type A blood
  4. Type B antigens and type B blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.13) A B− patient requires a blood transfusion but no B− blood is available. From which of these donors could the patient safely receive blood?
  1. A+
  2. AB+
  3. B+
  4. O−
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.14) Which blood type is the universal recipient?
  1. A+
  2. AB+
  3. B+
  4. O+
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.15) A person with the A antigen on their red blood cells also has what in their blood?
  1. Anti-A antibodies
  2. Anti-B antibodies
  3. Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies
  4. B antigens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.16) A person who is blood group B has:
  1. A antigens and anti-A antibodies
  2. A antigens and anti-B antibodies
  3. B antigens and anti-A antibodies
  4. B antigens and anti-B antibodies
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.17) People with type AB blood can only donate blood to people of which blood type?
  1. Type A
  2. Type AB
  3. Type B
  4. Type O
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.18) A person with type A blood has what on their red blood cells?
  1. A antigens
  2. B antigens
  3. Anti-A antibodies
  4. Anti-B antibodies
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.19) Which ABO blood group has both anti-A antibodies and anti-B antibodies?
  1. A
  2. B
  3. AB
  4. O
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.20) Why is blood type O− the universal donor?
  1. The red blood cells have no A, B or Rh antigens
  2. The red blood cells only have O antigens
  3. The serum has no A, B or Rh antibodies
  4. The serum only has O antibodies
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.21) Which antigens does type AB blood contain?
  1. A and B antigens
  2. A antigen
  3. B antigen
  4. No antigens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.22) Which blood type has neither the A antigen nor the B antigen?
  1. A
  2. AB
  3. B
  4. O
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 7: Blood Banking and Transfusion Services

7.1) Autologous blood is:
  1. a person's own blood
  2. blood from a sibling
  3. blood from a twin
  4. blood from an anonymous donor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) Complete histocompatibility is found in:
  1. humans
  2. identical twins
  3. mice
  4. siblings
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) 1,000 cc of blood is equivalent to how many milliliters?
  1. 450 mL
  2. 750 mL
  3. 850 mL
  4. 1,000 mL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) Someone cannot donate blood if they:
  1. are 18 years old
  2. have HIV
  3. have a blood type is O-
  4. weigh 120 kg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) Which of these people should NOT donate blood?
  1. A breastfeeding mother with a six-week-old newborn
  2. Someone who had wisdom teeth removed a week ago
  3. Someone who received a measles immunization two months ago
  4. Someone with an aspirin allergy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) Women of menstruation age who donate blood may have to be careful about their ________ levels.
  1. estrogen
  2. iron
  3. potassium
  4. sodium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) A 28-year-old patient needs a blood transfusion of red blood cells. However, the patient has an inherited immune system disorder that makes him vulnerable to transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GvHD). The red blood cells for this patient should be:
  1. centrifuged
  2. frozen and deglycerolized
  3. irradiated
  4. saline washed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.8) Why is donated blood kept refrigerated?
  1. To prevent blood components from breaking down
  2. To prevent coagulation
  3. To prevent the blood from producing alloantibodies
  4. To slow bacterial growth
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.9) A directed blood donation is when:
  1. a junior phlebotomist performs the donation under supervision
  2. the blood is donated by a member of the community
  3. the blood must be donated by law
  4. the donation is designated for a specific patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.10) Whole blood is stored between:
  1. −12°C and −18°C
  2. −6°C and 3°C
  3. 2°C and 6°C
  4. 8°C and 16°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.11) What is the 4-hour rule in blood banking?
  1. Blood donors should not be kept waiting in the waiting room for more than 4 hours
  2. Blood donors should refrain from exercise four hours after donating blood
  3. Red blood cell units left out of refrigeration for more than 4 hours cannot be returned to the refrigerator
  4. Transfusions of red blood cell units should be completed within 4 hours of their removal from refrigeration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.12) Shortly after a blood transfusion is started, the patient experiences erythema and hives. What type of transfusion reaction is the patient experiencing?
  1. Acute hemolytic
  2. Delayed hemolytic
  3. Febrile nonhemolytic
  4. Urticarial
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.13) One of the most common transfusion reactions is urticaria. What is urticaria?
  1. A cough
  2. A rash
  3. Light-headedness
  4. Throat swelling
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.14) A blood sample is tested with anti-A antibodies and anti-B antibodies. No clots form. What is the blood type?
  1. A
  2. AB
  3. B
  4. O
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 8: Microbiology

8.1) Which method of sterilization uses steam under pressure?
  1. Dry heat autoclaving
  2. Filtration
  3. Microwaving
  4. Moist heat autoclaving
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.2) Which of these reagents contains mercuric chloride?
  1. Bouin's fluid
  2. Crystal violet
  3. Picric acid
  4. Zenker's fluid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.3) Buffered commercial formalin is approximately ____ formaldehyde gas by weight/volume.
  1. 4%
  2. 10%
  3. 40%
  4. 70%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.4) Which of these is a decalcification agent?
  1. Ammonia
  2. EDTA
  3. Toluene
  4. Xylene
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.5) The Pap stain stains which structure blue, purple or black?
  1. Cytoplasm
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Nuclei
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.6) Which of these would slow the growth of pathogenic bacteria?
  1. A moist environment
  2. An acidic pH
  3. Darkness
  4. Nutrients
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.7) What is the purpose of susceptibility testing?
  1. To determine if a patient has an allergy to a drug
  2. To determine the effectiveness of drug therapy
  3. To identify which antibiotic will kill a pathogen
  4. To identify which organism is in a specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.8) The urease test determines whether an organism can:
  1. digest urease
  2. produce urea
  3. split urea
  4. transport urea into its cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.9) Which of these tests is used to differentiate between staphylococci and streptococci?
  1. Catalase test
  2. Coagulase test
  3. Oxidase test
  4. Urase test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.10) Which of these tests differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococcus species?
  1. Catalase
  2. Coagulase
  3. Oxidase
  4. Urase
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.11) The Widal test is used to diagnose which bacteria?
  1. E. coli
  2. Proteus
  3. Salmonella
  4. Shigela
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.12) An organism from a lung biopsy grows as a mold at room temperature and as yeast at 37°C. What is the most appropriate way to interpret these results?
  1. Dimorphic fungus present
  2. The specimen is contaminated, ask for a repeat collection
  3. Two pathogens are present
  4. Two pathogens are present but only the mold is significant
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.13) What is the term for an organism that only grows when specific nutrients are included in its medium?
  1. Anaerobe
  2. Captious
  3. Fastidious
  4. Obligate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.14) Helminthology is the study of:
  1. bacteria
  2. parasitic worms
  3. protozoa
  4. spiral microbes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.15) Which microbes require oxygen levels that are lower than in the atmosphere?
  1. Aerotolerant anaerobes
  2. Facultative aerobes
  3. Facultative anaerobes
  4. Microaerophlies
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.16) A lab technician performs a Triple Sugar Iron test. The result is K/A. What does the K stand for?
  1. Alkaline
  2. Kelvin
  3. Ketopentose
  4. Unknown
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.17) Toxoplasma gondii is a:
  1. bacteria
  2. mold
  3. protozoa
  4. virus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.18) Which of these bacteria is a gram-negative, aerobic, oxidase-positive, motile rod?
  1. E. coli
  2. Proteus
  3. Pseudomonas
  4. Salmonella
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.19) Hepatitis A:
  1. can be cured with antibiotics
  2. has no vaccine to prevent it
  3. is the most common type of hepatitis
  4. primarily infects the liver
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.20) Polioviruses, echoviruses, and coxsackieviruses are all:
  1. DNA viruses
  2. double-stranded RNA viruses
  3. enteroviruses
  4. enveloped viruses
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.21) Which virus causes chickenpox?
  1. Adenovirus A
  2. Human herpesvirus 6
  3. Human papilomavirus
  4. Varicella-zoster virus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.22) Which of these organisms can be used as a positive control for the spot indole test?
  1. Enterobacter cloacae
  2. Escherichia coli
  3. Salmonella enterica
  4. Shigella sonnei
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.23) Which species of bacteria causes tuberculosis?
  1. Corynebacterium
  2. Lactobacillus
  3. Mycobacterium
  4. Streptococcus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.24) Which organism causes rose gardener's disease?
  1. Blastomyces dermatitidis
  2. Coccidioides immitis
  3. Histoplasma capsulatum
  4. Sporothrix schenckii
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.25) What is the goal of streaking an agar plate?
  1. To accelerate the solidification of the agar medium
  2. To determine if the bacteria can ferment glucose, sucrose and/or lactose
  3. To determine the number of organisms in the sample
  4. To produce isolated colonies for further study
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.26) What are the basic ingredients of all agar media?
  1. Agar, distilled water, and electrolytes
  2. Agar, gelatin, and sugar
  3. Agar, pH indicators, and gelling properties
  4. Agar, vitamins, and blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.27) Which culture medium would be most appropriate to isolate Haemophilus influenza?
  1. Blood
  2. Chocolate
  3. MacConkey
  4. Nutrient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.28) Agar plates are placed upside down in the incubator to prevent:
  1. contamination from other agar plates
  2. moisture from accumulating on the agar surface
  3. pathogens from overgrowing
  4. the medium from drying out
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.29) Obligate anaerobes are killed by:
  1. carbon dioxide
  2. nitrogen
  3. oxygen
  4. water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.30) A patient has a high fever and a headache and seems confused. From the blood, a small, gram-positive, catalase-positive rod-shaped organism is isolated. There is a narrow zone of beta hemolysis. What is the organism most likely to be?
  1. Bordetella pertussis
  2. Clostridium tetani
  3. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
  4. Listeria monocytogenes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.31) Which type of microscope is best for viewing crystals in a sample of joint fluid?
  1. Fluorescent light
  2. Light
  3. Polarized light
  4. Ultraviolet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 9: Urinalysis and Body Fluids

9.1) Which tablet is used to detect proteins in urine?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. SSA
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.2) Which of these tests requires a 24-hour urine specimen?
  1. Creatinine clearance
  2. Glucose tolerance
  3. HCG detection
  4. Urine cytology
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.3) Urine samples that cannot be tested within an hour of collection should be:
  1. discarded
  2. frozen
  3. left at room temperature
  4. refrigerated
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.4) An elevated level of white blood cells in urine is called:
  1. hematuria
  2. pyelonephritis
  3. pyuria
  4. uremia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.5) Bile pigments will cause urine specimens to be what color?
  1. Cloudy
  2. Foul-smelling
  3. Red
  4. Yellow-brown
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.6) Cloudy white urine is a sign of:
  1. a urinary tract infection
  2. excessive consumption of vitamin B6
  3. jaundice
  4. liver disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.7) What is the reference range for glucose in cerebrospinal fluid?
  1. 100–125 mg/dL
  2. 125–150 mg/dL
  3. 50–80 mg/dL
  4. 80–100 mg/dL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.8) How many times a day does a healthy person urinate?
  1. 1 to 7 times
  2. 4 to 10 times
  3. 7 to 13 times
  4. 10 to 16 times
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.9) What is the normal range for the pH of urine?
  1. 0.6–4.0
  2. 2.6–6.0
  3. 4.6–8.0
  4. 6.6–10.0
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.10) Microscopic examination of the urine of a patient with kidney stones reveals amber, barrel-shaped crystals. The pH of the urine is 5.5. What are the crystals?
  1. Calcium carbonate
  2. Calcium phosphate
  3. Triple phosphate
  4. Uric acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Access options

Get online access or buy a physical book.

Option 1: Online access

Unlock the answers to 210 questions for just $39.99

You'll get immediate access after payment.

Step 1

Enter the email address where you want us to send your order to.



Step 2

Select one of the payment buttons below.

Option 2: Physical book

Get the questions as a book

The questions and answers are available as a book at Amazon.com