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AMT RMA Practice Exam 2

Number of questions: 300

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About the AMT RMA exam

The AMT RMA (Registered Medical Assistant) certification exam is set by the American Medical Technologists (AMT). Passing the exam proves to employers that you have the knowledge to work as a medical assistant.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the AMT RMA exam.

This page contains 300 practice questions divided into the four sections of the exam: 1. Anatomy and Physiology, 2. Administrative Medical Assisting, 3. Clinical Procedural Tasks, and 4. Clinical Patient Interaction.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Check out all the practice tests in this series: Practice Test 1, and Practice Test 2.

Sections

  1. Anatomy and Physiology
  2. Administrative Medical Assisting
  3. Clinical Procedural Tasks
  4. Clinical Patient Interaction

Section 1: Anatomy and Physiology

1.1) What is asepsis?
  1. An inflammatory immune response triggered by an infection
  2. Blood clotting
  3. Cell death
  4. The absence of pathogens and infections
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) What is the term for a resting metabolic state early in the morning after a minimum of 12 hours of fasting?
  1. Absorptive state
  2. Basal state
  3. Postprandial state
  4. Starvation state
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) What does intercostal mean?
  1. Between blood vessels
  2. Between the ribs
  3. The rib cage
  4. Within a joint space
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) What is the medical term for the bones of the fingers?
  1. Carpals
  2. Patellas
  3. Phalanges
  4. Tarsals
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) What is the medical term for the shoulder blade?
  1. Clavicle
  2. Patella
  3. Scapula
  4. Sternum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) An iatrogenic illness is an illness that:
  1. has no obvious symptoms
  2. is caused by medical treatment
  3. is triggered by stress
  4. only occurs in old age
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) What are the viscera?
  1. The basic respiratory units of the lungs
  2. The blood vessels under the surface of the eye
  3. The body's internal organs
  4. The protective covering that surrounds the eye
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) What protein forms a mesh that holds blood clots in place?
  1. Fibrin
  2. Globulin
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Thrombin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) What is the term for an immature red blood cell?
  1. Erythroblast
  2. Monoblast
  3. Segmented
  4. Thrombocyte
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) A woman who has had 3 miscarriages and 2 live births would be described as:
  1. grav 2, para 3
  2. grav 3, para 2
  3. grav 5, para 2
  4. grav 5, para 3
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) What is the muscular wave-like movement that transports food through the digestive system?
  1. Emulsification
  2. Mastication
  3. Peristalsis
  4. Regurgitation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Enzymes end with which suffix?
  1. -ase
  2. -cyte
  3. -osis
  4. -phage
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Which prefix means skin?
  1. Derm-
  2. Ichthyo-
  3. Pachyo-
  4. Ped-
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) What does the prefix entero- mean?
  1. Entire
  2. Inside
  3. Intestine
  4. Stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) Which suffix means falling, drooping, or prolapse?
  1. -pathy
  2. -plasty
  3. -ptosis
  4. -trophy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) Which suffix means 'resembling'?
  1. -eal
  2. -lith
  3. -oid
  4. -osis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) Which prefix means 'false'?
  1. Pneumo
  2. Poly
  3. Pseudo
  4. Trans
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) What does the prefix xero- mean?
  1. Dry
  2. Scaly
  3. Thick
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) What does the suffix -poesis mean?
  1. Dilation
  2. Falling
  3. Production
  4. Softening
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) In hospitals, what does the term ICU stand for?
  1. Image control utility
  2. Intensive care unit
  3. Internal communications
  4. International controlled unit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) In hematology, what does HCT stand for?
  1. Hematocrit
  2. Hemoglobin color testing
  3. High cell total
  4. High cell turbidity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) What does USP stand for in medicine?
  1. Underdeveloped specimen
  2. United States pharmacopeia
  3. Unwanted special properties
  4. User security policy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) What is an embolism?
  1. A blockage in a blood vessel
  2. A bruise
  3. An inflamed area of the esophagus
  4. Swelling in a vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.24) What is hematuria?
  1. A skin rash
  2. Bacteria in the bloodstream
  3. Blood in the urine
  4. Kidney stones
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.25) What is the medical term for a low level of glucose in the blood?
  1. Hyperglycemia
  2. Hyperinsulinemia
  3. Hyperlipidemia
  4. Hypoglycemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.26) A high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by disrupted airflow is called:
  1. asthma
  2. diphtheria
  3. epistaxis
  4. stridor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.27) What is the medical term for shortness of breath?
  1. Anosmia
  2. Ascites
  3. Dyspnea
  4. Phlebitis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.28) What is the medical term for premature separation of the placenta?
  1. Abruptio placentae
  2. Ectopic pregnancy
  3. Placenta previa
  4. Pseudocyesis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.29) A myelogram is an x-ray of:
  1. bone marrow
  2. lymphatic vessels
  3. muscles
  4. the spinal cord
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.30) What is the term for an incision of the perineum during childbirth?
  1. Colpotomy
  2. Episiotomy
  3. Laparotomy
  4. Perineoplasty
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.31) Fulguration is a procedure that uses __________ to destroy abnormal tissue.
  1. drugs
  2. electricity
  3. radiation
  4. soundwaves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.32) What is the medical term for the voice box?
  1. Epiglottis
  2. Larynx
  3. Pharynx
  4. Trachea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.33) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is most common in:
  1. baby boys
  2. baby girls
  3. men
  4. women
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.34) Type 1 diabetes mellitus:
  1. is an autoimmune condition
  2. is the most common form of diabetes mellitus
  3. requires an oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosis
  4. usually occurs after age 40
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.35) Beriberi is a deficiency of which vitamin?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B1
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin D1
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.36) Jaundice is caused by a buildup of ___________ in the blood.
  1. bilirubin
  2. hemoglobin
  3. potassium
  4. uric acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.37) The larger of the two lower leg bones is called the:
  1. condoyle
  2. fibula
  3. tibia
  4. ulna
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.38) What are the two categories of the skeleton?
  1. Axial and appendicular
  2. Central and peripheral
  3. Somatic and autonomic
  4. Visceral and neural
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.39) Which muscles are the triangular muscles of the shoulder?
  1. Biceps
  2. Deltoids
  3. Long abductors
  4. Triceps
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.40) When a muscle contracts, it:
  1. lengthens and pulls a bone
  2. lengthens and pushes a bone
  3. shortens and pulls a bone
  4. shortens and pushes a bone
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.41) Which of these glands is an exocrine gland?
  1. Adrenal
  2. Pineal
  3. Pituitary
  4. Sebaceous
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.42) Which gland produces thyroid-stimulating hormone?
  1. Parathyroids
  2. Pituitary
  3. Testes
  4. Thyroid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.43) Cortisol levels are generally highest at what time of day?
  1. 8 am
  2. 12 pm
  3. 4 pm
  4. 8 pm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.44) The pineal gland produces which hormone?
  1. Adrenaline
  2. Aldosterone
  3. Cortisol
  4. Melatonin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.45) What is the functional unit of the kidney?
  1. Glomerular tuft
  2. Glomerulus
  3. Loop of Henle
  4. Nephron
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.46) To reach the urinary bladder, urine passes from the kidney through a tube called the:
  1. renal column
  2. renal pelvis
  3. ureter
  4. urethra
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.47) What are the end products of protein digestion?
  1. Amino acids
  2. Fatty acids
  3. Monosaccharides
  4. Triglycerides
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.48) The end products of fat digestion are fatty acids and:
  1. alkaloids
  2. amino acids
  3. glycerol
  4. sebum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.49) Which organ produces bile?
  1. Gallbladder
  2. Liver
  3. Pancreas
  4. Stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.50) Carbohydrate metabolism begins with which enzyme?
  1. Pancreatic amylase
  2. Lactate dehydrogenase
  3. Salivary amylase
  4. Phosphofructokinase
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.51) The sympathetic nervous system:
  1. constricts the pupils
  2. increases the heart rate
  3. promotes digestion
  4. reduces blood pressure
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.52) The impulse in a neuron moves from the ____________ to the ____________.
  1. Schwann cell, myelin
  2. axon, dendrite
  3. cell body, myelin
  4. dendrite, axon
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.53) The parasympathetic nervous system:
  1. decreases the metabolic rate
  2. is also known as the enteric nervous system
  3. is part of the somatic nervous system
  4. is under voluntary control
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.54) Which part of the brain regulates muscle tone and coordination?
  1. Cerebellum
  2. Frontal lobes
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Medulla
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.55) Which part of a neuron carries impulses away from the cell body?
  1. Axon
  2. Cell body
  3. Dendrite
  4. Myelin sheath
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.56) High levels of which blood gas cause respiratory acidosis?
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Methane
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Oxygen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.57) The heart is contained inside a sac called the:
  1. endocardium
  2. fluid sac
  3. myocardium
  4. pericardium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.58) What is diastole?
  1. A heart rate below 60 beats per second
  2. An irregular heart rate
  3. When the heart muscle contracts
  4. When the heart muscle relaxes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.59) In the image below, which part of the heart is the left ventricle?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.60) Which is the largest artery in the body?
  1. Aorta
  2. Iliac artery
  3. Pulmonary artery
  4. Superior vena cava
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.61) The dermis is:
  1. above the epidermis
  2. also known as the epithelial layer
  3. the basal layer of the skin
  4. the middle layer of the skin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.62) Which organ system transports carbon dioxide to the lungs?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Lymphatic
  3. Respiratory
  4. Skeletal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.63) The spleen and thymus are part of which organ system?
  1. Endocrine
  2. Lymphatic
  3. Nervous
  4. Reproductive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.64) Which organ system is a drainage network that helps keep bodily fluid levels in balance and defends the body against infections?
  1. Endocrine
  2. Lymphatic
  3. Reticuloendothelial
  4. Urinary
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.65) Deficiencies of which two vitamins cause megaloblastic anemia?
  1. Vitamins A and C
  2. Vitamins B3 and B6
  3. Vitamins B9 and B12
  4. Vitamins C and D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.66) Vaccination is what type of acquired immunity?
  1. Artificial active
  2. Artificial passive
  3. Natural active
  4. Natural passive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.67) The ABO system of blood groups is based on the presence of which proteins on red blood cells?
  1. Agglutinins
  2. Antibodies
  3. Antigens
  4. Immunoglobulins
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.68) Which part of the heart sets the heart rate?
  1. AV node
  2. Left atrium
  3. Sinoatrial node
  4. VA node
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.69) Which vitamins are fat-soluble?
  1. A, B, C, D, and K
  2. A, C, and E
  3. A, D, E, and K
  4. B, C, D, and K
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.70) Which vitamin does the body make with sunlight?
  1. Vitamin B
  2. Vitamin C
  3. Vitamin D
  4. Vitamin K
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.71) Scurvy is caused by a deficiency of which vitamin?
  1. Niacin
  2. Thiamine
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.72) A patient receiving chemotherapy would be hospitalized in:
  1. enteric isolation
  2. respiratory isolation
  3. reverse isolation
  4. strict isolation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.73) What is a nosocomial infection?
  1. A hospital-acquired infection
  2. A nose infection
  3. A pneumococcal infection
  4. A throat infection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Administrative Medical Assisting

2.1) The process where an individual is informed of and agrees to the collection, use and disclosure of personal information is called:
  1. accountability
  2. consent
  3. openness
  4. safeguarding
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) The obligation of a person or organization to not disclose health information is known as:
  1. accountability
  2. confidentiality
  3. privacy
  4. security
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) What is the term for mechanisms and processes protecting health information from unauthorized access?
  1. Accountability
  2. Confidentiality
  3. Isolation
  4. Security
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) Which of these is a formal way to end an email?
  1. Bye for now
  2. See you soon
  3. Thanks
  4. Yours sincerely
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) Leaning forward demonstrates:
  1. confusion
  2. honesty
  3. impatience
  4. interest
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) A feeling of pity and sorrow for someone else's misfortune is called:
  1. empathy
  2. relatability
  3. respect
  4. sympathy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) A colleague has just found out her cat has died. She is emotionally distraught. Which of the following actions would be appropriate?
  1. Ask her to leave the workplace
  2. Offer to share some of her workload
  3. Report the incident to the regulatory body
  4. Tell her to act more professionally
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) Sitting with your arms crossed conveys:
  1. concern
  2. interest
  3. resistance
  4. sincerity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) Which process involves highlighting or underlying important information in a text?
  1. Annotation
  2. Cross-referencing
  3. Proofreading
  4. Summarizing
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) When communicating with someone from a different culture, it is important to:
  1. make assumptions about their beliefs and values
  2. speak louder and slower to ensure understanding
  3. be respectful of their cultural differences
  4. avoid using humor, as it may be misinterpreted
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) Which of these is an example of passive-aggressive behavior?
  1. Changing the subject when uncomfortable topics arise
  2. Complaining about someone behind their back
  3. Sighing and tutting instead of saying what's wrong
  4. Using veiled threats to control a person's behavior
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) When you suspect someone might be trans-identified, how do you know which pronoun to use?
  1. Ask a family member of the person
  2. Ask the person what pronouns they prefer
  3. Decide based on a person’s appearance
  4. Use the pronoun of the person’s biological gender
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) Which of these is an aspect of non-verbal communication?
  1. Articulation
  2. Gestures
  3. Tone
  4. Vocabulary
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) Beneficence is the duty to:
  1. do good
  2. do no harm
  3. follow the law
  4. fully inform the patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) How large is letter size paper?
  1. 5 by 8 inches
  2. 8.5 by 11 inches
  3. 11 by 17 inches
  4. 17 by 22 inches
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) In a business letter, the "inside address" is:
  1. the courier's address
  2. the receiver’s address
  3. the return address
  4. the sender's address
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) In a business letter, the ______________ names the person the letter should be handed to.
  1. attention line
  2. return address
  3. signature line
  4. subject line
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) In formal business letters, which punctuation mark follows the salutation?
  1. Colon
  2. Comma
  3. Period
  4. Semicolon
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) Which mail type ensures a letter will arrive the next day?
  1. Express
  2. Ground
  3. Priority
  4. Transit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) Mail marked _____________ should be left unopened and given to the physician.
  1. important
  2. open immediately
  3. personal
  4. urgent
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) Which letter format uses a subject line instead of a salutation?
  1. Full block
  2. Modified block
  3. Semi-block
  4. Simplified
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) Which of these is proper phone etiquette?
  1. Introducing yourself upon picking up the phone
  2. Leaving the caller on hold for a long time
  3. Multi-tasking while listening to the caller
  4. Putting an irritated caller on hold
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) What is the first stage of the Kübler-Ross model of grief?
  1. Anger
  2. Bargaining
  3. Denial
  4. Depression
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) Who was the founder of analytical psychology?
  1. Freud
  2. Jung
  3. Maslow
  4. Rogers
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) A patient refuses to have his blood drawn. The phlebotomist threatens the patient with the needle, saying she will draw the patient's blood whether he gives consent or or not. For threatening the patient, the phlebotomist could be charged with:
  1. assault
  2. battery
  3. fraud
  4. invasion of privacy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) Which of these actions committed by a phlebotomist could count as battery?
  1. Disclosing a patient's health information without consent
  2. Holding down a patient to draw their blood against their will
  3. Refusing to draw blood from a patient who arrives late to the appointment
  4. Spreading malicious rumours about a colleague
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) Which ICD-11 block is for respiratory diseases?
  1. C
  2. D
  3. F
  4. H
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) The electronic record of encounters within a primary care physician's office is known as a(n):
  1. electronic health record (EHR)
  2. electronic medical record (EMR)
  3. electronic patient record (EPR)
  4. personal health record (PHR)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) Which of these statements about upcoding is false?
  1. Upcoding is a compliance risk
  2. Upcoding is considered health care fraud
  3. Upcoding is only an issue when it is intentional
  4. Upcoding is the act of using a higher-level CPT code in a claim
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) Which of these is an example of a CPT code?
  1. 33275
  2. 9B71.0Z
  3. A8004
  4. G44.311
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) Decentralized paper records are:
  1. easier to manage
  2. less costly to manage
  3. more labor intensive to manage
  4. more secure
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) With the terminal digit filing system:
  1. misfiles are more common
  2. records are more evenly distributed
  3. records have to be moved around frequently to make space for incoming files
  4. the middle digits are known as the tertiary digits
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) While a patient is receiving care, most paper records are filed in reverse chronological order. This is because:
  1. coders need the data that way
  2. it is easier to access the most recent data
  3. it is easier to file loose reports
  4. legislation requires it
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) An overlay is where:
  1. a patient is assigned two medical record numbers
  2. a patient is given the same medication twice
  3. a patient receives the same test twice
  4. two different patient records are wrongly identified as one individual
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) In which filing system is the heaviest filing activity concentrated in the area with the most new records?
  1. Alphabetical
  2. Middle digit
  3. Straight numeric
  4. Terminal digit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) Arrange these numbers in terminal digit order: 64-10-10, 83-61-03, 37-28-11.
  1. 37-28-11, 64-10-10, 83-61-03
  2. 64-10-10, 37-28-11, 83-61-03
  3. 83-61-03, 37-28-11, 64-10-10
  4. 83-61-03, 64-10-10, 37-28-11
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) Documentation about a patient's marital status, diet, sleep patterns, exercise patterns, coffee use, tobacco use, and alcohol use may be found in the:
  1. admission form
  2. history
  3. operative note
  4. physical exam
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) Which filing system is also known as reverse filing?
  1. Consecutive numeric
  2. Middle digit
  3. Straight
  4. Terminal digit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) A hospital uses a terminal digit filing system. To find record 12-08-10, which numbers would you use first?
  1. 08
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 20
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) Lateral file cabinets are also known as:
  1. drawers
  2. filing shelves
  3. horizontal file cabinets
  4. vertical files cabinets
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) Placing documents or files in proper sequence is known as:
  1. coding
  2. cross-referencing
  3. sorting
  4. storing
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.42) What is the most common numeric filing system used in healthcare facilities?
  1. Chronological
  2. Middle digit
  3. Straight
  4. Terminal digit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.43) Which of these patients would be filed first in an alphabetical filing system?
  1. Frank Mac Schmidt, Jr.
  2. Frederick M. Schmidt
  3. Frederick Mac Schmidt, Sr.
  4. Frank Schmidt
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.44) An advantage of color-coding in an alphabetic filing system is:
  1. colors are used to indicate patient status
  2. files no longer need to be arranged alphabetically
  3. multiple users can use the same file
  4. you can tell at a glance if files are filed correctly
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.45) The heavy cardboard or plastic inserts used to identify a group of file folders in the file drawer are called:
  1. file guides
  2. file labels
  3. out guides
  4. tabs
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.46) Which organizational tool simplifies the tracking of date-related files?
  1. In-basket/Out-basket
  2. Tickler file
  3. Wave scheduling
  4. Workflow diagram
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.47) A fingerprint scan is an example of:
  1. a firewall
  2. artificial intelligence
  3. biometrics technology
  4. web security
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.48) What type of access control restricts network access based on a person's role within an organization?
  1. Discretionary
  2. Privileged
  3. Role-based
  4. Work group-based
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.49) Which of these helps to keep a computer account secure?
  1. Changing your password regularly
  2. Never logging out of the account
  3. Using a simple password
  4. Writing your password down
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.50) Which of these is hardware?
  1. Fax machine
  2. Internet browser
  3. Microsoft Excel
  4. Microsoft Word
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.51) A law that restricts the time an action may be brought against another party is known as:
  1. a statute of limitations
  2. common law
  3. litigation
  4. summons
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.52) Which document is a court summons to give oral testimony at a hearing or trial?
  1. Affidavit
  2. Respondeat superior
  3. Subpoena ad testificandum
  4. Subpoena duces tecum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.53) Which legal term means the degree of care a prudent, reasonable healthcare provider would exercise in a given situation?
  1. Customary care
  2. Optimal care
  3. Scope of practice
  4. Standard of care
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.54) What legal term describes a person unable to think clearly and therefore not responsible for their actions?
  1. Corpus jusis
  2. Habeas corpus
  3. Non compos mentis
  4. Res ipsa loquitur
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.55) A physician fails to inform the patient of all the risks and benefits of a procedure. The physician could be charged with:
  1. assault
  2. battery
  3. fraud
  4. negligence
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.56) Which law requires safeguards when sending health information by email?
  1. CAN-SPAM Act
  2. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
  3. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
  4. Privacy Act
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.57) Which triage color means "needs immediate medical attention"?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.58) What term means a person who cannot afford health insurance and is ineligible for government health insurance programs?
  1. Dependent
  2. Insurance subsidy
  3. Medical indigent
  4. Underinsured
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.59) Which act created the Health Insurance Marketplace?
  1. Affordable Care Act
  2. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
  3. Medicare Modernization Act
  4. Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.60) An insurer's decision that a treatment is medically necessary before the patient receives the treatment is called:
  1. a priori
  2. pre-entitlement
  3. preauthorization
  4. prior determination
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.61) What document does a health insurance company send to an insured individual to explain which medical treatments and services have been paid for on their behalf?
  1. Claim form
  2. Explanation of benefits
  3. Medical bill
  4. Preauthorization letter
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.62) To join a Medicare Advantage Plan, a person must:
  1. be over the age of 65
  2. have Medicare Parts A and B
  3. have a chronic condition requiring ongoing treatment
  4. have employer or union coverage
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.63) _____________ is the illegal practice of assigning codes for more expensive procedures than were actually performed.
  1. Bundling
  2. Kickbacking
  3. Unbundling
  4. Upcoding
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.64) What is a health insurance formulary?
  1. A form used to determine whether an individual is eligible for health insurance
  2. The form filled in by a health provider for an insurance claim
  3. The form filled in by patients to get reimbursed for their medical costs
  4. The list of prescription drugs a health plan covers
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.65) What term refers to the spouse and children of an insurance policyholder?
  1. Beneficiaries
  2. Co-insureds
  3. Dependents
  4. Subscribers
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.66) Medicare Supplement Insurance is also called:
  1. Medicare Advantage
  2. Medicare Part C
  3. Medicare Premium
  4. Medigap
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.67) Medicare's "limiting charge” allows non-participating providers to charge up to _____ more than the Medicare-approved amount.
  1. 5%
  2. 10%
  3. 15%
  4. 20%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.68) What is the difference between Medicare and Medicaid?
  1. Medicare covers hospital services and doctor visits, while Medicaid only covers hospital services
  2. Medicare is a private insurance program, while Medicaid is government-funded
  3. Medicare is based on age and disability status, while Medicaid is based on income
  4. Medicare offers more comprehensive coverage than Medicaid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.69) What insurance protects the policyholder against claims by other people?
  1. Casualty
  2. Critical illness
  3. Disability
  4. Liability
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.70) Which of these is healthcare fraud?
  1. Accepting patient copays directly at the time of service
  2. Billing for services that were never provided
  3. Offering patients a discount for prompt payment
  4. Recommending additional screenings to a patient with a family history of disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.71) What is the difference between copays and coinsurance?
  1. Copays apply to medications, while coinsurance covers medical services
  2. Copays are charged after the deductible is met, while coinsurance applies before the deductible is met
  3. Copays are fixed costs, while coinsurance is percentage-based
  4. Copays are paid at the end of the year, while coinsurance is paid at the time of service
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.72) What is the term for the amount a person pays each month or year to keep their insurance policy active?
  1. Copay
  2. Deductible
  3. Indemnity
  4. Premium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.73) A patient's insurance policy has a $200 deductible and a $100 per-day copay. The patient is hospitalised for two days and the bill is $1,000. How much would the patient have to pay themselves?
  1. $300
  2. $400
  3. $700
  4. $800
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.74) What type of health insurance plan only protects against the most serious medical conditions?
  1. Catastrophic
  2. Disability
  3. Major medical
  4. Special risk
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.75) Which of these does Medicare Part B cover?
  1. Ambulance services
  2. Inpatient care in a hospital
  3. Prescription drugs
  4. Skilled nursing facility care
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.76) _____________ is the illegal practice of billing for procedures separately that are normally covered by a single CPT code.
  1. Bundling
  2. Kickbacking
  3. Unbundling
  4. Upcoding
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.77) The Affordable Care Act is also known as:
  1. Medicaid
  2. Medicare
  3. Medicare Advantage
  4. Obamacare
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.78) Which type of health insurance plan has no provider network?
  1. Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)
  2. Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
  3. Indemnity plan
  4. Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.79) Which program provides health insurance exclusively to children?
  1. CHAMPVA
  2. CHIP
  3. FEHB
  4. TRICARE
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.80) What does 1EG4-TE5-MK72 on this card represent?
  1. Insurance policy number
  2. Medicare Beneficiary Identifier
  3. Medicare's phone number
  4. Social Security Number
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.81) Which part of Medicare covers outpatient mental health services?
  1. Part A
  2. Part B
  3. Part C
  4. Part D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.82) Which agency manages TRICARE?
  1. Defense Health Agency
  2. Department of Health and Human Services
  3. Department of Veterans Affairs
  4. U.S. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.83) Superbills are also called:
  1. encounter forms
  2. insurance slips
  3. progress notes
  4. ward reports
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.84) A patient is nervous during a pelvic exam. To calm her, you should suggest that she:
  1. move closer to the end of the table
  2. pull her knees together
  3. take her feet out of the stirrups
  4. takes deep breaths
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Clinical Procedural Tasks

3.1) A difference or inconsistency in the outcome of a test result is called a(n):
  1. accident
  2. adverse reaction
  3. discrepancy
  4. error
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) Which of these is an example of personal protective equipment (PPE)?
  1. A fire extinguisher
  2. A first aid kit
  3. A hand-washing station
  4. Gloves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) What is the first action that should be taken if a patient's body fluid splashes into the eyes?
  1. Call 911
  2. Determine whether the patient has an infectious disease
  3. Flush the eyes with water
  4. Make an entry in the accident log book
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Universal precautions are based on what assumption?
  1. All laboratory chemicals may be carcinogenic
  2. All specimens are potentially infectious
  3. Equipment is not sterile
  4. Handwashing is the best way to prevent the spread of infection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) Universal precautions apply to which type of hazard?
  1. Bloodborne pathogens
  2. Dangerous chemicals
  3. Environmental hazards
  4. Radiation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) What type of water does an autoclave use?
  1. Distilled water
  2. Mineral water
  3. Saltwater
  4. Tap water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Wrapped articles must be allowed to dry before removing them from the autoclave. This is because packs that are wet will:
  1. cause inaccurate results on the sterilization indicator
  2. draw microorganisms into the pack
  3. rust metal instruments
  4. tear the wrapper
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) The inside of the autoclave should be washed every day with:
  1. a disinfectant
  2. a mild detergent
  3. an antiseptic
  4. saltwater
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) Where are sterilization indicators placed in an autoclave?
  1. Close to the air exhaust valve
  2. In the center of each article
  3. On the bottom shelf of the autoclave
  4. On the outside of each pack
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) What pressure and temperature do autoclaves use?
  1. 12 psi at 115°C
  2. 12 psi at 120°C
  3. 15 psi at 112°C
  4. 15 psi at 121°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Which of these procedures kills all infectious microorganisms, including bacterial spores?
  1. Cleaning
  2. Disinfection
  3. Sanitization
  4. Sterilization
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) Preventive maintenance means:
  1. fixing things before they break
  2. identifying unexpected failures
  3. repairing equipment after it fails
  4. turning off machines when they are not in use
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) Which lab equipment is used to transfer liquids from one place to another?
  1. Pipette
  2. Stirring rod
  3. Test tube
  4. Wire gauze
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) Which item of lab equipment is used to guide substances into a container without spilling them?
  1. Beaker
  2. Crucible
  3. Funnel
  4. Test tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) What item of lab equipment is a suction device used to draw up liquids?
  1. Beaker
  2. Erlenmeyer cylinder
  3. Graduated cylinder
  4. Safety bulb
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) You have been tasked with decontaminating a centrifuge. The lab manual says to use a 10% bleach solution to decontaminate the centrifuge. However, no bleach is available. What would be the most suitable alternative?
  1. 70% ethanol
  2. Antibacterial soap and water
  3. Povidone-iodine
  4. Sodium bicarbonate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) Precision indicates the:
  1. closeness of a result to the first standard deviation
  2. closeness of a result to the median value
  3. closeness of a result to the true value
  4. repeatability or reproducibility of a procedure
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) Under the Occupational Safety and Health Act, employers have a responsibility to provide:
  1. a safe workplace
  2. extra training for disabled workers
  3. health insurance
  4. work breaks
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) If a worker suffers an accident at work and has to be hospitalized, how soon must the employer notify OSHA?
  1. Immediately
  2. Within 12 hours
  3. Within 24 hours
  4. Within 8 hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) In OSHA's hierarchy of controls, what is the most effective type of hazard control?
  1. Administrative controls
  2. Elimination
  3. Engineering controls
  4. Substitution
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) What act gives workers the right to know about hazards in the workplace?
  1. Health Care Consent Act
  2. Occupational Safety and Health Act
  3. Privacy Act
  4. SAFETY Act
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) Which type of asepsis is the absence of all microorganisms during an invasive procedure?
  1. Clean technique
  2. Medical asepsis
  3. Sterile technique
  4. Surgical asepsis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) What is the LEEP procedure used for?
  1. Closing and suturing wounds
  2. Draining pus from an infected area
  3. Relieving pressure on the median nerve
  4. Removing abnormal cells from the cervix
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) What is the term for toenail removal?
  1. Avulsion
  2. Enucleation
  3. Exenteration
  4. Ligation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) Which of these sutures is absorbable?
  1. Monocryl
  2. Nylon
  3. Prolene
  4. Silk
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) Which surgical procedure involves scraping tissue?
  1. Ablation
  2. Biopsy
  3. Curettage
  4. Ligation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) During laser surgery, patients must wear protective:
  1. aprons
  2. caps
  3. eyewear
  4. gloves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) Which surgery closes cuts or tears in skin, tissue or muscle?
  1. Circumcision
  2. Laceration repair
  3. Rhinoplasty
  4. Skin graft
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) Which bandage holds dressings on fingers and toes?
  1. Adhesive
  2. Roller
  3. Triangular
  4. Tubular
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) Which medical instrument is used for grasping and holding objects?
  1. Forceps
  2. Retractors
  3. Scalpel
  4. Sutures
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) Catheters are used to:
  1. drain urine from the bladder
  2. examine the bladder
  3. make an incision into the bladder
  4. treat urine infections
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) Which part of the body does a sigmoidoscope examine?
  1. Bladder
  2. Colon
  3. Ear
  4. Lungs
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) Hemostats are a type of:
  1. forceps
  2. retractor
  3. scissors
  4. thermometer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) In this image of a needle holder, which line points to the ratchet?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) What medical instrument holds open incisions?
  1. Curette
  2. Forceps
  3. Retractor
  4. Scissors
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) Curettes are used to:
  1. close incisions
  2. grasp tissue
  3. scrape tissue
  4. stop bleeding
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) What is this instrument?
  1. Forceps
  2. Hemostat
  3. Retractor
  4. Scissors
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) What device converts liquid medicine into a mist that can be easily inhaled into the lungs?
  1. Inhaler
  2. Nebulizer
  3. Oxygen hood
  4. Spacer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Clinical Patient Interaction

4.1) Which of these specimens has the lowest priority?
  1. Postop
  2. Preop
  3. Routine
  4. Timed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) Which of these actions can help a phlebotomist find a difficult vein?
  1. Ask the patient to hold their arm up in the air
  2. Ask the patient to make a fist
  3. Cool the area with an ice pack
  4. Tell the patient to drink nothing and come back in a few hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) In venipuncture, why must you wait for the alcohol on the puncture site to dry before inserting the needle into the vein?
  1. To ensure all pathogens are killed
  2. To ensure the needle doesn't slip
  3. To prevent alcohol from entering the patient's bloodstream
  4. To prevent hemolysis of the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) After applying a tourniquet, small red spots appear on the patient's arm. These spots are a sign that:
  1. the patient has diabetes
  2. the patient is taking an anticoagulant
  3. the site may bleed excessively
  4. the tourniquet is too tight
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) What is the angle of insertion for venipuncture?
  1. 15−30 degrees
  2. 30−45 degrees
  3. 45−60 degrees
  4. 60−75 degrees
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) After use, venipuncture needles should be:
  1. discarded into a sharps container
  2. discarded into an autoclave bag
  3. discarded into the garbage
  4. reused
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) An injection into the tissues between the skin and muscle is called a(n) _________ injection.
  1. intradermal
  2. intramuscular
  3. intravenous
  4. subcutaneous
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) What dietary advice should be given to hypertensive patients?
  1. Eliminate lactose from the diet
  2. Increase saturated fats by 30%
  3. Limit salt intake to 2 to 3 g per day
  4. Restrict potassium intake
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) What is the recommended daily calorie intake for men?
  1. 500 calories
  2. 1,500 calories
  3. 2,500 calories
  4. 3,500 calories
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) What are the three major disaccharides?
  1. Glucose, galactose, and fructose
  2. Glucose, lactose, and sucrose
  3. Lactose, fructose, and galactose
  4. Sucrose, lactose, and maltose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) What are the three main monosaccharides in the human diet?
  1. Glucose, fructose, and galactose
  2. Sucrose, lactose, and glucose
  3. Lactose, fructose, and galactose
  4. Sucrose, lactose, and maltose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.12) Prediabetic patients should increase their consumption of:
  1. high-glycemic index foods
  2. non-starchy vegetables
  3. saturated fats
  4. simple carbohydrates
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.13) Which of these is a symptom of hypoglycemia in a diabetic?
  1. Confusion
  2. Deep, rapid breaths
  3. Frequent urination
  4. Thirst
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.14) In stroke recognition, what does the acronym FAST stand for?
  1. Face, arm, speech and time
  2. Fever, anxiety, stress, and taste
  3. First airway, second temperature
  4. Flexibility, asthma, and sudden tightness
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.15) What is the first step in caring for a wound with heavy bleeding?
  1. Add bulky dressings to reinforce blood-soaked bandages
  2. Apply direct pressure with a sterile or clean dressing
  3. Apply pressure at a pressure point
  4. Ask the casualty to recite the alphabet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.16) How do you care for someone with a possible neck injury?
  1. Ask the person to try to move their head
  2. Keep the person's head still and do not try to move it
  3. Move the person into a comfortable position
  4. Move the person's head so that it rests above their heart
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.17) What is the first action to take if someone goes into cardiac arrest?
  1. Assess the airway
  2. Call 911
  3. Check the pulse
  4. Perform chest compressions
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.18) How many inches deep are chest compressions?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.19) The Heimlich maneuver is used for:
  1. choking
  2. heart attack
  3. poisoning
  4. syncope
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.20) If you suspect someone has suffered a stroke, what is the first thing you should do?
  1. Apply pressure to the affected area
  2. Ask the person to lie down
  3. Contact emergency services
  4. Perform CPR
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.21) When should you NEVER administer care to a casualty?
  1. When the person has stopped breathing
  2. When the person is conscious and refuses care
  3. When the person is having a seizure
  4. When the person is unconscious
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.22) Which hematology test determines the percentage of each type of leukocyte in a blood sample?
  1. CBC
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Hemoglobin determination
  4. WBC differential
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.23) What is the hematocrit?
  1. The average mass of hemoglobin per red blood cell
  2. The rate at which red blood cells descend in a tube
  3. The time it takes for blood to clot
  4. The volume percentage of red blood cells in blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.24) Which of these is a coagulation test?
  1. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  2. Full blood count
  3. Hematocrit
  4. Prothrombin time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.25) Which of these tests detects occult blood in stool samples?
  1. Fecal fat test
  2. Guaiac test
  3. Hemoglobin A1c
  4. Rapid urease test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.26) Which part of an infant's foot is the safest area to perform a capillary puncture?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.27) What is "the order of draw"?
  1. An order given by a superior to draw blood from a patient
  2. The order blood tubes are filled
  3. The order blood vials are stored
  4. The order you select patients to draw blood from
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.28) What area should you swab to obtain a throat culture?
  1. Larynx
  2. Oral mucosa
  3. Pharynx
  4. Trachea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.29) According to CDC guidelines, how far back should you tilt the patient’s head when performing a nasopharyngeal swab for COVID-19 testing?
  1. 20 degrees
  2. 45 degrees
  3. 70 degrees
  4. 100 degrees
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.30) Which sample is needed for a cardiac enzyme test?
  1. Blood
  2. Sputum
  3. Sweat
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.31) Urine samples for culture should be collected in containers that:
  1. are narrow-mouthed
  2. are sterile
  3. contain an anticoagulant
  4. have been cleaned with disinfectant
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.32) Which of these statements about 24-hour urine collections is true?
  1. If the container contains a preservative, then the preservative must be thrown away
  2. If the patient leaves their house, they should take the container with them
  3. Night-time specimens are discarded
  4. The patient should keep the container in a warm place
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.33) Urine dipstick tests are a type of ____________ examination.
  1. chemical
  2. microscopic
  3. physical
  4. visual
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.34) A patient arrives for an oral glucose tolerance test. She says she ate a few biscuits before coming to the test. What should you do?
  1. Arrange for the test to be rescheduled for another day
  2. Have her walk around to use up the sugar from the biscuits
  3. Start the test as the biscuits will not matter
  4. Wait an hour to ensure all the sugar is out of her bloodstream
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.35) A 2-hour postprandial glucose test:
  1. is collected 2 hours after a meal
  2. is collected 2 hours after fasting
  3. is used to diagnose diabetes during pregnancy
  4. requires a urine sample
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.36) Why should capillary puncture never be performed on an infant’s finger?
  1. It could cause excessive blood loss
  2. It could damage bones and nerves
  3. The blood in the finger does not represent blood in the rest of the body
  4. There is a high risk the infant will move their finger during the puncture
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.37) Extra precautions are necessary when labeling specimens for:
  1. C&S
  2. blood typing
  3. factor assays
  4. therapeutic drug monitoring
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.38) What is the normal range for serum hCG levels in non-pregnant women?
  1. <5 mIU/mL
  2. 5 to 10 mIU/mL
  3. 10 to 20 mIU/mL
  4. 20 to 30 mIU/mL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.39) Which hemoglobin A1c value is the threshold for diagnosing diabetes?
  1. >4.5%
  2. >5.5%
  3. >6.5%
  4. >7.5%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.40) Which of these could cause high blood glucose levels in a diabetic patient?
  1. A low-carb diet
  2. Missed insulin injections
  3. Missed meals
  4. Too much insulin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.41) Which of these terms would patients most easily understand?
  1. Dilation
  2. Erythema
  3. Purpura
  4. Redness
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.42) Which of these helps prevent West Nile virus infection?
  1. Covering your mouth and nose when sneezing
  2. Getting a vaccine
  3. Washing your hands often
  4. Wearing long-sleeved shirts and pants
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.43) What instruction should be given to patients about antibiotic usage?
  1. Antibiotics are effective for treating viral infections
  2. Save leftover antibiotics for the next time you get ill
  3. Stop taking the antibiotic as soon as you feel better
  4. Take the antibiotics at the same times every day
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.44) Which of these helps prevent deep vein thrombosis after surgery?
  1. Avoiding anticoagulants unless pain is severe
  2. Performing leg exercises
  3. Remaining bedridden until fully healed
  4. Restricting fluids
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.45) Which of these health problems is related to poor nutrition and lifestyle factors?
  1. Hemochromatosis
  2. Hypertension
  3. Lyme disease
  4. Thalassemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.46) Which route of drug administration involves placing a gel or tablet between the cheek and the gum?
  1. Buccal
  2. Intramuscular
  3. Intravenous
  4. Z-track
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.47) The terms "dorsiflexion" and "plantarflexion" apply to which body part?
  1. Elbow
  2. Foot
  3. Head
  4. Knee
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.48) Which walking aid provides the greatest amount of support?
  1. Axilla crutch
  2. Cane
  3. Elbow crutch
  4. Walker
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.49) Which range-of-motion exercise involves rotating the arm so the palm points upwards?
  1. Eversion
  2. Inversion
  3. Pronation
  4. Supination
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.50) What crutch is in this image?
  1. Forearm
  2. Axillary
  3. Gutter
  4. Elbow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.51) What is the first treatment for a muscle strain?
  1. Heat lamp
  2. Ice pack
  3. Massage
  4. Moist compress
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.52) Which physical therapy uses radio and sound waves to deep-heat tissue?
  1. Diathermy
  2. Infrared therapy
  3. TENS
  4. Ultrasound therapy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.53) Which pulse point is located at the elbow?
  1. Apical
  2. Brachial
  3. Pedal
  4. Radial
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.54) A mammogram is an X-ray of the:
  1. bladder
  2. breast
  3. fallopian tubes
  4. uterus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.55) Proctoscopy examines the:
  1. bladder
  2. esophagus
  3. rectum
  4. small intestine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.56) Adult pulse is usually measured at which artery?
  1. Brachial
  2. Femoral
  3. Popliteal
  4. Radial
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.57) Which patient examination technique involves tapping parts of the body and using the sound produced to gauge the density of structures?
  1. Auscultation
  2. Observation
  3. Palpation
  4. Percussion
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.58) Cystoscopy is a procedure to view the inside of which organ?
  1. Bladder
  2. Intestines
  3. Liver
  4. Stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.59) Which patient examination technique involves using a stethoscope to listen for abnormalities in different body parts?
  1. Auscultation
  2. Manipulation
  3. Mensuration
  4. Observation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.60) What test measures the pressure inside the bladder?
  1. Cystometry
  2. Cystoscopy
  3. Proctoscopy
  4. Uroflowmetry
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.61) Which patient examination technique uses the hand and fingertips to feel for positions and sizes of organs?
  1. Manipulation
  2. Observation
  3. Palpation
  4. Percussion
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.62) Which medical instrument measures the range of motion of a joint?
  1. Goniometer
  2. Sphygmomanometer
  3. Spirometer
  4. Tonometer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.63) Which test detects cancer by collecting cells from the cervix?
  1. Pap smear
  2. Pelvic exam
  3. Pregnancy test
  4. Ultrasound
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.64) What patient position is this?
  1. Fowler
  2. Knee-chest
  3. Lithotomy
  4. Sim's
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.65) In what position does the patient lie face-down?
  1. Fowler’s
  2. Prone
  3. Sims’
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.66) In what position does the patient lie on their left side with their left leg slightly bent and their right leg sharply bent?
  1. Fowler’s
  2. Prone
  3. Sims’
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.67) A normal resting heart rate for adults is _________ beats per minute.
  1. 40 to 80
  2. 60 to 100
  3. 80 to 120
  4. 100 to 140
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.68) What is the normal range for diastolic blood pressure in adults?
  1. 40–69 mmHg
  2. 60–79 mmHg
  3. 90–119 mmHg
  4. 120–139 mmHg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.69) Which vital sign tells you if the patient has a fever?
  1. BP
  2. BT
  3. HR
  4. RR
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.70) Where is a tympanic temperature taken?
  1. Ear
  2. Forehead
  3. Mouth
  4. Rectum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.71) Before measuring a patient's weight:
  1. ask the patient to put on their shoes
  2. calibrate the scale by standing on it
  3. empty any urinary catheter bags
  4. put on a gown and sterile gloves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.72) A patient's blood pressure is 150/100. What is the patient's pulse pressure?
  1. 1.5
  2. 50
  3. 100
  4. 150
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.73) What pulse is located on the top of the foot?
  1. Carotid
  2. Dorsalis pedis
  3. Femoral
  4. Popliteal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.74) Which of these temperatures is the highest?
  1. Axillary
  2. Oral
  3. Rectal
  4. Temporal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.75) A patient and his wheelchair together weigh 100 kg. The wheelchair alone weighs 20 kg. How much does the patient weigh?
  1. 80 kg
  2. 100 kg
  3. 120 kg
  4. 130 kg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.76) What is the term for a drug that contains the same chemical substance as a brand-name drug?
  1. Controlled
  2. Generic
  3. Over-the-counter
  4. Prescription
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.77) What do vasodilators do?
  1. Decrease glucose levels
  2. Increase the activity of neurotransmitters in the brain
  3. Inhibit the metabolism of glucose
  4. Widen blood vessels
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.78) Which drugs relieve allergy symptoms?
  1. Anticoagulants
  2. Anticonvulsants
  3. Antidiabetics
  4. Antihistamines
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.79) By what route are suppositories administered?
  1. Inhalation
  2. Parenteral
  3. Rectal
  4. Topical
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.80) Drugs that produce loss of sensation are called:
  1. analgesics
  2. anesthetics
  3. anticonvulsants
  4. tranquilizers
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.81) In medicine, what does a c with a line above it mean?
  1. Acute
  2. Change
  3. Continuous
  4. With
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.82) What is the pharmacy abbreviation for "once per day"?
  1. q.d.
  2. q.h.
  3. q.i.d.
  4. q.o.d.
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.83) A prescription reads "400 mg PO q6 hours PRN for pain". By which route must the drug be administered?
  1. Injection
  2. Oral
  3. Sublingual
  4. Sublingual
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.84) What term refers to drugs given by any route other than the digestive tract?
  1. Enteral
  2. Parenteral
  3. Systemic
  4. Topical
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.85) The five rights of medication administration are right person, right medicine, right route, right dose, and:
  1. right physician
  2. right result
  3. right time
  4. right to refuse
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.86) Which route of medication administration has the fastest onset of action?
  1. Intramuscular
  2. Intravenous
  3. Oral
  4. Subcutaneous
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.87) One hour after receiving a dose of insulin, the patient begins sweating and develops tremors and dizziness. His blood glucose level indicates hypoglycemia. Which adverse reaction is this patient experiencing?
  1. Allergic
  2. Anaphylactic
  3. Dose-related
  4. Patient sensitivity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.88) How should you dispose of a needle after administering an injection?
  1. Leave the needle uncapped and place it in a biohazard bag
  2. Leave the needle uncapped and place it in a sharps disposal container
  3. Recap the needle and place it in a biohazard bag
  4. Recap the needle and place it in a sharps disposal container
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.89) Where is the deltoid muscle?
  1. Buttocks
  2. Chest
  3. Leg
  4. Shoulder
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.90) If a drug has a half-life of 8 hours, how much of the drug will remain after 24 hours?
  1. 1.5%
  2. 12.5%
  3. 33%
  4. 50%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.91) When giving a drug to a confused patient, what is the best way to verify the patient's identity?
  1. Ask the patient to confirm their name
  2. Ask the patient to state their name and birth date
  3. Check the name on the patient's wristband
  4. Check the room and bed number that the patient is in
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.92) Which of these is a mistake when attaching ECG leads to a patient?
  1. Attaching the LA lead to the patient's left arm
  2. Attaching the LL lead to the patient's left leg
  3. Attaching the RL lead to the patient's right arm
  4. Attaching the V1 lead to the 4th intercostal space, right sternal edge
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.93) In electrocardiography, what is the angle of Louis also known as?
  1. Anterior-posterior angle
  2. Einthoven's triangle
  3. Lead I
  4. Sternal angle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.94) When setting up an electrocardiogram, which electrodes are used for lead III?
  1. LA and LL
  2. LA and RL
  3. RA and LL
  4. RA and RL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.95) The 12-lead ECG uses how many electrodes?
  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 12
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.96) Why do ECG electrodes have tabs?
  1. So the nurse can write notes on them
  2. To attach alligator clips
  3. To make it easy to attach the electrode to the patient's skin
  4. To prevent patient shocks
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.97) What color is the RA electrode in the American Heart Association ECG lead color coding system?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. White
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.98) The S-T segment on ECG tracing represents the time interval between:
  1. atrial depolarization and atrial repolarization
  2. atrial depolarization and ventricular depolarization
  3. atrial depolarization and ventricular repolarization
  4. ventricular depolarization and ventricular repolarization
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.99) On ECG paper, how many millimeters normally represent one second?
  1. 10 mm
  2. 15 mm
  3. 20 mm
  4. 25 mm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.100) Which part of an ECG strip represents ventricular repolarization?
  1. P wave
  2. QRS complex
  3. S wave
  4. T wave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.101) While recording a 12-lead ECG, you notice leads I and II have a lot of artifacts. Which electrode is probably not placed appropriately?
  1. Left arm
  2. Left leg
  3. Right arm
  4. Right leg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.102) What causes muscle artifacts on ECGs?
  1. Body creams on the skin
  2. Electrical interference
  3. Electrodes that are too loose
  4. Patient movement
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.103) What artifact is in this ECG tracing?
  1. AC interference
  2. Baseline wander
  3. Loose lead
  4. Muscle tremor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.104) What artifact is in this ECG tracing?
  1. AC interference
  2. CPR compression
  3. Loose lead
  4. Muscle tremor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.105) What artifact is in this ECG tracing?
  1. AC interference
  2. Baseline wander
  3. Loose lead
  4. Muscle tremor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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